1. Regulatory Framework Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

What are the three bodies responsible for statutory regulation under the Financial Services Act 2012?

A
  • Financial Policy Committee (FPC)
  • Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)
  • Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary objective of the Financial Policy Committee (FPC)?

A

To identify, monitor and take action to remove or reduce systemic risks to the stability of the financial system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the statutory objectives of the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)?

A
  • Promotion of the safety and soundness of firms
  • Contributing to the securing of an appropriate degree of protection for policyholders

The PRA is part of the Bank of England and is operationally independent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the strategic objective of the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)?

A

To make sure the relevant markets function well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the three operational objectives of the FCA.

A
  • Consumer protection
  • Market integrity
  • Fair market competition

These objectives guide the FCA in regulating financial services and protecting consumers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the Consumer protection objective require the FCA to do?

A

Secure an appropriate degree of protection for consumers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is included in the Integrity objective of the FCA?

A
  • Soundness of the financial system
  • Prevention of financial crime
  • Market abuse protection
  • Orderly operation of financial markets
  • Transparency of price formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the Competition objective of the FCA promote?

A

Effective competition in the interests of consumers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Mortgage Charter aimed at?

A

Helping customers who may be struggling to meet their mortgage repayments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the Principles for Businesses (PRIN)?

A
  • Integrity
  • Skill, care and diligence
  • Management and control
  • Financial prudence
  • Market conduct
  • Customers’ interests
  • Communications with clients
  • Conflicts of interest
  • Customers: relationships of trust
  • Clients’ assets
  • Relations with regulators
  • Consumer Duty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Consumer Duty introduced by the FCA?

A

A requirement for firms to act to deliver good outcomes for retail customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fill in the blank: It is a criminal offence to carry on a regulated activity unless _______.

A

authorised or exempt

Regulated activities include mortgage lending, accepting deposits, and advising on investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the bodies that are exempt from the authorisation requirements.

A
  • The Bank of England
  • The European Central Bank
  • Central banks of the European Economic Area
  • Local authorities
  • Various government bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are appointed representatives in the context of financial advice?

A

Firms exempt with a contract to advise on an authorised person’s products

They are ‘tied’ to the product provider, who is responsible for the advice given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three parts of the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SM&CR)?

A
  • Senior Managers Regime
  • Certification Regime
  • Rules of Conduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Senior Managers Regime applies to which individuals?

A

Persons performing senior roles in a firm

These roles are specified by the PRA and FCA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the consequence of lacking governance controls under the Senior Managers Regime?

A

Disciplinary action may be imposed

The regime includes provisions for criminal offences like ‘reckless misconduct’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the roles covered by the Senior Managers Regime.

A
  • Head of key business area
  • Group entity senior manager
  • Significant responsibility function

These roles are critical for the safety and soundness of the firm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is required for each senior manager under the SM&CR?

A

A statement of responsibilities

This should detail their responsibilities and be complemented by their CV and job description.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the Certification Regime apply to?

A

Individuals not carrying out SMFs but capable of causing significant harm

Firms must assess and certify the fitness of these individuals annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Under the SM&CR, who is excluded from the regime?

A

Senior persons in purely administrative roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a direct authorisation, who is responsible for compliance with MCOB?

A

The firm itself

Compliance services from a network do not absolve the firm from responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the role of an appointed representative in mortgage advice?

A

Compliance responsibility lies with the principal(firm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are home reversion plans classified as?

A

Not mortgages; involve the sale of property to a finance provider

Providers cannot be described as ‘lenders’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
For a mortgage to be a **regulated mortgage contract**, what criteria must apply?
* Credit provided to an individual or trustees * Secured by a mortgage on land in the UK * Not a limited payment second charge bridging loan, etc.
26
What is the definition of a **high net worth individual** according to the FCA?
* Annual net income of no less than £300,000 * Net assets of no less than £3m * Obligations guaranteed by a person with equivalent income or assets ## Footnote This classification allows for execution-only mortgage sales under certain conditions.
27
What is an **execution-only sale**?
A sale where advice is not provided unless specific conditions are met ## Footnote Conditions include non-interactive processes or customer rejection of advice.
28
What are the **MCOB rules** designed to reinforce?
FCA Principles
29
What is an **early repayment charge**?
Charge applied when a loan is repaid before the end of its term
30
What is a **lifetime mortgage**?
A product for older customers where repayment is deferred until death or long-term care ## Footnote Previously known as equity release mortgages.
31
What is a **home reversion plan**?
Selling part or all of a property to a finance provider while becoming a tenant ## Footnote This is a niche product offered by a few specialist providers.
32
What does **Principle 12** require firms to do regarding retail customers?
Act to deliver good outcomes for retail customers
33
What must customers be given the opportunity to do before entering into a mortgage contract?
Make an informed decision ## Footnote This includes considering the illustration and the offer.
34
What is regarded as **undue pressure** in the context of mortgage contracts?
Presenting the illustration, offer, and mortgage deed at the same time and asking to sign ## Footnote This does not allow customers to make an informed decision.
35
What are the **six outcomes** set by the Financial Conduct Authority regarding customer treatment?
* Fair treatment of customers * Transparency * Responsiveness * Consistency * Accountability * Continuous improvement
36
For electronic communication about a regulated mortgage contract, firms must ensure that information is _______.
Secure ## Footnote This includes handling information in accordance with data protection legislation.
37
What must firms demonstrate regarding the **authenticity and integrity** of electronic communications?
Can be verified ## Footnote This includes date and time verification, considering business risks.
38
What must firms provide if a customer requests it during electronic communication?
A paper copy of the terms and conditions
39
What types of promotions do MCOB rules apply to?
* Advertisements * Telephone calls * Personal visits * Presentations to groups
40
True or false: MCOB rules apply to letters and illustrations sent to just one customer.
FALSE ## Footnote The rules do not apply to simple promotions containing only basic information.
41
What are **real-time credit promotions**?
* Personal visits * Telephone conversations * Interactive dialogue ## Footnote These involve direct interaction with the customer.
42
What must non-real time credit promotions ensure?
* Do not call at unsocial hours * Make the purpose clear * Identify themselves and the firm * Check customer consent to proceed
43
What is required for a firm to claim to provide advice from the **whole market**?
Consider a sufficiently large number of contracts generally available ## Footnote They must also be independent of any lender.
44
What must lenders provide as soon as it becomes clear a customer is considering entering into a mortgage?
Key messages - this includes the firm's name, contact details, and level of service.
45
What does **Principle 9** state regarding suitability of advice?
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure suitability ## Footnote This applies to both sale and variation of regulated mortgage contracts.
46
What factors must be considered to determine if a mortgage contract is **suitable**?
* Customer's affordability * Appropriateness to needs * Most suitable option available ## Footnote If no suitable contract exists, no recommendation can be made.
47
What must a firm explain regarding **affordability**?
* Current interest rates may increase * Customer's circumstances might change
48
What is an example of an **unanticipated economic shock**?
The aftermath of the Autumn Statement in 2022 ## Footnote This led many lenders to suspend lending temporarily.
49
What must be recorded if a customer rejects all recommendations?
The change to providing information on an execution-only basis
50
What is the purpose of the **European Standardised Information Sheet (ESIS)**?
Help customers make comparisons between products ## Footnote It must be clear, fair, and not misleading.
51
What must the offer document contain after a mortgage application is accepted?
* Validity period of the offer * Consequences of not entering the contract * Interest rate change effects
52
What must be confirmed once the mortgage contract has started?
* Amount of first payment * Amount of subsequent payments * Method of payment collection
53
What must be confirmed regarding the **first payment** required for a mortgage?
The amount of the first payment required
54
What are the **subsequent payments** that need to be confirmed if they differ?
The amount of subsequent payments if different ## Footnote This ensures the customer understands their payment obligations.
55
What should be confirmed about the **method of payment collection** for a mortgage?
The method of payment collection
56
What must be confirmed regarding **insurance** in connection with the mortgage?
Whether any insurance has been purchased, first and subsequent premiums, and collection method ## Footnote This includes whether premiums are collected with the mortgage payment or separately.
57
What types of mortgage repayment structures must be confirmed?
* Interest only * Repayment * Combination
58
What should the customer be informed about if they **fall into arrears**?
Who to inform within the lending company and what steps may be taken
59
What do MCOB 8 and 9 set down rules for?
Equity release products ## Footnote These products allow individuals to use home equity to raise cash.
60
What are the two generic categories of **equity release products**?
* Lifetime mortgages * Home reversion plans ## Footnote These categories define how equity can be accessed.
61
What is a **lifetime mortgage**?
A mortgage enabling older borrowers to release equity, typically repaid from the estate after death ## Footnote Interest can be rolled up and added to the cumulative debt.
62
What age group is typically eligible for a **lifetime mortgage**?
Customers over 55 years of age ## Footnote This age restriction is a key feature of lifetime mortgages.
63
What happens to the mortgage repayment in a **lifetime mortgage** while the customer occupies the property?
* No instalment repayments of capital due * No payment of interest on capital due * Interest payments may become due ## Footnote Full or partial repayment of capital is not due while the customer occupies the property.
64
What is a **home reversion plan**?
A contract where part of the property is sold to the finance provider, allowing the occupant to stay for life ## Footnote The occupant has a right of occupation until they vacate the property.
65
What is required for a **reversion occupier** under a home reversion plan?
Entitlement to occupy at least 40% of the land as a dwelling ## Footnote This ensures the occupant has a significant interest in the property.
66
Under what conditions does the entitlement to occupy end in a **home reversion plan**?
* Resident of a care home * Death of the occupier * End of a specified period of at least 20 years ## Footnote These conditions define the termination of the arrangement.
67
What does **APR** stand for in lending products?
Annual Percentage Rate ## Footnote The APR is used to compare the cost of similar lending products.
68
The **APR** takes into account which of the following?
* Rate of interest charged * Setting up charges * Insurance premiums required by the firm
69
True or false: The **APR** includes charges incurred during the mortgage term.
FALSE ## Footnote Charges like early repayment charges are excluded, but predetermined redemption fees at the end of the term are included.
70
What is the purpose of the **APRC**?
To measure the annual cost of borrowing for mortgages ## Footnote The APRC includes all additional expenses and discounts.
71
Before granting a mortgage loan, lenders must assess the customer's ability to _______.
repay it ## Footnote This includes inquiries into income, outgoings, and other resources.
72
What must lenders ensure regarding the products they provide?
* Suitability * Affordability
73
Firms must not impose **excessive charges** on customers. Which charges must be disclosed?
* Early repayment charges * Arrears charges ## Footnote Charges must reflect the actual costs incurred by the firm.
74
A firm must provide a current information sheet on mortgage payment difficulties within _______ days of becoming aware of arrears.
15 ## Footnote This ensures customers are informed about their options.
75
What must firms do to ensure staff maintain their **competence**?
* Identify development needs * Provide necessary training ## Footnote Firms are responsible for ensuring staff remain competent.
76
What are the requirements for a firm's **recruitment policies**?
* Assess recruit's competence * Check references and qualifications * Check gaps in employment
77
What must all mortgage advisers pass to attain competence?
* Certificate in Mortgage Advice (CII) * Certificate in Mortgage Advice and Practice (CeMAP) ## Footnote Additional qualifications are required for advisers dealing with lifetime mortgages.
78
Intermediaries must have **professional indemnity (PI)** insurance unless they meet certain conditions. What are these conditions?
* Guarantee from an authorized person with net tangible assets over £10m * Subsidiary of a bank or similar institution ## Footnote PI insurance covers negligence and dishonesty of staff.
79
What is the maximum award the **FOS** can require a firm to make for complaints referred on or after 1st April 2025?
£445,000 ## Footnote This amount applies to actions or omissions on or after 1st April 2019.
80
Client money must be held in a separate _______ account.
client bank ## Footnote This ensures proper handling of funds received from clients.
81
True or false: Interest on the client bank account belongs to the firm unless otherwise agreed.
FALSE ## Footnote Interest belongs to the customer unless there is an agreement stating otherwise.