1997 Flashcards by 567 123

A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

a. A potential cavity
b. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. All of these

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On of the following true of coronary circulation:

a. A rapidly boating heart prolongs diastole and promotes filing of the coronary arteries
b. Studies show that smoking has nothing to do with the coronary arteries
c. A low cardiac output may give rise to angina pectoris as when the aortic valve does not close properly
d. It physiologic importance lies in the fact that the total anaerobic conditions are adequate in sustaining ventricular contraction

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Which of the following statements is true:

a. The ulnar n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the flexor Digitorum Profundus, the median half of Profundus is supplied by the median n.
b. The median n. supplies al of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus; the median half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve
c. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the Flexor Digitorum Sublimis
d. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Digitorum Profundus

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When the scapula is stabilized, the following ranges of motion is attributed to the glenohumeral joint, EXCEPT:

a. When the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90 degrees by active insufficiency of the brachialis muscles
b. Approximately 90 degrees of flexion take place
c. 40 to 60 degree of hyperextension is available, limited by the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments
d. Flexing the elbow to 90 degrees isolates rotation of the glenohumeral joint from forearm supination and pronation

brachialis only acts on the elbow!!

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Functional of ligaments include:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure usually a nerve
b. Prohibits movements in undesired plane
c. All of these
d. Limit the range or extent of normal movement

C. All of these

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The security of the ankle joint is a result of an immobile act not rigid union of the following joint:

a. Inferior tibiofibular joint
b. Superior tibiofibular joint
c. Calcaneocuboid joint
d. Subtalar joint

Inferior tibiofibular joint - syndesmotic jt (immovable)

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A patient is paralyzed from the waist down and has been using the wheelchair. The following procedures will allows the patient to go up and down the stairs, EXCEPT:

a. In climbing down, sitting at the edge of the landing, facing forward with her legs extended in front of her
b. In climbing up, place a footstool in front of the wheelchair where she can slowly lower herself onto
c. In climbing up, when her back is toward the stairs, she reaches back and place her hands on the first step, pushing down and lifting herself onto the step
d. In climbing down, after positioning herself at the edge of the landing, she’ll slide her buttocks and her hands onto each step using her hands to position her legs onto the next lower step
e. In climbing up, after she lowers herself onto the floor, she then pushes down and inch herself backward, so her back is toward stairs

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This nerve innervates the superior oblique and exits the brain stem posteriorly:

a. Abducens nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Trochlear nerve

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Functions of veins include:

a. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
b. Propels blood through venous pump
c. All of these
d. Regulate cardiac output

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In the central part of the mediastinal part of the medial surface is large area where bronchi and pulmonary vessels plunge into the lung. Name this part:

a. Hilus

b. Apex

c. Mediastinum

d. Root

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Functions of the pretibial group, EXCEPT:

a. Anterior tibialis is the primary dorsiflexor of the ankle
b. Paralysis of the muscles result in drop-foot during the swing phase
c. Important in many open-chain motion, i.e. in placing the foot for driving
d. Open-chain motions of the foot requires a lot of muscle force due to poor leverage

pretibial/muscles in front (DF! have good leverage)

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The following statements apply to crutch-walking up the stairs, non-weight-bearing right, EXCEPT:

a. To move up onto the next step, patient pushes down on his crutches and hop onto the first step with left foot, the other leg moving up onto the step at the same time.
b. Instruct patient to grasp the banister with his left hand and had crutches to physical therapist, supporting his weight on his left leg
c. After moving left foot on the next step, the patient swings up the crutches onto the next step alongside his feet
d. Instruct to grasp the banister with his left hand and shift left crutches to right hand supporting his weight on both crutches and his left leg.
e. Stand at the bottom of the stairs behind the patient, slightly to his right

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In polyneuropathy, lesions of the occur bilaterally and the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in distal parts of the extremities:

a. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true

B. The first statement is true; the second statement is false (lesions are more prominent in the DISTAL THAN IN PROXIMAL parts)

*glovestocking

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The following statements describe the factors affecting a cell’s net rate of diffusion in one direction, EXCEPT:

a. Difference in pressure across the membrane
b. In ions, the difference in chemical potential between the two sides of the membrane
c. Permeability and area of membrane
d. Difference in concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane

B. In ions, the difference in chemical potential between the two sides of the membrane (should be ELECTRICAL POTENTIAL)

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Decrease in resting membrane potential, making it more positive:

a. Variable conductance
b. Depolarization
c. Hyperpolarization
d. None of these

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Which of the following is true of the patella:

a. It maintains a constant relationship with the fibula is flexed
b. Al of these
c. It is easily dislocated medially due to the powerful extensors of the knee that pull oblique and chiefly from the lateral side of the thigh
d. It is a sesamoid bone in a tendon and is said to enhance the power of knee extensors by increasing the leverage of that muscle

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The following statements describe a lower motor neuron paralysis, EXCEPT:

a. Babinski sign is not present
b. Weakness of movement is due to a lesion of the motor cell or its axon
c. Muscle fasciculation’s may be present
d. Characterized by diminished tonus
e. Reflex arc is interrupted resulting in exaggerated stretch reflex

E ( exaggerated stretch reflex = UMNL)

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Procedures performed together to relieve pain by exercising the synovial membrane and removing diseased cartilage, soft tissue and the bony enlargement from joints:

a. Menisectomy
b. Arthrodesis
c. None of these
d. Debridement and synovectomy
e. Osteotomy

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This muscle inserts into the iliotibial tract and into the gluteal tuberosity of the shaft of the femur, posterior aspect:

a. Biceps Femoris
b. Semimebranosus
c. Semitendionosus
d. Gluteus Maximus

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Which of the following events are required for the mechanical linkages between the actin and myosin to produce muscle contraction?

a. None of these
b. Chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension
c. Both of these
d. A specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the two

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The hindfoot is composed of the following bones:

a. Navicular, Cuboid and Three Cuneiform
b. Metatarsals and Phalanges
c. None of these
d. Talus and Calcaneus

D. Talus and Calcaneus

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Mobility of the shoulder joint is made possible by these bony articulations:

a. All of these
b. Acromioclavicular
c. Sternoclavicular
d. Glenohumeral

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Muscle for inward rotation of the glenohumeral joint:

a. Teres Minor
b. Infraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. Supraspinatus

C. Subscapularis

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Invasion and eversion of the foot occurs at which joint:

a. Subtalar and Transverse Tarsal Joint
b. Cuneonavicular joint
c. Cubonavicular joint
d. Intercuneiform and Cuneocuboid joints

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Unilateral contraction of this muscle combines rotation of the head to the opposite side, lateral flexion to the same side, and head and cervical vertebrae extension: a. Scalenes b. Erector Spinae c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Longus Capitis and Longus Colli

The following statements apply to the bicipital groove, EXCEPT: a. Located anterior and medial to the greater tuberosity b. More easily palpable if the arm is externally rotated c. Lesser tuberosity is at the same level as the coracoids d. Too much pressure on palpation can be very tender e. Bordered medially by the greater tuberosity and laterally by the lesser tuberosity

E (medially by LESSER and laterally by GREATER)

In Erb-Duchenne palsy, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT: a. Limb will medically rotated by the unopposed sternocostal part of the pectoralis major b. Causes excessive traction or tearing of C3 and C4 roots of the brachial plexus c. The forearm will be pronated due to the loss of the biceps and there will be less of sensation down the lateral side of arm d. Injuries result from excessive displacement of the head to the opposite side and depression of the shoulder or the same side e. The musculocutaneous, nerve to the subclavian, musculocutaneous and axillary nerves will be denervated

B (C5-C6)

This injury causes paralysis of the Pronator Teres and Quadratus a. Ulnar nerve injury above the elbow b. Radial nerve injury above the elbow c. Median nerve injury above the elbow d. None of these

Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, face of extremities: a. Myoclonus b. Tremor c. Hyperkinesia d. Chorea e. Athetosis

The following statements apply to genu valgum, EXCEPT: a. Abnormalities of calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem b. Although usually bilateral, it may occur unilaterally c. Has strong familial tendency but may also be exaggerated by individual traits d. An angular deformity of the leg in which the ankles are separated when the knees are in contact e. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella

E (increases LATERAL FORCE on patella)

The human torso's nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves is evidenced by its segmental development. One pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin. This is known as a: a. Dermatome b. Spinal Nerves c. Terminal Branches d. Myotome

In flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. The following positions of the pelvis and vertebrae are used: a. Posterior tilt of the pelvis with kyphotic position of the vertebrae b. Anterior tilt of the pelvis with lordotic position of the lumbar spine c. None of these d. All of these

The following statements are true of the clavicle, EXCEPT: a. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees b. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments causes the upward rotation of the clavicle c. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint approximately 40 degrees around its long axis d. After the shoulder has been abducted to complete scapular upward transverse rotation occurs to complete scapular upward rotation and shoulder flexion

A (limited to 110 deg)

The pained spinal nerves are as follows: a. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve b. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve c. 8 cervical 10, thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve d. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve

If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose? a. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) b. Four-point-gait c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing) d. Swing-through three-point gaite. Two-point gait

This channel communicated with the periosteum at the bone's surface and receives fluid from the haversian canal. a. Volkmann's canal b. Lamellae c. Canaliculus d. None of these e. Lacuna

The spinal accord tapers at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra called: a. Cauda equina b. Filum terminal c. Coccyx d. Corpus medullaris

D. Conus medullaris

Using the athroscope and supplementary instruments, which of the following procedures can be performed? a. Draining of a septic tank b. Biopsy of synovial disorders c. Removing loose foreign bodies and adhesions d. All of these e. Smoothing knee cartilage irregularities from chondromalacia patellar

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called: a. Parameter b. Dura mater c. Choroid plexus d. Meninges

The whole process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates muscle contraction is called excitation contraction, coupling. During this process, the following events occur, EXCEPT: a. Calcium initiates muscle contraction b. The action potential is transmitted to all the muscle fibrils via the tubular system c. The actions potential in the muscle triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Norepinephrine is released into the myoneural junction

D Acetylcholine!

Acetylcholine is released at the vagal nerve endings through the simulation of the parasympathetic nerves to the heart. Effects of this hormone include: a. Slow transmission of cardiac impulse to the ventricles b. Both of these c. None of these d. Decreases the rate of rhythm of the sinus node

Muscle contraction strength is increased in the following manner: a. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units b. Motor neurons with the smallest innervations ratio are activated initially c. All of these d. Simultaneously increasing the number of activated motor units

C. All of these

This structure separates the left and right cerebral hemisphere: a. Lateral Fissure b. Medial longitudinal fissure c. Parieto-occipital fissure d. Central Sulcus

Synovial joints have the most complex structure and permit maximus mobility, and include: a. All of these b. None of these c. Joint capsule d. Articular cartilage e. Synovial membrane and cavity

A fracture line that forms a right angle with the bone's axis: a. Oblique b. Transverse c. Spiral d. Spiral e. Linear

Increase in resting membrane potential, making it more negative: a. Depolarization b. None of these c. Variable conductance d. Hyperpolarization

The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT: a. Particularly useful in diagnosing conditions, i.e., meniscal disorder and cruciate ligament injuries b. Most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus c. It is contraindicated for patients with a bleeding disorder d. It is both a diagnostic procedure and treatment and involves very little knee trauma e. The visual examination of the joint interior, using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source

In actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface. This ligament resists this tendency: a. Posterior cruciate ligament b. Lateral ligament c. Medial ligament d. Anterior cruciate ligament

If your patient cannot support his weight on one leg but has normal use of his arms, upper body and other leg, which crutch-walking gait would you choose? a. Two-point gait b. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing) d. Four-point gait

B. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)

Which of the following statements is true of lesions of the basal ganglia: a. Muscle tone abnormalities and involuntary movements b. Disorders involving initiation of movement c. Difficulty in continuing and stopping movement d. All of these

A fibrous type of joint that tightly connects the articular surfaces of two bones but permits minimal movement: a. Syndesmosis b. Cartilaginous c. None of these d. Synovial e. Sutures

These effects result in aerobic energy depletion in the early stages of heavy exercise: a. Both of these b. Oxygen debt c. Depletion of glycogen stores d. None of these

This type of contraction stabilizes joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Isokinetic

Functions of the Cerebellum include: a. None of these b. It receives proprioceptive impulses via the spinal cord (spinocerebellar tracts) from tendons, joints and muscle c. All of these d. It receives proprioceptive impulses from the semicircular canal

C. All of these

When muscle contracts to operate and so regulate the speed and power of another prime mover its is said to be a: a. Prime mover b. Antagonist c. Synergist d. Fixators

The final stage of mitosis where the two sets of daughter chromosomes are pulled completely apart: a. Metaphase b. Prometaphase c. Telophase d. Prophase

The human peripheral nervous system is composed of: a. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 32 pairs of spinal nerves b. 10 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves c. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves d. 13 pairs of cranial nerve and 33 pairs of spinal nerves

Myelin sheath is possessed by peripheral and central nerve fibers, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have: a. Node of Ranvier b. Neurolemma c. None of these d. Schwann cell

In the O-A-B blood group system, the agglutinins responsible for causing transfusion reactions develop spontaneously: whereas in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur: a. Both statements are false b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false c. The first statement is false, the second statement is true d. Both statements are true

This muscle is innervated by two branches of the femoral nerve, and performs hip flexion and extension. The tendon of origin may be palpated in the V-shaped area between the Sartorius and the tensor fascia latae when the hip is flexed: a. Vastus Intermedius b. Rectus Femoris c. Vastus Medialis d. Vastus Lateralis

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength, EXCEPT: a. When the serratus anterior is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medial ward and up b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other c. When the trapezius is weak, the scapula is displaced down and out d. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anterior or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 90 degrees against the examiner's downward pressure e. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurogenic lesion

The following precautions must be observed when turning patients after internal fixation, EXCEPT: a. When turning on the unaffected side, the assistant should grasp the patient's hip above the incision site b. When turning on the affected side, the assistant's hand should be positioned on the patient's shoulder and hip c. Pain medication must be taken 15-20 minutes before turning d. Alternating from side to side helps promote good circulation e. As the patient turns, support affected leg in adduction and once repositioned, keep hip and knee elevated on pillows in a higher plane as the unaffected leg

E (it should be abduction)

The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT: a. Extends the cervical spine with bilateral contraction b. Produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction c. Increases cervical lordotic curve with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli d. Elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized

A (it flexes during bilat contraction)

This is the largest blood vessel in the body and runs up the right sides of the lumbar vertebral bodies and behind the peritoneum of the posterior abdominal wall. It enters the right atrium at the lower right corner of the heart: a. Great Saphenous Vein b. Inferior Vena Cava c. Superior Vena Cava d. Femoral Vein

In pedal meniscus injury, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT: a. Responsible for the condition referred to as 'locked knee' b. Complete extension of the knee joint may be prevented if the torn portion of cartilage ledge between the joint surfaces c. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment d. Lesion may consist of transverse tear through the cartilage e. Usually caused by sudden internal rotation of the femur upon the fixed tibia, often accompanied by abduction and flexion of the knee

C (at the peripheral attachment)

Two or three muscle contractions that do not require expenditure of oxygen made possible by chemical energy provided by ATP, stored in the skeletal muscles is referred to as: a. Anaerobic Metabolism b. Glycolysis c. Krebs Cycle d. Aerobic Metabolism

This ligament of the vertebral bodies limits backward bending, and supports the anterior convexity in the lumbosacral area. a. Lateral longitudinal ligament b. Medial longitudinal ligament c. Anterior longitudinal ligament d. Posterior longitudinal ligament

Indications for skin traction are as follows, EXCEPT: a. To relieve muscle spasms b. Patient with a fracture requiring prolonged traction or traction force beyond 10 pounds (4.5 kg) c. To treat stable fracture, particularly in the hip's subtrochanteric region d. Preoperative fracture treatment i.e., before internal fixation of a fractured hip e. None of these

B (skeletal traction will be used)

Traction is an important form of orthopedic immobilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. Traction aligns a fracture and corrects deformities, pre- and postoperatively b. Traction allows the patient limited motion of his affected extremity c. The limb is immobilized by applying opposing pull at both ends of the injured area d. Unlike the traction pull is not an effective counter-traction e. It is an alternative to surgery and used to ensure proper positioning of the affected limb

D (effective)

This muscle's sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint. It was an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process: a. Biceps b. Brachioradialis c. Brachialis d. Triceps

The following statements are true of the anatomical snuffbox, EXCEPT: a. It is bounded laterally by the tendon of the abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus b. It is bounded medially by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus c. It is easy to palpate the scaphoid bone here d. The radial artery pulsations are felt here

Example of syndesmosis: a. Tarsals articulating with each other b. Tibia articulating with fibula in the ankle c. Talus articulating with calcaneus bone d. Fibula articulating with tibia in the knee

Cervical traction is applied following fractures or dislocations of the cervical or high thoracic vertebrae. The following statements apply to tongs used in cervical spine traction, EXCEPT: a. Tongs attached to the patient's skull are used with a weight-and-pulley system to exert pull along the axis of the spine b. Patient is not encouraged to feed himself since he cannot turn on his side for feeding c. Gardner-Wells tongs are considered the least likely to slip and tear the skin from prolonged use in comparison to Crutchfield and Vinke d. Carries the risk of spinal cord injury from excessive manipulation of the patient's head and cervical vertebrae during traction application. e. Promotes vertebral alignment and decreases the possibility of inadvertent movement and further injury

B (still encouraged)

The following statements apply to the auscultatory method for measuring systolic and diastolic pressure, EXCEPT: a. The auscultatory method is very accurate, values are within 11 percent compared to direct arterial measurements b. When the Korotkoff sounds become muffled, the pressure on the manometer is approximately equal to the diastolic pressure. c. Tapping sounds are heard after cuff pressure falls below systolic pressure in the antecubital artery synchronizing with the heartbeat. d. Korotkoff sound is heard with each pulsation cycle as the cuff pressure closes the artery during the arterial pressure cycle.

A (within 10 percent)

Muscles of the digits that have both proximal and distal attachment in the forearm or humerus is classified as: a. Thenar Muscles b. Extrinsic Muscles c. Intrinsic Muscles d. None of these

D (obv not muscles of the hand)

The proximal IP joint of the hand is stabilized in order to test this muscle: a. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis b. Flexor Digitorum Profundus c. Interossei d. Lumbricals

Two forces whose points of application occur on opposite sides of an axis and in opposite direction to produce rotation of the body: a. Isometric Torque b. Antagonists c. Force couple d. Isokinetic Torque

Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside: a. None of these b. Resting membrane potential c. Hyperpolarization d. Depolarization

The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments, EXCEPT: a. They cross and then attach to the internal surface of the femoral condyles b. Prevent anteroposterior displacement of the tibia and the femur c. Usually damaged by violent force that drives the femur backward while the knee is extended with the tibia fixed in position d. Arise from the tibial plateau e. Help prevent side-to-side movement

C. (while the knee is flexed NOT extended)

Afferent component of muscle stretch reflex that provide CNS information about the length and rate of change in length of striated muscles: a. Extrafusal fiber b. Muscle spindle c. Intrafusal fiber d. None of these

B efferent is the intrafusal fiber

This mixed nerve supplies the muscles of mastication and divides into three major peripheral nerve, namely ophthalmic, maxillary and the mandibular: a. Trigeminal b. Abducens nerve c. Trochlear nerve d. Oculomotor nerve

An individual who is exposed to high heat stress (40 degrees Celsius) will show increased: a. Skin temperature b. Heart rate c. all of these d. Sweat rate

With the subject sitting and the knee relaxed in 90 degrees of flexion, these distal enlargements of the femur can be felt anteriorly on both sides of the patella: a. None of these b. Condyles c. Epicondyles d. Medial collateral ligaments

Two major grooves on the lateral surface of the brain: a. None of these b. Both of these c. Central sulcus of Rolando d. Lateral fissure of Sylvius

If conditions are right, once an action potential has been elicited on the membrane of a normal fiber, the depolarization process will travel over the entire membrane or not at all. This called: a. Repetitive discharge b. Reexcitation process c. Direction of propagation d. All-or-Nothing principle

This instability occurs with a tear of the arcuate complex. The result of adduction stress test is positive at 30 degrees of flexion. As is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test. Lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this instability: a. Posterolateral instability b. Combined anterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability c. None of these d. Anterolateral Instability e. Anteromedial Instability

Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for severe hip pain from degenerative joint disease in elderly patients who are poor surgical risks and have little prospect of walking? a. Muscle Release b. Femoral Prosthesis c. Arthrodesis d. Double-cut arthroplasty e. Displacement Osteotomy

An intramedullary rod or screw plate is an internal fixation device used in this fracture type: a. Tibia fracture b. Femoral shaft fracture c. Upper extremity fracture d. Subtrochanteric (femoral) fracture e. Trochanteric (femoral) fracture

A UE fx = plate/rod nail ST fx = hip pin/nail/screwplate

The following statements apply to the principle of one-way condition, EXCEPT: a. Conduction is through chemical synapses b. Signal may be transmitted both direction but only one way at one time c. Allows signals to be directed towards specific goals allowing various functions of the nervous system d. Signals are transmitted in one way conduction

B (only one direction)

If the angle is greater than 180 degrees on the medial side of the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as: a. Genu Valgum b. Genu Varum c. None of these d. Q Angle

A >180 on medial = genu valgum

Intense discomfort that usually accompanies an injury or inflammation, may immobilize the patient: a. Phantom pain b. Chronic pain c. Referred pain d. Acute pain e. Superficial pain

Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints: a. All of these b. The interior and posterior aches of the atlas are united to the margins of the foreman magnum c. These are uni axial, synovial paired joints d. Nodding or "Yes" movement occur in this joint

The following consideration apply to broad based quad cane, EXCEPT: a. Remind patient to walk as close to the walk as possible to prevent others from kicking or tripping over the cane b. A metal cane with three or four prongs or legs to provide a wide base of support. c. Cane must be turned sideways when negotiating a standard stair d. When using cane, body must be erect as he walks and may lean over the cane e. Recommended for patients with poor balance

D (don't lean over the cane)c

The muscle mastication: a. Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid and Lateral Pterygoid b. Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Stylohyoid and Mylohyoids c. None of these d. Temporalis, Masseter, Mylohyoid and Digastric

Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following, EXCEPT: a. Inadequate fracture manipulation b. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism c. Infection of the fractured bone d. Vitamin E deficiency e. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture)

D (it should be Vit. D)

The most serious cardiac arrhythmia resulting from cardiac impulses re-exciting the same ventricular muscles over and over: a. Premature ventricular contractions b. Ventricular Paroxysmal tachycardia c. Stokes-Adams syndrome d. Ventricular fibrillation

Decreased resistance to passive manipulation of the limb: a. Hypertonia b. Hypotonia c. Spasticity d. Rigidity

This thick plate of commissural fibers unite the two cerebral hemispheres: a. Corpus Callosum b. Uncus c. Gyrus cinguli d. Parahippocampal gyrus

If your patient cannot support full weight on either of his legs, which crutch-walking gait would you choose? a. Four-point gait b. Two-point gait c. Swing-through three-point gait) d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

Involuntary, but slower, twisting movements causing transient, odd and unnatural posturing, most evident in distal parts: a. Tremor b. Chorea c. Athetosis d. Hyperkinesia e. Hypoclonus

These vesicular organelles allow the cells to digest and thereby remove unwanted substances and structures, i.e. bacteria: a. None of these b. Peroxisomes c. Ribosomes d. Lysosomes

In this foot deformity, the heel is off the ground: a. Pes Varus b. Pes Calcaneus c. Pes Equinus d. Pes Cavus

Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume plus expiratory reserve volume: a. Vital capacity b. Total lung capacity c. Inspiratory capacity d. Functional residual capacity

4. A terminal branch of the internal carotid artery: a. None of these b. Middle cerebral artery c. Opthalmic artery d. Lenticulostriate arteries

5. Partial tearing to this ligament occurs at its forced abduction of the tibia in the femur: a. Lateral Collateral Ligament b. Anterior Cruciate Ligament c. Medial Collateral Ligament d. Posterior Cruciate Ligament

6. Which of the following statements is true of the Hip Adductors? a. Most of the adductors can flex as well as adduct b. All of these c. They can assist in extending the hip d. Because they pass behind the femur, they can assist in medial rotation

7. The process of reproduction by which the cell splits to form two daughter cells: a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Miosis d. Mitosis

8. Which of the following statements about the Gluteus Maximus is true? a. It is a rotator of the extended thigh though it losses power if the thigh is flexed b. All of these c. None of these d. It is an extensor of the hip but is used only when the joint has to be extended with power

9. The following statements are true of the right atrium, EXCEPT: a. It receives the venous blood returning from all parts of the body except the lungs b. The superior vena cava enters it vertically from above c. The inferior vena cava enters it vertically from below d. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins

10. Reflex response mediated by more than two neurons: a. None of these b. Polysynaptic nerve response c. Both of these d. Monosynaptic reflex response

11. If the surrounding temperature is greater than the skin, the body gains heat from the surroundings and the only means of cooling is through: a. Evaporation b. None of these c. Conduction d. Radiation

12. The Chopart joint, a surgical level of amputation is formed by these articulating surfaces: a. Tarsometatarsal and transverse tarsal joint b. None of these c. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints d. Talocrural and Tarsometatarsal

13. Pulmonary edema may be caused by: a. None of these b. Both of these c. Damage to the pulmonary capillary membrane due to infections d. Mitral valve disease or left heart failure

14. When the deltoid and supraspinatus are paralyzed, arm elevation is still possible through this muscle: a. Coracobrachialis b. Long head of the biceps c. Infraspinatus d. Triceps Brachii

15. The following statements are true of the Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT: a. Stair climbing is an alternating closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space c. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment d. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move

16. The following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. Abnormal range for acid-base balance is + or 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4 b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal c. Tetanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below 1/2 the normal due to spontaneous generation of nerve impulses in the peripheral nerve d. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells

B. (potassium concentration)

17. These junction points are where the terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding neuron: a. Receptor b. Synapse c. End-organ d. Effector

18. The following statements are true of the patella, EXCEPT: a. Decreases pressure and distribute forces on the femur b. It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion c. Increases the leverage of the quadriceps femoris d. When the knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the femoral condyles.

19. This neurotransmitter is synthesized by mitochondria at the end-plate of the motor neuron: a. Myosin b. Actin c. Acetylcholine d. Troponin

20. In thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery, the following happens, EXCEPT: a. Damage to spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense b. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain c. Involvement of bilateral corticospinal tract results in flaccid paraplegia d. Produces bilateral atrophy and flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion

C. (spastic paraplegia)

21. The fibula functions as follows: a. All of these b. Give origin to muscles c. Act as a lateral "splint" for the ankle joint d. Act as pulley for tendons passing behind it at the ankle

22. This ligament, in company with the Supraspinatus muscle prevents the downward dislocation of the humeral head: a. Coraco-brachial ligament b. Gleno-Humeral ligament c. Coraco-acromial ligament d. Coraco-humeral ligament

23. When applied, third class lever, the most common found in the human body can be: a. All of these b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage c. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed d. Levers of stability and speed

24. Nerve supply to the intrinsic muscle of the larynx are branches from: a. Accessory nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

25. The 10th cranial never, its postganglionic fibers innervate cardiac and smooth muscles: a. Accessory nerve b. Vestibulocochlear nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Vagus nerve

26. Rotation around the vertical axis occur in this plane, and divides the body into upper and lower parts: a. Horizontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. None of these d. Frontal plane

A. (/transverse)

27. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid: a. Dorsal occipital nerve b. Lesser occipital nerve c. Greater occipital nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve

D. (CN 11)

28. Following statements are true of Brown-Sequard syndrome, EXCEPT: a. Lateral column damage results in paralysis of muscles on the same side of body below the injury. b. Anterolateral system damage results in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side of the body below the level of the injury c. Simple touch sensation may be unimpaired due to intact dorsal columns opposite the lesion d. With dorsal column damage, there is loss of position and vibratory sense, and tactile discrimination on the same side of the body below the level of the injury

29. Flexion-extension tremor of the head and a fine flexion-extension tremor of the fingers when extended: a. Parkinsonian tremor b. Myoclonus c. Senile tremor d. Cerebellar tremor

30. The following statements are true of the triceps brachii, EXCEPT: a. Palpation of the medial head is best in its distal portion, near the medial epicondyle b. Distal attachment is to the olecranon process of the ulna c. Innervated by radial nerve (C7-C8) d. Performs only elbow extension

D. (both elbow et sh ext.)

31. The roots of this nerve are C8 and T1. It arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus descending in the interval between the axillary artery and vein: a. Musculocutaneous Nerve b. Median nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Radial nerve

32. Expiration in normal quiet breathing is due to: a. Recoil of the chest wall lung system b. Downward movement of the diaphragm c. Contraction of the internal intercostals d. None of these

33. Klumpke's palsy involves the following nerve roots: a. C4-C5 b. C7-C8 c. C6-C7 d. C8-T1

D. Klumpke's palsy (C8,T1) Upper branches - Erb's Duchenne (C5,6)

34. All carpal bones have four articulating surfaces, EXCEPT: a. Hamate b. Trapezium c. Pisiform d. Scaphoid

35. Muscles achieve its greatest strength when muscles contract in the elongated position, and as the muscles shorten, torque decreased: a. First statement is true, second is false c. Both statement are false b. First statement is false, second statement is true d. Both statements are true

36. The Medial Longitudinal Arch consists of the following bones: a. Calcaneus, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three Cuneiform Bones and the first Three Metatarsal Bones b. Calcaneus, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones c. None of these d. Bases of the Metatarsal Bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones

37. Resting cell membrane: a. More permeable to K than Na b. More permeable to Na than K c. Not permeable to Na and K d. Equally permeable to Na and K

38. These muscles retract the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm. With other muscles, they keep the scapula applied to the chest wall: a. Serratus Anterior b. Levator Scapulae c. Pectoralis Digitorum d. Rhomboids

39. The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT: a. Extensor Indicis Propius b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis c. Extensor Digitorum d. Two radial Lumbricals

B. /D

40. The mechanism by which the curvature of the lens surface is increased to bring images of near objects to a focus on the retina: a. Dispersion b. Myopia c. Accommodation d. Emmetropia

41. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a a. Antagonist b. Prime Mover c. Synergist d. Fixators

42. This ligament is useful in preventing the femur from being extended beyond the point at which the lower limb is in line with the trunk thus ensuring that little or no muscular effort is required to prevent one from rolling over at one's hip joint: a. Acetabular labrum b. Transverse ligament of the acetabulum c. Interosseous sacro-iliac ligaments d. Iliofemoral ligament

43. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called: a. Linea Alba b. Inguinal Ligament of Poupart c. None of these d. Aponeurosis

44. Occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery produces the followinterm-43g, EXCEPT: a. Aphasia if occlusion in the dominant hemisphere b. Decreased sensation in the same regions c. Paralysis of the opposite side of the body d. Paralysis of the same side of the body

45. Which of the following statements apply to the Scapulo-Humeral Mechanism? a. The scapula rotates to further elevate the arm above the head. b. At about 120 degrees of arm abduction, the greater tuberosity of the humerus comes into contact with the lateral edge of the acromion process. c. All of these d. For every three degrees of arm abduction, two degree abduction occurs in the shoulder joint and one degree of abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula.

46. Determinants of muscle power: a. Distance of contraction b. Strength of muscle contraction c. Number of contractions per minute d. All of these

47. Muscles of the digits that have their proximal and distal attachments within the hand is classified as: a. Thenar Muscles b. None of these c. Extrinsic Muscles d. Intrinsic Muscles

48. A sudden increase in the membrane potential in a large nerve will cause the development of the action potential. This is termed as: a. Positive feedback b. None of these c. Threshold for stimulation d. Propagation of the action potential

49. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve: EXCEPT a. Risorius b. Masseter c. Frontalis d. Mentalis

B. (trigeminal)

50. A large, flat, triangular muscle that wraps its tendon around the lower border of the teres major muscle and is inserted into the floor of the bicipital groove: a. Teres Major b. Subscapularis c. Serratus Anterior d. Latissimus Dorsi

51. In median nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT: a. Thumb flexion and opposition are lost and the thenar muscles a atrophy b. The adductor (thenar muscle) remains useful, enabling the thumb and index finger to hold a small object with the assistance of the first interossei. c. An active grasp may be accomplished by extending the wrist to flex the fingers as far as possible d. The index and middle fingers lose their ability to flex

C. (tenodysis effect) not active grasp

52. Excessive heel rise during the latter stance phase controlled by this muscle of the reference foot: a. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus b. Abductors c. Quadriceps d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

53. By placing the finger just under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the mandible, the superficial part of this muscle may be palpated when the subject bites down: a. Medial Pterygoid b. Masseter c. Temporalis d. None of these

54. The innermost muscle of the abdominal wall and encloses the abdominal cavity like a corset: a. External Abdominal Oblique b. Transverse Abdominis c. Internal Abdominal Oblique d. Rectus Abdominis

B. (stabilizes spine)

55. These regions of the brain appear to be directly responsible for the regulatory function of maintaining body temperature at 34°C: a. Corticomedial amygdala (emotions et memories) b. Preventricular zone of the hypothalamus c. Preoptic and anterior hypothalamic area d. Dentate gyrus and hippocampus

56. Following statements apply to venous pump, EXCEPT: a. Tightening of the muscles result to vein compression, squeezing the blood out of the veins b. Efficient enough to maintain less than 25 mmHg venous pressure in the feet of a walking adult c. If the subject stands motionless, venous pump does not work, and could increase lower extremity venous pressure to 90 mm Hg in about 30 seconds. d. Valves in veins allow bi-directional flow to and from the heart

D. ( uni direction lng)

57. The following statements are true of the lungs, EXCEPT: a. The right lung is longer and less voluminous b. The wall of each alveolar duct and air sac is made up of a number of ultimate unit known as alveoli c. The left lung resembles, in general appearance the right except that it possesses no horizontal fissure, and therefore no middle lose d. The lungs are supplied with branches of the sympathetic nervous system and of the vagus which is parasympathetic

A. (shorter et more voluminous)

58. This matrix is composed of intracellular constituents where myofibrils are suspended inside the muscle fiber: a. Sarcoplasm (cytoplasm) b. Z disk (attach myofibrils to one another) c. Sarcolemma (cell membrane of mm fiber) d. A band (overlapping filaments of actin et myosin)

59. A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject's inability to do what he on she wants to do: a. Kinetic apraxia b. Ideational apraxia c. Ideomotor apraxia d. Gait apraxia

60. Blood clotting mechanism include the following, EXCEPT: a. Prothrombin is catalyzed into thrombin b. Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin threads to form the clot itself c. Prothrombin acts as enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin threads d. Prothrombin activator is formed in response to a ruptured vessel

C. (thrombin)

61. Excessive anterior or posterior drawer signs indicate ligamentous laxity if the talus can be distracted a few millimeters with the medial and lateral malleoli stabilized: a. True b. false

62. In Horner's syndrome: a. Anhydrosis and vasodilatation on affected side b. Partial ptosis due to denervation of levator palpebrae superioris c. Pupil of the eye on injured side due to dilator paralysis d. All of these

D. ptosis (drooping of eyelids) anhidrosis (not sweating) miosis (problem in size of pupil) enophthalmos (eyeball is pushed backward)

63. Rotator Cuff muscles are composed of the following: a. All of these b. None of these c. Subscapularis and Supraspinatus d. Infraspinatus and Teres Minor

64. In scapulohumeral rhythm, after 30 degrees of abduction, a 2:1 ratio occurs. For every 15 degrees of motion between 30 and 170 degrees of abduction, 10 degrees occur at the glenohumeral joint, and 5 degree occur at the scapulothoracic joint: a. First statement is true, second statement is false b. Both statements are true c. Both statements are false d. First statement is false, second statement is true

65. If two forces are pulling from the same point: a. The resultant force reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction b. The resultant force is the sum of the two forces c. The resultant force is the diagonal of the parallelogram d. The resultant force increase as the angle between the two forces decreases

C. (verbatim) D. correct din

67.In Romberg's sign, the patient stands with feet together and eyes open; the sign is positive if the patient sways or falls when the eyes are closed: a. First statement is false, second statement is true b. Both statements are false c. Both statements are true d. First statement is true, second statement is false

68. This ligament supports the head of the talus, and when over-stretched will reduce the amount of longitudinal are resulting in flatfoot deformity: a. Calcaneonavicular ligament b. Deltoid ligament c. Calcaneofibular ligament d. Talofibular ligament

A. (spring ligament)

69. Which of the following is true of the radius: a. All of these b. The radius lies on a plane anterior to the ulna c. The radial shaft cross in front of the ulna while the radial head revolves to perform the movement of pronation d. The radial shaft's crossing over the ulna is further aided by the shaft of the radius that is bowed a little lateral wards

70. If the angle is less than 170 degrees on the medial side the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as: a. None of these b. Q Angle c. Genu Valgum d. Genu Varum

71. Following statements are true of pernicious anemia, EXCEPT: a. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs and positive Romberg sign b. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter c. In later states, muscle stretch reflex my disappear d. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the feet

B. (white matter)

72. The radiocarpal joint is formed by the biconcave distal and of the radius and the biconcave proximal articulating surfaces of the following carpal bones: a. Capitate and Lunate b. Scaphoid and Trapezoid c. Scaphoid and Lunate d. None of these

73. The following statements are true of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloreux), EXCEPT: a. A small trigger zone may set off a painful paroxysm b. Attacks of severe pain may last several minutes at time c. Attacks of severe pain over the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve d. Etiology is unknown

B. (seconds lang)

74. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by: a. The Scalenes, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius b. Splenius Capitis, Sternohyoid and clavicle c. None of these d. The sternomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle

75. As action potential travels over the muscle fiber membrane, large quantities of calcium ions are released which activate the forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This causes: a. The myosin filaments to slide inward among the actin filaments b. The actin filaments to slide outward among the myosin filaments c. The actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments d. The myosin filaments to slide outward among the actin filaments

76. When all the body parts move in the same direction with equal velocity, the movement is termed as: a. Translatory Motion b. Rotary Motion c. Parallel Motion d. Angular Motion

77. Secondary neuron, located in and outlying ganglion and innervates the end organ: a. Postganglionic neuron b. Preganglionic neuron c. Gamma motorneuron d. None of these

78. To help control a paraplegic's functional activities, the following compensatory mechanisms are applicable: a. Use of orthosis or braces to stabilize knees and ankles to gain standing balance by exploiting the Y ligament to limit hip extension. b. Bilateral contraction of the latissimus dorsi can lift the entire body forward in "swing through" crutch gait c. Closed-chain approximation of latissimus dorsi produces hip elevation to move one extremity forward at a time d. HAT center of gravity moved anterior to the axis of hip joint to maintain pelvis in extension on femur

D. (Except) posterior

79. The following statements are true of the acromioclavicular joint, EXCEPT: a. No loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation b. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation c. Range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion d. The joint has three axes and two degrees of freedom

D. (3 deg man)

80. These fibers crosses the midline from one hemisphere to the other, a pathway of communication between the two hemispheres: a. Association fibers b. Projection fibers c. commissural fiber d. none of these

C. (ex. corpus collosum)

81. Air volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiratory effort: a. Vital capacity b. Residual volume c. Functional residual capacity d. Expiratory reserve volume

82. The intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by: a. Deep peroneal nerve b. Posterior tibial nerve c. Anterior tibial nerve d. Superficial peroneal nerve

83. The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT: a. Adductor Pollicis b. Palmaris Longus c. All Hypothenar d. All interossei

B. (med nerve)

84. The following statements are true of the shoulder, EXCEPT: a. Torque is maintained as the muscles shorten b. In the 3-60 degree of abduction, the leverage for the supraspinatus was greater than the deltoid c. The greatest strength occurs when the muscles contract in the elongated position d. Lever arm lengths of the deltoid increase with the motion of abduction

A. (decreased not maintained)

85. A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain: a. Cerebral Aqueduct of Sylvius b. Lateral Ventricle c. Subarachnoid space d. Cistern

86. The deepest muscle of the leg, is an inventor of the foot and plantar flexes the transverse tarsal joint: a. Tibialis Posterior b. Flexor Hallucis Longus c. Abductor Hallucis d. Flexor Digitorum Longus

87. The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment: a. Cuboid b. Talus c. Navicular d. Calcaneus

88. Which of the following does the Femoral Nerve supply: a. All of these b. The skin of the front of the thigh and of the medial side of the leg as far as the base of the great toe. c. The muscle in front of the thigh d. The hip and knee joints

89. This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline: a. Pterygoid b. Temporalis c. Masseter d. Orbicularis oris

90. Mechanoreceptors that detect vibration and are found in the skin and connective tissues surrounding bones and joints: a. Muscle spindle (mm stretch) b. Meissner's corpuscles (fine touch et pressure) c. Pacinian corpuscles d. none of these

91. Which of these large vessels arise from the arch of the aorta? a. Left subclavian artery b. Brachiocephalic trunk c. Left common carotid artery d. All of these

92. Loss of the ability to carry out correctly certain movements in response to stimuli that normally elicit these movements: a. Agnosia (perception) b. Apraxia c. Aphasia (language) d. None of these

93. The vagal system includes the following, EXCEPT: a. Vi cranial nerve b. Cranial portion of XI cranial nerve c. IX cranial nerve d. X cranial nerve

A. (extraocular mm)

94. Which of the following statements are true of the spleen? a. It produces lymphocytes and is the principal residence of reticulo endothelial cells of the body b. It is about the size of a person's fist and lies in the upper left part of the abdominal cavity in contact with the diaphragm c. It regulates the number of red blood cells in circulation d. All of these

95. Which of the following statement is true of the biceps brachii: a. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four time as effective as the supinator at an angle of 90 degrees b. Its effectiveness as supinator diminishes as the elbow is extended c. All of these d. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 90 degree angle

96. These fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of the another part of the same hemisphere: a. Projection Fiber b. None of these c. Association Fiber d. Commissural Fiber

97. This vertically-directed device acts as the pivot round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt. Its direction prevents backward dislocation of the femur: a. Anterior cruciate ligament b. Medial ligament c. Posterior cruciate ligament d. Lateral ligament

98. In a closed-chain motion, the distal attachment, (crest of the ilium) of this muscle can aid in lifting the pelvis, so that the foot clears the ground: a. Pectoralis Major b. Levator Scapulae c. Latissimus Dorsi d. None of these

99. The Size Principles of Recruitment is best described as follows: a. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are never recruited b. None of these c. The largest motor neurons are the first recruited and the smallest motor neurons are recruited last d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last

100. Which of the following is true of the palmar aponeurosis? a. All of these b. It protects underlying structures and prevents the palm of the hand from being readily pinched c. The Palmaris Longus inserts into this triangular fibrous sheet which occupies the palm of the hand d. The aponeurosis is present even when the Palmaris Longus is absent

101. The first to seventh ribs attached to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs are joined by cartilage; 11th and 12th ribs have free ends: a. All statements are true b. All statements are false c. Last statement is true, first two statements are false d. First two statements are true, last statement is false

102. The following statements are true of the hip joints, EXCEPT: a. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease b. Subjects with bilateral KAFC are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis d. Backward tilting the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle

103. The following statements are true of syringomyelia, EXCEPT: a. There is loss pain and temperature sense with a segmental distribution in both upper extremities b. There is progressive cavitation around or near the central canal of the spinal cord c. Even in later stages, paralysis and muscle atrophy of the segment involved does into occur d. There is no sensory impairment in the lower extremities

C. (occuring)

104. Following statements are true of lesions of the posterior roots, EXCEPT: a. Frequent cause of injury is herniation of nucleus pulposus b. Injury usually result in pain and paresthesia that occur in the distribution of the affected roots c. There is no loss of associated muscles reflex d. Loss of sensation is a dermatomal distribution is apparent

C. (loss)

105. This lose of the lateral surface of the hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parietooccipital fissure to the preoccipital notch, and occupies and extensive area on the medial aspect of the hemisphere: a. Occipital lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Insular lobe d. Frontal lobe

106. This structures pass through transverse foramen: a. Spinal column arteries b. None of these c. Cervical nerve plexus d. Vertebral arteries

107. This terms refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to discriminate joint position, and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative tension with tendons: a. All of these b. Kinesthesia c. none of these d. Proprioception

108. Deep tendon reflexes, i.e. knee jerk are: a. Polysynaptic nerve response b. Monosynaptic reflex response c. Both of these d. None of these

109. May result from lesion in the dominant parietal lobe of the corpus callosum in which the subject fails to carry out sequences of acts even if individual movements are correct: a. Ideomotor Apraxia b. Kinetic Apraxia c. Gait Apraxia d. Ideational Apraxia

Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication: a. Facial nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Vagus nerve

111. This deformity is a result of the avulsion of the central slip of the extensor tendon proximal to its insertion in the base of the middle phalanx: a. Median Nerve Palsy b. Mallet Finger c. Boutonniere Deformity d. Trigger Finger

112. When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers, this motion is called: a. Adduction b. None of these c. Opposition d. Abduction

113. Sixth cranial nerve of the pons and medulla: a. Oculomotor nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Abducens nerve d. Trochlear nerve

114. In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT: a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack b. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent c. Allows spinning, rolling and sliding, thereby increasing joint friction d. Joint surfaces may be distracted several millimeters

C. (decreased jt friction)

115. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia: a. Pivot b. Saddle c. Hinge d. Ball and Socket

C. Hinge

116. The cerebrospinal fluid serves the following function, EXCEPT: (NO EXCEPT DAPAT) a. Drains unwanted substances from the brain b. Buoyancy for the brain, serving as a mechanical cushion c. All of these d. Preserves homeostasis in the nervous system

117. This muscle originates from the medial half of the clavicle, from the sternum, and from the upper six costal cartilages: a. Pectoralis Major b. Pectoralis Minor c. Serratus Anterior d. Subclavius

118. The following statements are true of the Ulnar Nerve, EXCEPT: a. The deep branch supply the hypothenar muscles, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor Pollicis and all the Interossei. b. At about the midlength of the arm, it is found behind, and in contact with, the medial epicondyle of the humerus c. It divides into a (1) Superficial Branch, a (2) Deep Branch and an (3) Intermediate Branch d. The only muscles it supplies above the wrist are the Flexor Carpi Ulnaris and the medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus

C. (only 2 branches except. intermediate branch)

119. Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane: a. None of these b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential c. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions d. Both of these

In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT: a. The hypothenar group does not function b. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position.

C. (affected)

Ohm's law states: a. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute pressure but proportional to the resistance b. Blood flow is directly proportional to the pressure difference but inversely proportional to the resistance c. Blood flow is inversely proportional to the pressure difference but directly proportional to the resistance d. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute pressure but inversely proportional to the resistance.

122. Way by which lung can be expanded: a. Diaphragmatic up and down motion which lengthens or shortens chest cavity b. All of these c. None of these d. Increase in anteroposterior diameter of the chest cavity by elevating and depressing the ribs

123. These muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It is also protects the great vascular and nerve trunks: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Sternothyroid c. Levator Scapulae d. Scalenes

124. This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint, and from this position the sterna head extends the shoulder joint: a. None of these b. Latissimus Dorsi c. Pectoralis Minor d. Pectoralis Major

125. The following statements are true of the plantar aponeurosis, EXCEPT: a. It is firm when the MTP joint is manually placed in 45 degrees of hyperextension b. It is an attachment for intrinsic muscles of the foot and facial covering for others c. It helps prevent displacement of the calcaneus from the metatarsal heads and collapse of the arches d. It is a series of fascial bands on the dorsum and sides of the foot

D. (plantar/sole)

126. The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark: a. All of these b. T10 body - tip of the xiphoid process c. S2 - height of posterior superior iliac spines d. L4 spinous process - level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium

127. The following statements apply to motor aphasia, EXCEPT: a. Spoken language is slow and full of effort with poorly produced sounds b. Lesions is in Broca's area c. Extreme difficulty in expressing certain grammatical words and phrases d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language

D. (only expression) but can understand

128. This muscle is the most powerful of the scapula, its paralysis results in "winged scapula": a. Pectoralis Minor b. Levator Scapulae c. Serratus Anterior d. Rhomboids

C. (open book paralysis)

129. In a circling movement performed by the shoulder girdle, this joint is the pivot point: a. Glenohumeral joint b. Acromioclavicular Joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Subacromial Joint

130. Skeletal muscles relax when: a. The Z-lines come closer to each other b. There is an increase in cross linkages between action and myosin c. Calcium ion is actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. All of these

131. This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and medial to the public tubercle: a. Cremasteric Ring b. Superficial Inguinal Ring c. Femoral Ring d. External Spermatic Fascia

132. The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via: a. Right Ventricle b. Left Auricle c. Right Atrium d. Left ventricle

133. Almost the whole of the broad sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch called: a. Femoral Nerve b. Obturator Nerve c. Sciatic Nerve d. Saphenous Nerve

134. The following extraocular muscles are supplied by cranial nerve III, EXCEPT: a. Inferior rectus b. Inferior oblique c. Superior rectus d. Superior oblique

135. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down: a. Temporalis b. None of these c. Medial Pterygoid d. Masseter

136. The sensory nerve supply of the eyeball is: a. Ophthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal) Cranial Nerve b. Third (Oculomotor) Cranial Nerve c. Fourth (Trochlear) Cranial Nerve d. Sixth (Abducens) Cranial Nerve

137. Innervates the tongue musculature: a. Abducens b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Vagus nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve

138. The following statements are true of the rotator cuff muscles, EXCEPT: a. The supraspinatus of attaches to the lesser humeral tubercle, while the infraspinatus and teres minor attached on the lower tubercle. b. Shoulder External rotation are limited primarily by the subscapularis and the lower part of the capsule c. The subscapularis is a passive stabilizer to prevent anterior subluxation of the humerus d. These muscles produce abduction, internal and external rotation of the glenohumeral joint.

A. (subscap inserts sa lesser T)

139. If the neck-shaft angle of the femur is greater than 125 degrees, this deviation results in increased leg length and decreased muscle strength due torque changes from changes in muscles lever arms and length-tension relationships: a. Retroversion b. Coxa valga c. Anteversion d. Coxa vara

140. As the Brachialis extends a flexed elbow by performed by gravity, this muscle acts as a: a. Fixators b. Prime mover c. Antagonist d. Synergist

141. Which of the following determines fluid movement through the capillary membrane? a. Interstitial fluid pressure b. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure c. Capillary pressure d. All of these

142. Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. This action is performed by: a. Popliteus b. Semitendinosus c. Articularis Genu d. Plantaris

143. Following is true of myostatic reflex, a. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone b. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle c. Results from inputs to motor neuron pools form groups I and II d. All of these

144. Following muscles are supplied by branches of 7th cranial nerve, EXCEPT: a. Mentalis b. Orbicularis colli c. Nasalis d. Levator palpebrae superioris

D. (CN3)

145. The following statements are true of the Facial Nerve, EXCEPT: a. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscle of the middle ear b. It emerges from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and medulla oblongata c. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the Medulla Oblongata d. It controls taste sensation from the anterior part of the tongue and the floor of the mouth and from the palate

146. The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed-chain motion c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

D. cannot prevented

147. Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides: a. Frontal Plane b. Horizontal Plane c. Sagittal Plane d. None of these

148. Function of the soleus, EXCEPT: a. Postural muscle b. Ankle plantarflexion c. Does not involve in forceful ankle plantar flexion d. Concerned with ankle stabilization than gastrocnemius

C. (involved both)

149. The following statements are true of the Median Nerve, EXCEPT: a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbricals b. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch the Anterior Interosseous Nerve c. It is forced from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus d. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries but gives no branch until it reaches the elbow region

A. (3/4th lumbricals innv. by ulnar nerve)

150. In a resting state, the cell membrane is: a. None of these b. Polarized with the outside positive in relation to the inside c. Depolarized with the outside negative in relation to the inside d. Positive and negative polarization are distributed equally on either side

151. The pressure at the height of each pulse, which is about 120 mm Hg in young adults: a. Stroke volume output b. Diastolic pressure c. Pulse pressure d. Systolic pressure

152. In Wallerian degeneration, a peripheral nerve fiber is transected or permanently destroyed. In the process, the part separated from the nerve cell body degenerates completely, and loses its myelin sheath in the process: a. Both statements are true b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false c. Both statements are false d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

153. The following structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but also reflected on to the eyeball: a. Lacrimal b. Tarsal Gland (oil water proof eyes) c. Conjunctiva d. Canaliculus (drain eyes- collect)

154. This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum: a. Supraspinous ligament b. Intertransverse ligament c. Ligamentum flavum d. Interspinous ligament

155. Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true: a. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension, is 90 degrees b. All of these c. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion that the hand d. MCP allow 0-30 degree of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees

156. Lesion to the oculomotor nerve results in the following conditions, EXCEPT: a. Mydriasis b. Diplopia c. External strabismus d. Ptosis

B. CN4/6 lesions

157. This structure completes a collar in which the radial head revolves, and also tends to prevent the radius from being pulled down out of its socket: a. Lateral ligament b. Annular ligament c. Medial ligament d. Collateral ligament

B. (nursemaids elbow)

158. The statements apply to inspiratory capacity, EXCEPT: a. Equals residual volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume b. Amount of air one can breath at normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum c. Equals tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve level d. Amount of air is about 3500 ml

A. (Tv not residual)

159. Failure to recognize stimuli when the appropriate sensory systems are functioning adequately: a. Aphasia b. Aphonia c. Agnosia d. Apraxia

160. The following statement applies to the dorsal root ganglia: a. Both of these b. None of these c. Origin of afferent sensory fibers d. Round cells with one process leaving the body

161. Amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of normal expiration: a. Vital capacity b. Functional residual capacity c. Inspiratory capacity d. Total lung capacity

162. The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities: a. Both statements are false b. Both statements are true c. First statement is true, second statement is false d. First statement is false, second statement is true

163. This muscle is proximally attached to anterior superior spine of the ilium and attached distally to the medial surface of the tibia; it is innervated by the femoral nerve and flexes, externally rotates, and adducts the hip, ad well as flexes and medially rotates the knee: a. Rectus Femoris b. Sartorius c. Pectineus d. Tensor Fascia Latae

164. These long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints: a. None of these b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis c. Flexor Digitorum Profundus d. Both of these

165. On the medial side of the foot, just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight protuberance may be felt: a. Sustentaculum Tali b. First Cuneiform c. Tuberosity of the Navicular d. Medial tubercle of the Talus

A. (shelf of talus)

166. This specialized joint of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally located articulation and two facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting for 50% of rotation in the cervical area: a. None of these b. Atlanto-occipital joint c. Cervical vertebral articulation d. Atlanto-axial joint

167. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm; the weight to be moved is at the other, and the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two, as exemplified by a see-saw: a. Second class lever b. First class lever c. None of these d. Third class lever

168. If the body temperature is greater than the surroundings, heat loss is by: a. None of these b. Both of these c. Radiation and conduction d. Evaporation

169. The sinu-atrial node, which regulates the strength and rate of the heart beat is located in the wall of: a. Right Auricle b. Left Ventricle c. Right Ventricle d. Left Auricle

170. Mobility of the thumb is possible because of the following: a. All of these b. The nine thumb muscles can combine their actions in finely graded movement combinations c. The saddle-shaped joint of the thumb and loose capsule d. The metacarpal bone of the thumb is not bounds to the other metacarpals by ligaments

171. Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result in the following, EXCEPT: a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body b. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side d. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs

A. (opposite side of the body)

173. Loss of motor neuron to a muscle may result in: a. Flaccidity b. All of these c. Reflex Response Failure d. Progressive Atrophy

174. This tuberosity receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight: a. Superior ramus b. Ischial tuberosity c. Lesser sciatic notch d. Greater sciatic notch

175. In order not to allow side to side play, the sides of the body of the talus are grasped by these bony flanges: a. None of these b. All of these c. Talocalcaneonavicular joint d. Medial and lateral malleolus

176. In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane; the sodium gates remain tightly closed: a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false b. Both statements are false c. Both statements are true d. The second statements is true, the first statements is false

177. The Median Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT: a. All Interossei b. Opponens Pollicis c. Flexor Carpi Radialis d. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

A. (ulnar nerve)

178. From the fontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. An increase in this angle, 1 factor in in-toeing, is called: a. Coxa Vara b. Coxa vara c. Anteversion d. Retroversion

179. These two enlarged bones are concerned with receiving the weight of the body above: a. Calcaneus and Cuboid b. Talus and Calcaneus c. Navicular and Cuboid d. Talus and Navicular

180. Which of the following conditions differentiate isometric from isotonic contraction: a. Isotonic contraction requires a greater amount of energy b. Isotonic contraction is likely to last longer since a load is moved c. Isometric contraction does not require much sliding or myofibrils d. All of these

181. When the hip is extended, this muscle externally rotates the hip, however, when the hip is flexed, this same muscle will internally rotate the hip: a. Gluteus Minimus b. Gluteus Medius c. Tensor Fasciae Latae d. Piriformis

182. The largest lateral hip muscle, innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, and abducts the hip: a. Tensor Fascia Latae b. Piriformis c. Gluteus Minimus d. Gluteus Medius

183. When applied, first class levers can be: a. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage b. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed c. All of these d. Levers of stability and speed

184. Cavities within the brain and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid: a. Subarachnoid space b. Ventricles c. Meninges d. None of these

185. The joints of the pectoral girdle are: a. Coracoclavicular joint b. All of these c. Acromioclavicular joint d. Sternoclavicular joint

186. The arrangement of these muscles as the legs of the inverted tripod suggests their possible function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis capable of cooperating with the splint mechanism of the iliotibial tract on the lateral side. a. Adductor Magnus, Vastus Lateralis and Biceps b. Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus and gracilis c. Piriformis, Quadratus Femoris and Obturator Internus d. Sartorius Gracilis and Semitendionosus

187. The Medial Longitudinal Arch consist of the following bones: a. Calcaneus, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones b. None of these c. Calcaneum, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three Cuneiform Bones and the first Three Metatarsal Bones d. Bases of the Metatarsal Bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones

188. The extra volume of air that can be inspired over and beyond the normal tidal volume: a. None of these b. Expiratory reserve volume c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Residual volume

189. Which of the following statements is true of Metabolic Equivalents (MET)? a. All of these b. It is used to describe energy requirements c. One MET is arbitrarily equal to the resting oxygen consumption of an individual d. The average value at rest is 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute

190. The Transverse Arch consists of the following bones: a. Calcaneus, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones b. Calcaneus, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three Cuneiform Bones and the first Three Metatarsal Bones c. Both of these d. Bases of the Metatarsal Bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones

191. The aorta is the great artery leaving this chamber of the heart: a. Left Auricle b. Right Auricle c. Left Ventricle d. Right Ventricle

192. Characteristic of isometric contraction: a. All of these b. Performs work c. Change in muscle tension d. Change in muscle length

C. ( no change in mm length)

193. The anatomical snuff box is bounded by the tendons of: a. None of these b. Extensor Digitorum Communis, Extensor Indicis Propius and Extensor Carpi Radialis c. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris, Extensor Digitorum Communis and Extensor Pollicis Brevis d. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Longus and Extensor Pollicis Brevis

194. The adult brain consists of the following parts: a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Brain stem d. All of these

195. Which of the following is NOT true of the shoulder joint? a. Its extreme mobility is achieved at the expense of stability and security b. The movement occurs between the scapula and the humerus c. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula d. It is a multi-axial ball-end-socket joint with a remarkable of freedom of movement

C. (acromioclavicular jt not sh jt)

196. This occurs when macrophages and some white blood cells ingest large particles, i.e. bacteria: a. None of these b. Phagocytosis c. Pinocytosis d. Exocytosis

197. During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity: a. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg b. Contract eccentrically c. No required activity d. Undergo a fast lengthening to stabilized the knee joint

198. A strong and broad one-inch-square ligament that maintains the forward concavity and bridge deep to which pass the numerous tendons that flex the wrist and fingers: a. Intra-articular ligament b. Annular ligament c. Flexor retinaculum d. Denticulate ligament

199. Brain development begins with the differentiation of three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube: a. Telencephalon, diencephalon and mesencephalon b. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon c. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon d. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon

200. The following statements apply to saltatory conduction, EXCEPT: a. Conserves energy for the axon b. Action potential occur only at the nodes of Ranvier and conduction from node to node c. While there is an increase in nerve conduction, energy is wasted on the axon d. The mechanism increases nerve transmission velocity in myelinated fibers as much as 5 to 50 times

C. (conserved on axon)

1997 Flashcards

(298 cards)