1
Q
Inverted U waves are a sign of
a) Hypocalcaemia
b) Ischaemia
c) Hypomagnesaemia
d) Hypothermia
A
Ischaemia
Inverted U waves – in presence of CP = myocardial ischaemia
All others = normal U waves
2
Q
Person with allergy mammalian beef most likely to be allergic to
a) Factor 7
b) Protamjne
c) Heparin
d) Clexane
e) Bivalirudin
A
Heparin
Allergy to things derived from animal products – Heparin, Gelatin based colloids
3
Q
MOA bivalirudin
a) Direct thrombin inhibitor
b) Factor xa inhibitor
c) Factor 2a inhibitor
A
A
4
Q
Gastric US image
a) Fluid less than 100
b) Fluid over 100ml
c) Late stage solid
d) Early stage solid
A
Early Solid stage
5
Q
Amiodarone dose in 20kg child
A
APLS
- Adrenaline = 10 microg/kg
- Amiodarone = 5mg/kg
6
Q
A
WPW
- PR interval < 120
- Delta waves
- QRS >110
- Discordant ST/T wave changes
7
Q
Brugada syndrome drug that is safe
a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Lignocaine
d) Amiodarone
e) Thipentone
A
Thiopentone
As per ‘Brugada Drugs’ - long infusions of propofol should be avoided
8
Q
Nerve stimulator to posterior cord what would you expect
a) Weakness elbow flexion
b) Weakness elbow extension
c) Weakness wrist extension
d) Wrist flexion
e) Thenar eminence
A
Maybe remembered wrong?
I would have thought both B and C correct as both innervated by Radial nerve
9
Q
US Picture - what will result ?
a) Anterolateral neck numbness
b) Carotid sheath analgesia
c) Phrenic nerve palsy
A
Ant-lateral neck numbness
Supposedly they got an USS image of superficial cervical plexus block
10
Q
Which drug crosses the blood brain barrier
a) Edeophonium
b) Neostigmine
c) Pyridostigmine
d) Physiostigmine
A
Physiostigmine
11
Q
When can prophylactic clexane be given post epidural catheter removal
a) 2 hrs
b) 4 hrs
c) 6hrs
d) 12hrs
e) 24hrs
A
4 hours
12
Q
What is the duration of action of carbetocin?
a) 1 hrs
b) 2 hrs
c) 3hrs
d) 4hrs
e) 5hrs
A
1 hour if IV
(apparently 2 hours if IM)
13
Q
In hyperkaelamia, when does the maximum effect of 10mg nebulised salbutamol occur? (apparently lots of different versions remembered)
a) 5min
b) 15min
c) 30min
d) 4hrs
e) 1 hour
d) 2 hours
A
Onset < 30 minutes
Peak effect - 120 minutes
DOA > 2 hours
14
Q
Dose of salbutamol in a 8 year old
a) 6 puffs
b) 12 puffs
A
12 puffs
15
Q
Eaton lambert myasthenia syndrome is associated with??
Question referring to sensitivity of Sux vs NDMRs
A
Increased Sensitivty to both NDMRs and Sux – Eaton Lambert affects calcium channels
As opposed to Myasthenia gravis which effects NachR – resistance to sux, sens to NDMRs
16
Q
Pin Index system for oxygen?
A
2:5
17
Q
How to quickly reduce CO2 in a mapleson F with a FGf of 3L/min
a) Increase ventilation
b) Remove filter
c) Increased FGF
A
Increase FGF
18
Q
20) How to avoid gas-trapping with COPD
a) Decreased RR
b) Reduce TV
c) Increase inspiratory time
A
Decrease RR
19
Q
Dose of Bicarbonate in 80kg patient
A
80ml (80mmol)
1ml/kg
20
Q
Dose of FFP to raise fibrinogen by 1
A
30ml/kg
21
Q
Nerve Topicalised between epiglottis and VC
A
Superior Laryngeal Nerve - internal branch
22
Q
CXR showing valve replacement , which one is it? (there were two valves, it was pointing to the AV)
a) Aortic valve
b) Mitral valve
c) Pulmonary valve
d) Tricuspid valve
A
Also consider frequency gamble that Pulmonary and tricuspid valves are less commonly replaced
23
Q
What colour bottle is Medical air?
A
White body with black and white shoulders
24
Q
What is not in beriplex
a) Factor 7
b) Factor 10
c) Factor 2
d) Protein S
e) VWF
A
vWF
25
What is an appropriate dose/volume for a caudal for an orchidopexy for a 2yr old
a) 0.5ml/kg
b). 0.75ml/kg
c). 1ml/kg
D) 1.25ml/kg
1ml/kg
26
Indication for VV ECMO
a) pulmonary contusion
b) pulmonary htn
c) right heart failure
Pulmonary contusion
27
Correct antibiotic prophylaxis for instrumental delivery?
a) nil
b) cefazolin single dose
c) cefazolin TDS for 24 hours
d) cefazolin + metronidazole
e) Augmentin
IV Augmentin 1.2g
- as per RANZCOG
If penicilin allergy - cefazolin 2g IV
28
Addition of vancomycin to cephalozin effect on Surgical site infection?
a) Reduce by 20%
b) Reduce by 40%
c) No change
d) Increase by 20%
e) Increase by 40%
No change
29
Conns syndrome what happens to glucose, Na and K
Conns = Primary Hyper-aldosetronism
- Hypernatraemia, Hypokalaemia, Hyperglycaemia
30
Addison's crisis: What happens to glucose, Na, K
Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia
31
ECG with options including
- ACS
- LVH
- HOCM
HOCM ECG key characteristics
- LVH with increased pre-cordial voltage, non-specific ST-T wave changes
- deep, narrow "dagger like' q waves in inf/lateral leads
32
DDAVP in VWD type 3
No effect
33
Breast Surgery: GA + Volatile vs TIVA + regional
a) neuropathic pain reduced 6months/12 months
b) reduced scar pain at 6 months
c) no difference
d) reduced cancer recurrence
Im really not sure: There is a Lancet article exactly about this (weirdly suspicious that this is where the MCQ comes from) - which states no difference. However
- APMSE definitely says that regional reduces neuropathic pain from 3-12 months post breast cancer surgery (PVB the most)
- as far as i'm aware there is no good evidence that TIVA actually reduces cancer recurrence
34
PONV is increased in paediatrics greater than or equal to
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
3 years old - as per RCH
35
Emergence delirium is increased by all of the following except
a) younger age
b) parental anxiety
c) bad interaction with medical professionals
d) volatile anaesthetic
A
- pre-school age highest, reduces with very young
- all the other are risk factors
36
Arndt blocker- which port does the bronch go down? Diagram provided
37
Expected Electrolyte abnormality after iron therapy?
Hypophosphataemia
- promotes renal wasting of phosphate
38
Bivalirudin mechanism of action
a) Direct thrombin inhibitor
b) Anti Xa
c) Anti IIa
A
39
Least likely to affect thrombin time
a) Bivalirudin
b) Dabigatran
c) Warfarin
d) Clexane
e) Heparin
C - warfarin
Thrombin time is done in Lab – external Thrombin added to convert Fibrinogen to Fibrin
- Although Warfarin inhibits synthesis of prothrombin it wont affect exogenous thrombin
40
Which arterial line is most likely to reflect coronary sinus in VA ECMO
Right radial
41
Duration of action of nebulised salbutamol
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hour
c) 30 min
Product PI states after 2-3 hours low concentrations are seen
elimination half life 2.7 to 5 hours
42
How to prevent Microshock
Equipotenial earthing
43
Current for VF Macroshock
100mA
44
In NAP - which drug was most likely to cause anaphylaxis
Teicoplanin
45
Awareness in NAP - which one most likely
a) Cardiac surgery
b) ENT surgery
c) Neurosurgery
Cardiac surgery
Incidence: 1:19600
With NMBDs: 1: 8200
Without NMBDs 1: 132000
LUCS 1:670
CTS 1:8600
Paeds 1: 61000
46
RFT interpretation - Low FEV1, Normal FVC, normal DLCO
- Asthma
- Emphysema
- Sarcoidosis
Asthma
47
Topicalisation for 4 month old Paeds AFOI
a) 3mg/kg
b) 6mg/kg
c) 9mg/kg
d) 12mg/kg
If properly remembered answers then 3mg/kg
- AOA consensus statement from 2025 states absolute max is 5mg/kg, reduce to 4mg/kg < 6 months of age
https://associationofanaesthetists-publications.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/anae.16705
48
Minimum weight for microcuff ETT
a) 1kg
b) 3kg
c) 5kg
3 kg
49
Diabetes ANZCA document which don’t require a higher control of 10 +- 2.5
a) Autonomic dysreflexia
b) Older than 75 years
c) Pregnancy
d) Hypo unawareness
Pregnancy
- target 5 +/- 1
50
Lady having a vag hysterectomy her Dpp4i should be
a) Stopped due to hypoglycaemia
b) Stopped due to impaired gastric emptying
c) Stopped due to eDKA
d) Continued
Unsure - maybe misremembered
- ANZCA document clearly states doesn't cause hypo
- states and should be withheld DOS but continued up until night before (so maybe if nighttime dose)
- document states well tolerated and no mention of delayed gastric emptying or eDKA
51
Paediatric svt has a pulse but haemodynamically stable how many joules for synced shock
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) Other options
1
- ANZCOR states 1j/kg start up to 2 j/kg
initial adenosine dose would be 100 microg/kg
pulseless 4j/kg
52
Anzca open disclosure framework purpose includes all except
a) Explain to patient
b) Patient gets to be heard
c) Opportunity to satisfy medic legal requirements
d) Other reasonable sounding options
C
53
Cycle of Quality Improvement does not include
a) planning
b) doing
c) checking
d) benchmarking
e) acting
QI - Planning, Doing, Checking, Acting
QA - Planning, implementation, Review, Setting standards/policy
54
A question about Mean, Median and Mode
Mean (average) – sum of all values/number of values
Median – middle value when arranged in order
Mode – Most frequent value
55
A question relating to this picture
56
Oral bioavailability of ketamine
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 80%
20%
57
Parkinson’s patient on apomorphine infusion what is the most appropriate antiemetic?
a) Ondansetron
b) Droperidol
c) Metoclopramide
d) Cyclizine
Cyclizine
- avoid antidopaminergics
- if on apomorphine specifically cant have ondansetron due to hypotension
58
What has the most favourable number needed to treat
a) Paracetamol
b) Paracetamol + codeine
c) Paracetamol + ibuprofen
d) Ibuprofen
e) Codeine
C - NNT 1.5
59
A new antiemetic, trial conducted control group PONV 25% intervention group PONV 20% what is the NNT?
- 5
- 10
- 20
- 25
20
60
Which causes the most gastric ulceration?
a) Naproxen
b) Ibuprofen
c) Diclofenac
d) Ketorolac
e) Indomethacin
Ketorolac
- as per Australian prescriber TG
KINC
(ketorolac>Indometecin>Naproxen>celebrex)
61
12mg hydromorphone daily. Equivalent oral morphine?
60mg
conversion is 5x for oral
62
Mitral stenosis murmur (exact picture in answer)
63
What is the youngest age for caffeine muscle biopsy testing for MH?
a) 2yo
b) 4yo
c) 8yo
d) 10yo
e) 12yo
10yo
- as per MH association of US
64
Data set (something like the picture, not exact). What is the most appropriate method for analysis
a) Logistic regression
b) Pearson correlation
c) Spearmans rho
Spearmans rho
- no idea but i plugged it into chat GPT and thats what it told me
65
In which of the following will extravasation of vasopressor be more likely
a) Elderly
b) Paeds
c) Diabetics
d) Fast rate of vasopressor
e) Slow rate of vasopressor
I Think D is the best answer
- there is an old BJA article from 2010 which states that both elderly and Paeds are both risk factors
- diabetics may have reduced sensation so less awareness of extravasation
- D is definitely a risk
- E definitely isn't
Maybe question is which isn't and remembered incorrectly?
66
Amount of mannitol in 400mg of dantrolene administered
60g
20mg vial dantrolene = 3g mannitol
67
Which of the following prevents microshock
a) Line isolation monitor
b) Equipotential earthing
c) RCD
d) Fuse
B
68
Which condition can you not give indocyanine green?
a) porphyria
b) methhaemaglobin
c) G6PD
d) iodine allergy
e). methylene blue allergy
Iodine allergy
ICG safe alternative for methylene blue in G6PD
Unclear about Porphyria
69
Torsades, HD unstable, with a palpable pulse. Management
a) Syncronised cardioversion 50j
b) syncronised cardioversion 200j
c) unsyncronised cardioversion 50j
d) unsyncronised cardioversion 200j
e) Magnesium 2g slow injection
A bit unlear: I think A
- Has to be synchronised
- Unstable = electricity
- I actually cant see a value for torsades specifically from ANZCOR, but elsewhere i'm reading 50-100j: and 200j would be starting dose for defibrillation
70
What foramen does the LA go through for a sphenopalantine block.
a) greater palantine foramen
b) lesser palantine foramen
c) sphenopalantine foramen
Sphenopalantine
71
Location of Erector spinae block
a) Anterior to ES muscle, posterior to TP
b) deep to ES, superficial to spinous process
c) superficial to ES, adjacent to TP
A
72
in ABE COPD assessment, what qualifies as E assessment?
a) equal/greater than 1 exacerbations
b) inability to walk up a hill
c) equal/greater than 2 hospitalisations
d) equal/greater than 1 hospitalisations
D
73
Anorexia nervosa has cardiac arrest. Expected electrolyte abnormality?
a) hyperkalaemia
b) hypophosphataemia
c) hypocalcaemia
d) hypomagnasaemia
Hypophosphataemia
74
IM ketamine dose in child for sedation
4mg/kg
75
Cryoprecipitate doesn't contain
a) vWF
b) Factor 2
c) Factor 8
d) Factor 13
e) Fibronectin
Factor 2
76
Patient on 100mg Tramadol BD, equivalent oral morphine?
a) 10mg
b) 20mg
c) 30mg
d) 40mg
e) 50mg
40mg
77
Post amputation, most effective at treating post op neuropathic pain?
a) regional
b) ketamine
d) gabapentinoids
e) TCA
I think Gabapentinoids if specific for amputation
- otherwise amitryptiline for neuropathic in general
78
Which will reduce duration/effect of methadone
a) phenytoin
b) Grapefruit Juice
c) Codeine
d) warfarin
e) Citalopram
Phenytoin
Phen - induces CYP450s
Grapefruit - inhibits CYP450s
Warfarin - small risk of inc INR
Citalopram - seratonergic/QTc issues
Codeine - resp depression (like all opioids)
79
SPO2 and PaO2 in CO poisoning?
a) normal SPO2, low PaO2
b) normal SP02, normal PaO2
normal, normal
(falsely high SpO2)
80
Which causes of hyponatraemia are euvolaemic?
a) cerebral salt wasting
b) pregnancy
c) liver failure
d) renal failure
e) hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism
- mechanism = reduced CO - reduced eGFR - increased ADH
CSWS - hypovolaemia
All other - hypervolaemic
81
4% Albumin, which electrolyte abnormality need to be careful?
a) Hypernatraemia
b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Hyperkalaemia
d) Hyperphosphataemia
Hypernatraemia
- 4% albumin has high Na concentration
82
What is Driving pressure?
a) peak pressure - PEEP
b) Plateau pressure - PEEP
B
83
When does deflation of intra-aortic balloon pump occur?
a) start of R
b) Peak of R
c) start of T
d) peak of T
Deflation - Peak of R
Inflation - Peak of T
84
SGLT21 MOA
a) reduce renal glucose absorption
b) reduced GI glucose absorption
c) increase insulin sensitivity
A
85
GLP1a, which is not an effect?
a) reduced gastric emptying
b) reduced resting HR
c) weight loss
d) reduced cardiovascular events
c) pancreatitis
B - ozempic can cause increased HR
86
Painless vision loss with intact RAPD?
a) Posterior ION
b) corneal abrasion
c) retinal detachement
d) vertebrobasilar ischaemia
D
87
G6PD deficiency, which LA is safe?
a) Prilocaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Bupivocaine
Bupivocaine
88
Which nerve does not supply shoulder joint?
a) Supraclavicular
b) lateral pectoral
c) suprasacpular
d) axillary
Supraclavicular
89
Green Line on a laryngoscope blade indicates what?
a) single use
b) re-cyclable
c) re-usable
d) immersible
e) fibreoptic light source
E
Green - fibreoptic light source
black - globe on end of blade
90
Which is not a risk factor for vasopressor extravasation?
a) slower infusion rate
b) diabetes
c) elderly
d) neonate
e) low pH
Slower infusion rate
91
Central 7.5fr catheter in carotid artery accidentally prior to AVR. Best action?
a) Notify vascular surgeons urgently
b) heparinise via second CVC
c) remove and place under pressure
A
92
Fourth HS cause?
a) Pregnancy
b) Athlete
c) HTN
d) Normal
e) Aortic regurgitation
C
4th HS = always pathological
- associated with increased LV stiffness + reduced compliance ie hypertrophy
93
Aim for a lower SPO2 in?
a) sickle cell crisis
b) stroke
c) cluster headaches
d) PTX
Stroke
all others, oxygen forms a mainstay of treatment
94
Methylpred dose in TBI
a) 0mg
b) 2mg
c) 4mg
d) 6mg
e) 8mg
0mg
Steroids not recommended in TBI
95
PENG Block target?
a) Between psoas tendon and AIIS
b) between iliacus and anterior joint capsule
c) something else and anterior joint capsule
A
- probably more accurately between psoas tendon and iliopubic eminence/superior pubic rami
96
Which drug does not increase defibrillator threshold?
a) Lignocaine
b) Diltiazem
c) sotalol
C - Sotalol
Increased threshold = more difficult to terminate with electricity. Lignocaine, CCB, chronic amiodarone
Sotalol and acute amiodarone treatment = reduced
97
O2 from wall at 6L/min on flowmeter, tube gets kinked, what pressure is reached?
a) 1 ATM
b) 2 ATM
c) 3 ATM
d) 4 ATM
Unsure, happy to be corrected but probably 4 ATM as that the pressure delivered from the wall
98
Manujet Max pressure?
a) 0.5 BAR
b) 1 BAR
c) 2 BAR
d) 3 BAR
e) 3.5 BAR
3.5 BAR max
99
Myasthenia Gravis. Which is not a predictor for respiratory failure?
a) BMI > 30
b) Pyridostigmine 500mg dialy
c) other respiratory disease
d) bulbar symptoms
e) VC 1.8L
B
100
SOFA score doesn't include
a) lactate
b) GCS
c) P/F ratio
d) creatinine
e) platelets
Lactate
(liver uses albumin)
101
IO sample poor correlation?
a) Hb
b) Platelets
c) Potassium
d) Chloride
e) Albumin
Poorly remebered?
Poor correlation
- Plt, WCC
- K, Calcium, Na
Good correlation
- Hb
- Chloride
102
IM sux in Paeds, onset of max effect?
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes
d) 4 minutes
e) 10 minutes
Cant find much on "max effect" but seems like onset quoted as 2-3 minutes from multiple sources so i would answer 2 minutes
This one article from 2007 quotes max 4 minutes https://www.bjaed.org/article/S1743-1816(17)30443-2/pdf
so depends if question is onset or max
103
Intralipid Max dose
a) 6ml/kg
b) 12ml/kg
c) 10ml/kg
d) 15ml/kg
12 ml/kg
104
Fibrinogen target in PPH?
a) 2
b) 1.5
c) 1
d) 2.5
aim to keep > 2g/dl
105
Max dose ropivocaine in 24 hrs
- 450
- 650
- 770
- 1080
770mg Rop
400mg Bupi
106
Re-warming post CPB, most accurate temp
- bladder
- tympanic
- nasopharyngeal
- Pulmonary artery
PAC > NP > bladder > tympanic
In practise NP is done as few people have PAC
107
ET CO2 trace
a) leak
b) endobronchial
c) obstructive
d) obesity
e) air sampling leak
Air sampling leak
- 'tails up trace'
Appears in phase 4 which sometimes has upstroke in high metabolic rate condutions - obesity and pregnancy (but probably not as significant
108
Complications of hyperbaric oxygen therapy include all of the following except
- Hypoglycaemia
- Cataract
- Worsening CCF
- seizures
- Reversible hypermetropia
Reversible hypermetropia (farsightedness)
Complications of HBOT:
- claustrophobia
- hypoglycaemia
- middle ear barotruama
- sinus squeeze
- seizure (secondary to oxygen toxicity)
- progressive myopia (typically reverses completely in days to weeks)
- cataracts with very long exposure
- cumulative pulmnoary oxygen toxicity
- pulmonary barotrauma +/- air embolism
- worsens CCF in pts with severe disease due to reduced HR (incr vagal tone from hyperbaric pressures) and systemic vasoconstriction
109
MH vs AIR. What is not present in AIR?
a) myoglobinuria
b) hyperkalaemia
c) ridgidity
d) elevated etCO2
e) hyperthermia
C - ridgidity
110
GWP: worse to best
a) Des, Iso, Sevo, Nitrous
b) Des, Nitrous, Iso, sevo
c) Des, iso, nitrous, sevo
d) Des, nitrous, sevo, iso
DINS - Des, iso, nitrous, sevo (purely on GWP)
However given high concentration nitrous used. Ranked climate impact = Des, nitrous, iso, sevo (DNIS)
111
Mild CF, expected RFT?
- Obstructive with reduced FEV1
- Mixed obstructive restrictive
- Obstructive and reduced FVC
- Restrictive with something
Mild = obstructive with reduced FEV1
Large FVC
late = mixed obstructive/restrictive
112
In what circumstance is a temperature between 34 and 36 targetted?
- cardiac arrest
- brain injury
- spinal chor dinjury
I think best answer is cardiac arrest
- ANCOR states < 37.5 but also says 'whether subpopulations may benefit from 32-34 remains unscertain
- BTF definitely doesn't suggest hypothermia for TBI
- SCI probably the same as TBI and cant find anything to suggest hypothermia is good
113
Revised trauma score includes BP, GCS and?
a) SPO2
b) RR
c) lactate
d) HR
RR
- consider trauma centre if score < 4
114
In a CICO how long do you pause post jet ventilation breath?
a) 10 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 6 seconds
d) 15 seconds
SpO2 drop by 5% or 30 seconds
115
Paeds potential C spine injury in 3 year old. What is the best management?
a) sedate the child until C spine cleared
b) use hard collar
c) Use thoracic elevation device
d) restrain child to hard board
e) CT is first line imaging
C
- thoracic elevation device in <8
116
Dyspnoea occurs during which position change in hepatopulmonary syndrome?
- left lateral to right lateral
- right lateral to left lateral
- supine to sitting
- sitting to supine
- supine to prone
Supine to sitting
117
Which is not high risk for cardiac adverse events?
- uncontrolled HTN
- previous history of CCF
- IHD
- Diabetes
- CKD
Uncontrolled HTN - Not part of RCRI
118
Leukodepletion reduces the risk of
a) CMV transmission
b) HIV transmission
c) ABO incompatibility
CMV transmission
119
What is the likelihood of a p value equal or greater than 0.05 for a study repeated with exactly the same conditions and same sample size for a study that produced a p value of 0.05
- 5%
- 20%
- 50%
- 80%
- 95%
AI says 50%
120
If a patient is taking fluoxetine, which drug as the lowest risk of serotonin syndrome?
tramadol
oxycodone
morphine
fentanyl
pethidine
methadone
Morphine
Probably answer accoridng to bja article https://www.bjaed.org/article/S2058-5349(19)30153-2/fulltext
121
SBP for 55 male with TBI
SBP 90
SBP 100
SBP 110
50-69 = > 100
younger or older = > 110
122
TIPS procedure. absolute contraindiction?
- hepatic encephalopathy
- severe coagulopathy
- severe TR
- moderate pulmonary HTN
Severe TR = absolute
others = relative
123
How long to continue magnesium after eclamptic seizure
a 12 hours
b 24 hours
c 48 hours
d 96 hours
24 hours
124
How long to wait after cardiac arrest to certify brain death?
a 4 hours
b 12 hours
c 24 hours
d 48 hours
24 hours (if after cardiac arrest or if there has been severe hypothermia)
125
Which imaging modality may not be used to certify brain death?
a CTA
b MRA
c Radionuclotide
d intra-arterial angiography
MRA not recommended
126
Not a risk factor for OIHV
- opioid tolerance
- male
- diabetes
- obesity
Male
127
Obesity in pregnancy does not increase the risk of?
a. antenatal depression
b. cholestasis
c. pre eclampsia
Cholestasis
128
A regional technique that will NOT provide analgesia for sternal fracture is
a. PECS 1
b. PECS 2
c. Parasternal intercostal nerve block
d. Transversus thoracic plane block
PECS 1
129
Steroids for prematurity decreases the risk of all of the following except
a. Lung disease
b. perinatal death
c. neonatal death
d. NEC
e. Hypoglycaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Essentially protects against all immaturity complications except hypoglycaemia
- risk of increase neonatal hypoglycaemia and IUGR
130
Anaesthetising musculocutaneous nerve causes issues with
a. elbow extension
b. elbow flexion
c. wrist supination
d. wrist pronation
Elbow flexion - biceps + brachialis
elbow ext - radial nerve
supination - mainly radial nerve
pronation - median/ulna nerves
131
Vent settings in fontan
a. long insp time
b. short insp time
c. high RR
d. High peep
Short Insp Time
132
Glenn shunt
a. SVC to RPA
b. SVC to MPA
SVC to RPA
133
Child-Pugh score does not contain
a. bili
b. INR
c. Albumin
d. Creat
Creat
- Just contains liver markers
As opposed to MELD-Na which does have creat (no albumin)
134
Patient in VF after open aortic valve replacement - what is max safe energy for internal defib?
a. 20j
b. 50j
c. 100j
50j
135
What percentage of patients make a full reovery after Takatsubo Cardiomyopathy?
a. 20
b. 50
c. 70.
d. 90
90%
136
20kg child in VF: Dose of adrenaline?
a 2ml 1:10000
b 2ml 1:100000
c 1ml 1: 10000
d 1ml 1:100000
200 microg or 2 ml 1:10,000
137
BP measurement under GA, minimum frequency?
a. 5 mins
b. 10 mins
c. 15 mins
d. 20 mins
10 mins
138
Correct tube for tryptase
- Potassium EDTA
- serum separating tube
- sodium citrate
- sodium oxalate
serum separating tube
139
Carcinoid heart disease is associated with which valvular issue
a. PR
b. PS
c. TR
d. TS
TR is most common
Only Right sided lesions for the most part: TR>PR>PS
140
You trial a new drug to prevent PONV. It is 50% more effective than the current drug. Four percent of people still experience PONV with the new drug. How many people need to receive the new drug in place of the current drug to have one person less suffering from PONV?
a. 2
b. 8
c. 15
d. 25
e. 33
25
141
Person with a left ventricular assist device, what drug is NOT useful in treating atrial arrhythmias?
a. Diltiazem
b. Sotalol
Diltiazem
- use very cautiously due to negative ionotropy
142
The bipolar leads of a 12-lead electrocardiogram are
a) All
b) V1-V6
c) aVL, aVR, aVF
d) I, II, III
e) None
D
