1
Q
Define
SRTP
A
- Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol
- Adds security features to RTP
- Integrity, replay protection, and AES encryption
- Used for voice and video
2
Q
Define
NTPsec
A
- Secure Network Time Protocol
- Began development in 2015
- Adds security to NTP and cleans up code base
- (NTP has commonly been used as amplifiers in DDoS attacks)
3
Q
Define
S/MIME
A
- Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
- Public key encryption and digital signing of mail content
- Requires PKI or similar organization of keys
4
Q
Define
IPsec
A
- Internet Protocol Security
- Allows sending of data over OSI layer 3 with authentication and encryption for every packet
- Very standardized, common to use across multiple vendors
- Its two primary protocols are AH and ESP
5
Q
Explain
AH
A
- Application Header
- One of the core protocols of IPsec
- Adds a hash of the IP packet and a shared key
- The hash adds integrity
- The shared key authenticates the origin
- Also includes sequence numbers, to prevents replay attacks
- Does not encrypt data, only provides integrity
- Can be used independently, but is most often used with ESP
6
Q
Define
ESP
A
- Encapsulation Security Payload
- One of the core protocols of IPsec
- Adds encryption to IP packets
7
Q
Difference between FTPS and SFTP?
A
- FTPS is “FTP over SSL”
* SFTP is “SSH FTP”
8
Q
Define
LDAPS
A
- LDAP Secure
* A non-standard implementation of LDAP over SSL
9
Q
Define
SASL
A
- Simple Authentication and Security Layer
- Directory service to provide authentication using many different methods
- Such as Kerberos or client certificate
- Can be used by LDAP
10
Q
Define
DNSSEC
A
- Domain Name System Security Extensions
- Validates DNS responses to authenticate the origin and confirm the data integrity
- Uses public key cryptography
11
Q
Define
SNMPv3
A
- The secure version of SNMP
* Adds authentication, integrity, and confidentiality through encryption
12
Q
How can security be added to DHCP?
A
- It does not include any security functions in its original specification
- Switches can be configured to only allow DHCP responses to come from specified trusted interfaces
- In Active Directory, DHCP servers must be authorized
13
Q
Define
DHCP Snooping
A
- The term used by Cisco for the feature of specifying what interfaces on a switch are allowed to send DHCP responses
- Filters invalid IP and DHCP information
14
Q
Explain
EDR
A
- Endpoint Detection and Response
- A newer method of threat protection, rather than signature-based
- Detects threats through behavior analysis, machine learning, process monitoring
- Can run through a lightweight agent on an endpoint
- Both investigates threats and can respond to it
- Reponses may include isolating the system, quarantining the threat, rolling back to a previous config
- Can be automated and API-driven
15
Q
What are alternative terms for NGFW?
A
- Application Layer Gateway
- Stateful Multilayer Inspection
- Deep Packet Inspection
16
Q
Define
NGFW
A
- Next-Generation Firewall
- Inspects the application layer, all data in every packet, rather than just looking at IP address and port number
- Can allow or block application features
- Identify attacks and malware
- Examine encrypted data (if configured to manage the keys)
- Prevent access to URLs or URL categories
17
Q
Define
HIDS and HIPS
A
• Host-Based Intrusion Detection System
and
- Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System
- Runs directly on an endpoint/host, and looks through log files to identify intrusions
18
Q
Explain
TPM
A
- Trusted Platform Module
- Hardware installed to assist with cryptography and device security
- Cryptographic processor and key generator
- Comes with unique keys burned in during production
- Can store keys, hardware configuration info, etc.
- Password protected with anti-brute force features
19
Q
How does UEFI BIOS protect against malicious firmware updates?
A
- BIOS includes the manufacturer’s public key
- When flashing a BIOS update, the firmware’s digital signature is checked against that key
- BIOS will prevent unauthorized writes to the flash
20
Q
Define
Secure Boot
A
- Part of the UEFI specification
- When enabled, Secure Boot verifies the bootloader
- Checks the bootloader’s digital signature
- Bootloader must be signed with a trusted certificate, or else its signature must be manually approved
- Confirms that no part of that bootloader has been changed
21
Q
Define
Trusted Boot
A
- The bootloader verifies the digital signature of the OS kernel
- The boot process will halt if a corrupted kernel is detected
- The kernel then verifies all other startup components, including boot drivers and startup files
- ELAM then runs prior to loading all remaining drivers.
22
Q
Define
ELAM
A
- Early Launch Anti-Malware
- A security feature of Windows that checks every driver to see if it is trusted prior to loading it
- Runs early in the boot process
- Checks digital signatures, and prevents untrusted drivers from loading.
23
Q
Explain
Measured Boot
A
- UEFI stores a hash of firmware, boot drivers, and everything else loaded during Secure Boot and Trusted Boot processes
- This hash is stored in the TPM and can be sent, encrypted and signed by the TPM, to a verification server
24
Q
Define
Remote Attestation / Boot Attestation
A
- When the Measured Boot process completes, the TPM encrypts, signs, and sends an operational report to a verification server
- The attestation server receives the boot report, and compares it to the known-trusted configuration of the system
- If changes are found, they are identified and various actions can be taken
25
What is this another name for?
Fuzzing
* A colloquial term for Dynamic Analysis
* May also be referred to as:
* Fault-injecting
* Robustness testing
* Syntax testing
* Negative testing
26
Define
Dynamic Analysis
* A type of attack on applications, where random input is sent
* Attacker is looking for vulnerabilities, application crashes, buffer overflows, exceptions, etc.
* "Fuzzers" are tools to perform this.
* Very time and processor resource heavy, but often designed to perform high-probability tests first.
27
Describe security concerns surrounding:
Cookies
* Cookies are used for tracking, personalization, and session management
* Generally should not be a security risk, unless someone gains access to them.
* Secure Cookies have an attribute set that requires they will only be sent over HTTPS
* Sensitive information ought never to be stored in a cookie
28
Explain
HTTP Secure Headers
* A way for the web server to restrict the capabilities of a browser from performing certain functions
* Useful when an application is being used on your web server, but you aren't certain of that application’s security
* For example, can be used to:
○ enforce HTTPS
○ only allow scripts, stylesheets, or images from the local site (preventing XSS attacks)
○ prevent data from loading in an iframe
29
Explain
Code Signing
* Application code can be digitally signed by the developer, confirming that the code has not been modified
* Asymmetric encryption:
○ A trusted CA signs the developer's public key
○ And the developer signs the code with their private key
30
How can applications be allowed or denied?
* Allow lists and deny lists can be made to control what applications may run on a system
* Lists may be based on, for example:
○ Application's hash
○ A certificate, for digitally signed applications
○ The application's path, allowing applications to only run in certain folders
○ The application's network zone
31
Explain
SAST
* Static Application Security Testing
* A tool to perform automated analysis on source code to identify security flaws
* Findings and recommendations are reported, and would still need to be manually verified and applied
* Not all flaws can be identified this way, such as authentication security issues and insecure cryptography
32
Name a tool that can scan and verify what ports are open?
• Nmap
33
Define
SED
* Self-Encrypting Drive
* Hardware-based full disk encryption
* No operating system software needed
* Follows the "Opal storage specification"
34
What functions may a Load Balancer perform? (six answers)
* Primary function it to manage the load across multiple servers
* May also perform any of the following:
○ TCP offload (handles some TCP traffic rather than the servers)
○ SSL offload (encryption/decryption, so that comm. between balancer and servers is in-the-clear)
○ Caching (keeps copy of common responses on balancer, so it can respond quickly on behalf of servers)
○ Prioritization / QoS
○ Content switching (application-centric balancing, directing different functions to different servers)
35
Explain Scheduling and list four possible methods
* Scheduling is the method of determining which server a load balancer will direct traffic to
* Example Active/Active methods:
○ Round-Robin (each server selected in turn)
○ Weighted Round-Robin (prioritizing some servers over others, rather than equal)
○ Dynamic Round-Robin (distribute traffic to server with lowest current load)
• Active/Passive scheduling will only route traffic to "passive" servers if an active server fails (making the passive server become active)
36
Define
Affinity
* In Load Balancing, Affinity connects users to specific servers, so that whenever they reconnect, they will be directed to the same server as previously
* Often based on IP address / port number or session ID
* Used when an application requires communication to the same instance
37
Explain
Extranet
* Similar in structure to a DMZ, but usually requires additional authentication to access, rather than allowing any public access
* Often used for partners, vendors, suppliers, etc. to gain access to internal resources
38
Define
East-West Traffic
* Traffic between devices in the same data center
| * Includes traffic between separate customers within the same data center
39
Define
North-South Traffic
* A term for a data center's Ingres/egress traffic to and from an outside device
* Usually requires a stricter security posture than east-west traffic
40
Define
Concentrator
* The device that performs encryption and decryption for a VPN connection
* Often integrated into a firewall, but can also be a standalone device
41
Explain
SSL VPN
* Uses the common SSL/TLS protocol (tcp 443)
* Therefore, usually does not run into any firewall issues
* can authenticate users
* Doesn't require digital certificates or shared passwords
* Can be run from within a browser or a light VPN client, but often doesn't require a VPN client
42
Explain
HTML5 VPN
* HTML5 includes API support with web cryptography API
| * Allows for the creation of a VPN tunnel in a browser without any VPN application
43
Explain
L2TP
* Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol
* Connecting sites over a layer 3 network as though they were connected at layer 2
* Commonly implemented with IPsec (L2TP for the tunnel, IPsec for the encryption)
○ Sometimes referred to as L2TP over IPsec or L2TP/IPsec
44
Explain
Transport Mode vs. Tunnel Mode
* IPsec modes of operation
* in Transport mode, only the Data portion of the IP packet is encrypted
* In Tunnel mode, both the IP Header and the Data are encrypted, and a new IP header is added, which directs the packet to the VPN concentrator on the other side of the tunnel.
45
Define
Broadcast Storm Control
* A security feature for switches
* Limits the number of broadcasts per second
* Often also used to control multicast and unknown unicast traffic
* Can be managed either by specific values, percentages, or deviations baseline behavior
46
Define
BPDU
* Bridge Protocol Data Unit
| * The primary protocol used by Spanning Tree Protocol
47
Define
BPDU Guard
* If a BPDU frame is seen on a PortFast configured interface, the interface will shutdown
* This is because PortFast interfaces are only supposed to connect to endpoints, which would never send BPDUs
48
Define
PortFast
* Cisco's term for the feature of bypassing the STP listening and learning steps when a device is plugged in
* Configured for ports that are known to only be needed to connect to endpoints, so STP is not needed since it won't create a loop.
* STP takes 20-30 seconds to determine how to handle a new connection, so bypassing it saves time
49
Explain
MAC Filtering
* Limiting access to the network based on MAC address Allow Lists
* Security through obscurity
* Not very secure since Allowed MACs on the network can be easily discovered and spoofed
50
List some security implications of IPv6
| four bullets
* No need for NAT
* Some attack types no longer apply (such as ARP spoofing, since there is no ARP)
* But some new attack types apply, such as Neighbor Cache Exhaustion
* It is not necessarily more or less secure than IPv4, it's just different
51
Define
Neighbor Cache Exhaustion
* An IPv6 attack which fills up the neighbor cache on devices
* Can make a system unable to communicate with other devices on the network
52
Define
SPAN
* Switched Port ANalyzer
| * Cisco's name for port mirroring to a software-based tap
53
Define
FIM
* File Integrity Monitoring
* Monitoring changes to files that should never change
* Notifies when changes occur
54
Two examples of FIM tools?
* Tripwire: Real-time FIM tool for Linux
| * SFC (System File Checker) - On-demand FIM for Windows
55
Define
Stateless Firewall
* Older style of firewall that does not keep track of traffic flows
* Packets coming into the network will need access rules to get in, even if it is in response to requests originating from the firewall's internal network
* Access rules are required for both directions of a session's traffic
* Security concerns since rules require that external traffic will gain entry even if it is unsolicited
56
Explain
UTM
* Unified Threat Management
* An all-in-one security appliance
* Firewall, Content filter, anti-malware, spam filter, IDS/IPS, VPN endpoint, etc.
* A precursor to NGWF
57
Explain
WAF
* Web Application Firewall
* Applies rules to HTTP/HTTPS conversations
* Instead of looking at ports and IPs, it allows or denies based on expected input.
58
If a firewall has an implicit deny, why might an admin create an explicit deny for a specific service?
• Implicit denies are not logged. Creating a rule means an attempted access will generate a log.
59
What is an advantage of host-based firewalls?
• Since it runs on your local machine, it can view traffic from an encrypted communication (HTTPS, etc.), since it is decrypted locally.
60
Define
Dissolvable Agent
* Used for Network Access Control
* For running health checks and posture assessment on devices on / connecting to the network
* No installation required
* Runs during the assessment, and terminates when no longer required
61
Define
Agentless NAC
* Used for Network Access Control
* For running health checks and posture assessment on devices on / connecting to the network
* Integrated with Active Directory
* Checks are made during login and logoff
* Only runs at those times; cannot be scheduled
62
What functions may a Proxy Server perform? (list 5)
* Keeping a local cache of information
* Access Control
* URL Filtering
* Content Scanning
* A Reverse Proxy, which examines incoming requests from the Internet before sending them to a web server
63
Define
Transparent Proxy Server
• A proxy server on a network, where endpoints don't need to be explicitly configured to use it, and aren't aware of it.
64
What does this stand for?
NIDS
• Network-based Intrusion Detection System
65
What does this stand for?
NIPS
• Network-based Intrusion Prevention System
66
What is an out-of-band response?
* When a passive IPS (not in-line with traffic) identifies malicious traffic and sends an TCP RST (reset) frame to prevent further traffic
* It does not prevent the original packet from going through, but disrupts the traffic flow and prevents further communication
* The reset frame is part of the TCP protocol; this response does not work with UDP traffic
67
What methods can be used by an IPS to identify malicious activity? (Four answers)
* Signature-based: Must match exactly
* Anomaly-based: Create a baseline of what's normal to detect unusual activity
* Behavior-based: Programmed to know what certain malicious activities might look like
* Heuristics: use artificial intelligence and big data
68
Define
Jump Server
* A system that you connect to in order to access other internal systems
* Must be highly-secured, hardened, and monitored
69
Define
HSM
* Hardware Security Module
* A dedicated server for handling cryptographic functions, storing keys, certificates, etc.
* Used in very large environments with many devices that need cryptographic keys
* Usually installed in clusters with lots of redundancy
* Built with specialized hardware designed for cryptography
* Can act as a proxy to offload encrypted communication for webservers, and forward the traffic to the webservers in the clear
70
What does this stand for?
MIC
• Message Integrity Check
71
# Define:
CCMP
* Stands for: Counter/CBC-MAC Protocol
* A block cipher mode
* The type of encryption used with WPA2
* Uses AES for confidentiality
* Uses CBC-MAC for MIC
72
# Define:
CBC-MAC
* Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol
| * A form of MIC (Message Integrity Check)
73
# Define:
GCMP
* Galois/Counter Mode Protocol
* A block cipher mode
* The type of encryption used in WPA3
* Uses AES for confidentiality
* Uses GMAC for MIC
74
# Define:
GMAC
* Galois Message Authentication Code
| * A form of MIC
75
What security advantages does WPA3 have over WPA2?
* WPA2 is susceptible to brute force attacks. Once the passphrase is known, an attacker can read all communication of all devices
* WAP3 uses:
○ mutual authentication
○ creates a shared session key without sending that key across the network
○ perfect forward secrecy
○ SAE
76
Explain:
Perfect Forward Secrecy
* A session key is created for each session, and disposed of when the session is over
* New sessions would create a new key
* Used, among other places, in WPA3
77
Explain:
SAE
* Simultaneous Authentication of Equals
* A Diffie-Hellman derived key exchange (same process), but adds an authentication component
* An IEEE standard
* sometimes called the dragonfly handshake
* Used, among other places, in WPA3
78
Describe WPS from a security standpoint.
* Best practice is to disable it
* If it does not have brute-force protection built in, it is extremely easy to brute force
* Only 11,000 possible combinations need to be tried to gain access
* Brute-force lockouts are now the norm, but most devices out there don't have it.
79
How can WPS authenticate a device?
* a PIN (which is easily brute-forced)
* A physical button to push on the WAP
* NFC
80
What type of authentication does WPA2-Enterprise use?
• 802.1X
81
Explain
802.1X
* A type of network access control that requires authentication to access the network, whether wired or wireless
* Typically uses a central authentication database such as RADIUS, LDAP, TACACS+, etc.
* The authenticator (the device that provides network access) communicates to an authentication server on behalf of the supplicant (client)
82
Define
NAC
* Port-based Network Access Control
| * A name for 802.1X
83
# Define:
EAP
* Extensible Authentication Protocol
* The authentication protocol used by 802.1X, as well as many other types of authentication for wireless networks
* Supports multiple types of authentication
* Manufacturers can build their own EAP methods
84
Explain:
EAP-FAST
* EAP Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling
* Ensures that the authentication server and supplicant can communicate with each other over a secure tunnel.
* The server provides a protected access credential (PAC), i.e. a shared secret, to the supplicant, they mutually authenticate and negotiate a TLS tunnel, and user authentication occurs over the TLS tunnel.
85
# Define:
PAC
* Protected Access Credential
| * A shared secret, used in EAP-FAST
86
# Define:
AS
• The acronym used for the Authentication Server in EAP
87
Define
PEAP
* Protected EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
* Created by Cisco, Microsoft, and RSA Security
* Similar to EAP-FAST, but instead of a PAC (Private Access Credential), the AS uses a digital certificate.
* (As with a web server, the client does not need its own certificate, only the server)
* User can authenticate using MSCHAPv2 for Microsoft services, or GTC
88
What does this stand for?
MSCHAPv2
• Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2
89
What does this stand for?
GTC
• Generic Token Card
90
Explain:
EAP-TLS
* EAP with TLS
* Similar to PEAP, but requires a digital certificate on the client as well as the AS, so they can mutually authenticate
* Once devices have authenticated to each other, the TLS tunnel is built for the user authentication process
* Complex implementation as it requires all network devices to have certificates
* May not be suitable, as not all devices can support the use of digital certificates,
91
Explain:
EAP-TTLS
* EAP Tunneled TLS
* Similar to PEAP, builds a TLS tunnel using the digital certificate of the AS
* (Does not require the supplicant to have a certificate)
* Can use any authentication method inside the TLS tunnel, including other EAPs, MSCHAPv2, or anything else.
92
Define
Wireless Controller
* A centralized management device for wireless access points
| * Allows management of system configuration, performance, updates, etc.
93
Define
MCM
* Mobile Content Management
* Controls for securing access to data and protecting it from outsiders
* Managed from the mobile device manager (MDM)
* May include controls for file sharing and viewing, as well as DLP and encryption requirements
94
Explain
Context-Aware Authentication
* An emerging technology
* Looks at multiple contexts to determine whether a login attempt is likely to be authentic
* Contexts may include:
○ Device IP address
○ GPS information
○ Devices connected / Bluetooth paired to the device
○ more
95
In the context of BYOD, define:
Containerization
* The separation of enterprise mobile apps and data from personal apps and data
* Storage on a mobile device is segmented to keep business data in a contained area with restricted sharing
* Makes offboarding much easier. Business data can be wiped without removing personal data.
96
Define
MicroSD HSM
* A small Hardware Security Module, in microSD card form
* Provides security services to mobile devices, such as:
○ encryption
○ key generation
○ digital signatures
○ authentication
97
Explain
UEM
* Unified Endpoint Management
* Similar to MDM, but also manages non-mobile devices
* Allows users to change between devices, such as phone and laptop, and still have same security and access
98
Explain
MAM
* Mobile Application Management
* Provision, update, and remove apps from your own enterprise app catalog
* Monitor application use
* Fine-grained control of wiping data
99
Explain
SEAndroid
* Security Enhancements for Android
* Puts SELinux functions into Android OS
* Supports additional access control security policies
* Enabled by default since Android version 4.3 in July 2013
* Developed by NSA
100
List some security features added by SEAndroid (four answers)
* Protects privileged access to Android system daemons
* Changed Discretionary Access Control (DAC) to Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
* Isolate and sandboxes Android apps
* Centralized policy configuration
101
# Define:
OTA
* Over the Air
* A type of firmware update for mobile devices
* Delivered wirelessly without needing to connect to any device
102
List some capabilities of MDM
* Control firmware updates
* Use an allow list or block list of approved / blocked apps
* Control microphone/camera use to disable/enable either always or only in certainly locations
* Control SMS/MMS usage by timeframe or location
103
Define
USB OTG
* USB On-the-Go
* A USB 2.0 Standard that allows supported devices to connect directly together
* A mobile device can act as both a host and a device, acting as storage
104
Define
Geotagging
* aka GPS Tagging
* Adds location to file metadata
* Can cause security concern, since investigating these files can create a path of a user
* Can be disabled
105
Define
COPE
* Corporate-Owned, Personally-Enabled
* A mobile deployment model
* Similar to BYOD, but the company buys the device and allows it to also be used for personal use
* Company keeps full control of device
106
Define
CYOD
* Choose Your Own Device
| * Similar to COPE, but with the user's choice of device
107
Explain
VMI
* Virtual Mobile Infrastructure
* Like thin clients, mobile phones can also connect to a cloud service where apps and data are stored
* If the device is lost, no data is lost, no security concern
* Allows for centralized app development, since you only need to write for a single VMI platform
* No need to update all individual devices
108
Define
AZ
* Availability Zone
* Isolated locations with a cloud region (geographic location)
* Each AZ is completely independent
109
Define
HA Across Zones
High Availability Across (Availability) Zones
• Highly Available applications can be aware of Availability Zones, and recognize an outage in a particular zone to adjust accordingly
110
Define
IAM
* Identity and Access Management
* Cloud resource security control to determine who gets access, and what they get access to
* Maps job functions to roles
* Granular policies control access by user group, IP, date and time, geolocation, etc.
111
Define
VPC Endpoint
* Virtual Private Cloud Endpoint
* Allows private cloud subnets to communicate to other cloud services, even without an internet connection.
* Facilitates connectivity between VPCs and cloud services such as storage.
112
What are some tips for container security?
* Use OSs that are designed specifically for containers
| * Group containers of similar type onto the same host, to limit the scope of any intrusion
113
Define
Security Group
* In the context of Cloud Computing:
* Security Groups provide Layer 4 firewall services for all resources within a VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
* Not to be confused with Security Groups in Active Directory
* Not sure why they're not just called "VPC Firewalls" or something.
114
Define
DAC vs. MAC
* Discretionary Access Control / Mandatory Access Control
* In DAC model, users have control over access to their own data or local computer resources
* In MAC model, access permissions are set by administrators. Resources objects (such as files) are given security labels which assign a classification and category, which matches it to users' classifications and categories to determine access.
115
Explain
CASB
* Cloud Access Security Broker
* May be installed as client software, run as a local network appliance, or a cloud service
* Four functions:
○ Visibility into what apps are in use, what data is being transferred, etc.
○ Enforce compliance regulations
○ Prevent threats / disallowed blocked items
○ Data Security: Enforce DLP, Encryption, etc.
116
Explain
SWG
* Next-Gen Secure Web Gateway
* Protects users and devices regardless of location and activity
* Goes beyond just examing Layer 4 (TCP/UDP), URLs, and GET requests
* Examines JSON strings and API requests, to allow or disallow very specific activities
117
Explain
IdP
* Identity Provider
* A third-party providing identity control for another service.
* Essentially "Authentication as a Service"
* Commonly used by SSO applications
118
Explain
SSH Keys
* The use of public/private cryptographic keys to authenticate in SSH instead of a username and password
* Especially used for automation and scripts, since you won't be there to enter a password when the script is running
* Key management is crticial, to centralize, control, and audit key use
* Both open source and commercial SSH key managers are available
119
How to generate and login with an SSH key?
• ssh-keygen
○ the command in Linux or MacOS
○ Creates a public/private key pair for authentication
• Copy the public key to the SSH server:
○ ssh-copy-id user@host
* Copy the private key to any system that will need to login
* You can now login with the following command, no password required:
○ ssh user@host
120
Explain
KBA
* Knowledge-Based Authenication
* A form of "Something you know"
* Static KBA: Pre-configured security questions, often used with account recovery.
○ Ex., what was your first car?
• Dynamic KBA: Not pre-configured, but pulled from some other source, often an identity verification service.
○ Ex., Which of the following addresses did you live at in 1999?
121
Explain
PAP
* Password Authentication Protocol
* An old, basic authentication method.
* Rare today. Used only in legacy systems.
* No encryption, designed for analog dialup connections.
* When used today, the application may provide encryption, encapsulated within PAP, so it's not sent in the clear.
122
Explain
CHAP
* Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol
* Encrypted challenge sent over the network
* A step up from PAP
* Server sends a challenge based on the password, which verifies both sides have that password, without sending the password itself.
* This challenge-response may continue to occur periodically during the connection, invisible to the user
123
Explain
MS-CHAP
* Microsoft's implementation of CHAP
* MS-CHAP v2 is the most recent version
* Both v1 and v2 are insecure and should not be used, because they use DES
* DES is susceptible to brute force decryption of the hash
124
Explain
TACACS
* Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System
* A remote authentication protocol
* Originally built when using analog dial-up lines
* Created for access ARPANET
125
Explain
XTACACS
* Extended TACACS
* Cisco proprietary version of TACACS
* Has additional support for accounting and auditing
126
Explain
TACACS+
* The latest version of TACACS. released in 1993
* If using TACACS today, it is probably this version
* Adds more authentication requests and response codes
127
Explain
Kerberos
* a Network authentication protocol
* Authenticates once, then you are trusted by the system and don't need to re-authenticate to access resources
* Server provides a "ticket" that your system uses to authenticate to other systems without entering password again
* Mutual authentication, which protects against on-path or replay attacks
* Standard since 1980s, Microsoft began using it in Windows 2000
128
What databased may be used on the backend of IEEE 802.1X?
* Can work with a variety, including:
* RADIUS
* LDAP
* TACACS+
129
Define
SAML
* Security Assertion Markup Language
* An open standard for authentication and authorization
* Authenticate through a third-party to gain access
* Not designed to support mobile apps, so is likely to decline in usage as time goes on
130
What is the flow of SAML?
* Client accesses resource server
* Resource server sends signed/encrypted SAML request to client, and directs them to the authorization server
* Client signs into the Authorization Server
* Authorization Server provides SAML token
* Client sends SAML token to resource server and gain access
131
Explain
OAuth
Open Authorization
* An authorization framework with significant industry support
* Determines what resources a user can access
* Does not authenticate, only authorizes
* Often used to provide authorization between applications
* Ex. "Datto wants permissions to your Microsoft 365 account for the following. Do you want to allow this?"
132
Explain
ABAC
* Attribute-Based Access Control
* Next-gen authorization model, aware of context
* Combines and evalutes multiple parameters to determine access
* Ex. IP address, time of day, desired action, etc.
133
Explain
PAM
* Privileged Access Management
* Centralized management of administrative / superuser accounts
* When an admin needs to perform administrative task or gain access, they make a request from the vault, and the privileged access they need is granted only temporarily. "Checked out."
* Enables automation
* manages access for each user
* extensive tracking and auditing
134
Explain
CRL
* Certificate Revocation List
* Maintained by the CA
* Contains many revocations in a large file which changes all the time.
135
Explain
OCSP
* Online Certificate Status Protocol
* Allows a web browser to check revocation status of a single certificate
* Requests are usually sent to an OCSP responder, managed by the CA, via HTTP
* More efficient than downloading an entire CRL just to check one certificate
* Most modern browsers support OSCP, but some older browsers and apps do not.
136
# Define:
DV
* Domain Validation Certificate
* SSL Certificate that shows the owner of the certificate is control over the DNS domain
* This is the most common certificate used by websites
137
Define
EV
* Extended Validation Certificate
* Like a DV, but additional checks have verified the certificate owner's identity
* Browsers will show a name in the address bar next to the padlock icon that indicates the SSL connection
* Not common anymore, since SSL has become standard, there's not much point in promoting your use of it.
138
Explain
X.509
• The standard structure for digital certificates
139
Explain
DER
* Distinguished Encoding Rules
* A type of binary encoding format
* Common and used across many platforms
* perfect for an X.509 certificate
140
Explain
PEM
* Stands for "Privacy-Enhanced Mail"
* An encoded X.509 certificate in ASCII format
* Makes it easier to read and e-mail, rather than the binary form of DER
* The most common format provided by CAs
141
Define
PKCS #12
* Public Key Cryptography Standards #12
* A container format for many certificates
* Store multiple X.509 certs in a single .p12 or .pfx file
* Often used to transfer a private and public key pair
* The container can be password protected
142
Define
CER
* An X.509 file extension used primarily by Windows
* Can be encoded either as binary DER or as ASCII PEM format
* Usually only contains a public key; private keys would be transferred in the .pfx file format
143
Define
PKCS #7
* Public Key Cryptography Standards #7
* Contains certificates and chain certificates; but does not include private keys
* .p7b file extension
* ASCII format
* Wide support across multiple OSs and platforms
144
Explain
OCSP Stapling
* Instead of the CA needing to respond to all OCSP requests, the certificate holder can verify their own status
* Status information is stored on the certificate holder's server
* OCSP status is "stapled" into the SSL/TLS handshake, digitally signed by the CA
145
Explain
Pinning
* To ensure that you're really communicating to the legitimate server, you can "pin" the expected certificate or public key to an application.
* You then compare that pined certificate to what you see when actually communicating with the server.
* The cert must be compiled into the app, or added at first run.
* If the expected cert doesn't match the certificate the server presents, the application can either shut down, or show a message, or etc.
146
List 5 types of PKI trust relationships.
* Single CA
* Hierachical (Single root CA with intermediate and leaf CAs)
* Mesh (CAs that all certify each other; does not scale well)
* Web-of-trust (alternative to traditional PKI)
* Mutual Authentication (Server and client both authenticate to each other)
147
Explain
Key Escrow
* When your private keys (decryption keys) are kept and controlled by a 3rd-party
* Ex., A business might store employee information in encrypted form, and only be able to access that private info if it is validated by the 3rd party
* Requires trust of the 3rd party and very specific and clear process and procedures for validating
148
What does this stand for?
FDE
• Full Disk Encryption
149
What does this stand for?
HIDS
• Host-based Intrusion Detection System
Security 601 V2
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