3B2 Flashcards by Jared jericho

In an impulse steam turbine nozzle, the following events take place:
1) the steam pressure decreases
2) the enthalpy of the steam decreases
3) the velocity of the steam increases
4) the volume of the steam increases

A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3

C) 1,2,3,4

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Turbine nozzles convert heat energy into:

A) potential energy
B) enthalpy
C) eddy-currents
D) kinetic energy
E) pressure

D) kinetic energy

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The purpose of the bucket or moving blade on the rotor is to convert the _____ energy of the steam into ____ energy.

A) heat, potential
B) kinetic, useful
C) kinetic, mechanical
D) heat, kinetic
E) mechanical, kinetic

C) kinetic, mechanical

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In an impulse turbine as the steam passes through the moving blades the _____ drops but the _____ remains the same.

A) velocity, pressure
B) enthalpy, velocity
C) pressure, velocity
D) volume, velocity
E) volume, kinetic energy

A) velocity, pressure

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The pressure at the outlet from the moving blades is the same as the pressure at the inlet to the moving blades in the____turbine.

A) topping
B) reaction
C) back-pressure
D) impulse
E) extraction

D) impulse

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Steam turbine stationary nozzles serve to:
1) decrease steam pressure
2) increase steam enthalpy
3) decrease steam friction
4) increase steam velocity

A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,4
D) 2,3
E) 2,3,4

C) 1,4

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On an extraction turbine the extraction pressure is:

A) not critical
B) varied according to turbine load
C) maintained constant regardless of turbine load
D) proportional to the turbine load 
E) reduced if load increases

C) maintained constant regardless of turbine load

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A back-pressure turbine which exhaust steam to an old Boiler header still supplying steam to an old lower pressure turbine is called:

A) condensing-bleeder turbine
B) cross compound turbine
C) condensing turbine 
D) topping turbine
E) mixed pressureturbine

D) topping turbine

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A topping turbine is a special application of a _____ turbine.

A) condensing
B) extraction
C) condensing-bleeder
D) tandem compound
E) back-pressure

E) back-pressure

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______ turbines are large turbines consisting of two or more turbines in series coupled together as one shaft and applied to one generator.

A) topping
B) tandem-compound
C) condensing-bleeder
D) cross-compound
E) mixed pressure

B) tandem-compound

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A generator coupled on one shaft to a turbine consisting of two or more turbines in series is called?

A) condensing-bleeder
B) cross-compound turbine
C) mixed pressure
D) tandem-compound turbine
E) topping

D) tandem-compound turbine

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______ turbines are large turbines with parallel shafts with a generator on each shaft.

A) condensing
B) tandem-compound
C) extraction-bleeder
D) condensing-bleeder
E) cross-compound

E) cross-compound

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In a reaction turbine the steam pressure drops across both the fixed and moving blades while the steam’s ______ velocity rises in the fixed blades and drops in the moving blades.

A) secondary
B) primary
C) stationary
D) moving
E) absolute

E) absolute

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The distinguishing feature of a reaction turbine is the fact that the pressure drop across the ______ blades.

A) cutting
B) moving
C) sectional
D) stationary
E) angular

B) moving

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In a steam turbine having pressure drop across the moving blades, an unbalanced ____ thrust will be developed upon the rotor.

A) axial
B) centrifugal
C) radial
D) impulse
E) rotational

A) axial

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Reaction turbine blades (moving):
1) convert the kinetic energy of the steam into mechanical energy
2) convert heat energy into kinetic energy
3) are nozzle shaped
4) increase the absolute velocity

A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,3,5
D) 1,2,4
E) 1,4

A) 1,2,3

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A reaction turbine results in a long machine due to a large number of alternate rows of:

A) nozzles and moving blades
B) nozzles and stationary blades
C) fixed and moving blades
D) stationary blades
E) moving blades and nozzles

C) fixed and moving blades

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A turbine that expands the steam in two or more sets of nozzles in series, each set having velocity-compounded blades to receive the steam issuing from the nozzles is called:

A) extraction turbine
B) velocity compounded turbine
C) pressure compounded turbine 
D) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
E) mixed-pressure turbine

D) pressure-velocity compounded turbine

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In pressure compound steam turbine:
1) the expansion of steam from Boiler pressure to exhaust pressure is carried out in a number of steps or stages
2) each stage has a set of nozzles and a row of blades
3) all of the velocity available is developed in one set of nozzles
4) the rows of moving blades are separated from each other by partitions or diaphragms into which the nozzles are set

A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,3,4
D) 1,2,4
E) 1,2,3,4

D) 1,2,4

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In a steam turbine using velocity compounding ________ expands the steam from initial to exhaust pressure.

A) two sets of nozzles and moving blades
B) stationary blades
C) stationary and moving blades
D) moving blades
E) one of the nozzles

E) one of the nozzles

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In a condensing-bleeder turbine up to 20% of the total steam flow may be bled off. What is the bleed-steam used for?

A) building heating
B) relieving pressure
C) atomization of the fuel
D) to be reheated in Boiler
E) feed-water heating

E) feed-water heating

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A condensing-bleeder turbine can bleed up to ____ of the total steam flow.

A) 0.1
B) 0.15
C) 0.2
D) 0.25
E) 0.3

C) 0.2

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The primary purpose of a back-pressure turbine is electrical generation.

A) true
B) false

B) false

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In a back-pressure turbine the process steam pressure is:

A) kept constant and the generator output depends on the demand for process steam
B) varied and the generator output remains constant
C) kept constant and the generator output remains constant
D) not important
E) dependant on the generator output

A) kept constant and the generator output depends on the demand for process steam

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223. Extraction turbines are turbines where steam is extracted at one or more points at constant _____ ``` A) flow B) pressure C) load D) temperature E) efficiency ```

B) pressure

224. Labyrinth seals are: 1) made of cast iron 2) a positive leak proof seal arrangement 3) design to have large clearances between the shaft and casing 4) made of brass or stainless steel 5) use on larger diameter turbine shaft ``` A) 1,2,5 B) 2,4,5 C) 3,4,5 D) 4,5 E) 1,2,3 ```

D) 4,5

225. A steam turbine water seal is used ____ to insure that no air leaks in along the shaft. ``` A) on start up B) at speed below 2000 rpm C) on shut down D) only on condensing turbine E) at speed above 2000 rpm ```

E) at speed above 2000 rpm

226. On larger turbines, the _____ is split in a horizontal direction. ``` A) shaft B) governor C) cylinder D) rotor E) drum ```

C) cylinder

227. It is general practice to let the thickness of the walls and flanges ____ from inlet to exhaust end of a steam turbine casing. ``` A) decrease B) fluctuate C) be the same D) vary E) increase ```

A) decrease

228. Materials at the given maximum temperature and under constant pressure continue to deform with very slowly increasing strain of the material; this phenomenon is called ____. ``` A) creep B) elongation C) deformation D) jerking E) movement ```

A) creep

229. Steam turbine casing joints are made steam tight by matching _____ exactly. ``` A) thin high temperature gasket B) bowel pins C) alignment notches D) flange faces E) rubber gasket ```

D) flange faces

230. A steam turbine assembled casing is machined off inside a boring mill to: 1) make grooves for shaft seals 2) make grooves for diaphragms 3) machine surfaces for bearings 4) machine flange surfaces flat ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

231. A hollow drum rotor, for good balance, is machined both outside and inside thus the drum must be open at one end. How is the drum end cover with shaft installed in the rotor? ``` A) press fitted B) welded on C) bolted D) press fit and belted E) shrink fit and welded ```

E) shrink fit and welded

232. When disc rotors are assembled, the discs are heated until they are easily slid along the shaft and then located in the correct position on the shaft and shaft key. A small clearance between the discs prevents _____. ``` A) noises B) slippage C) thermal stress in the shaft D) acceleration E). Vibrations ```

C) thermal stress in the shaft

233. Rotors for high outputs and high temperatures are generally made of ____ steels. ``` A) chromium B) chromium-nickel C) nickel-molybdenum D) chromium-nickel-molybdenum E) copper-nickel-bronze ```

D) chromium-nickel-molybdenum

234. The axial thrust in impulse turbines is nearly eliminated by use of a balance or dummy piston. A) true B) false

B) false

235. A balance piston on a steam turbine is used to: A) counteract vibration and therefore ensure a smooth running unit B) increase turbine output C) measure axial position D) counteract end thrust E) provide an area to install a labyrinth seal

D) counteract end thrust

236. A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with rings to ensure a tight seal. A) true B) false

B) false

237. A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with _____ to ensure a tight seal. ``` A) carbon rings seal B) blades seal C) water seal D) diaphragm E) labyrinth seal ```

E) labyrinth seal

238. Reaction steam turbines often uses _____ seals as part of the shroud with the seal clearances kept as small as possible. ``` A) radial B) water C) radial and axial D) carbon E) axial ```

C) radial and axial

239. The purpose of a thrust bearing on large reaction steam turbines is to: 1) give confidence to the operator 2) to keep the rotor in an exact position in the casing 3) prevent any steam from escaping 4) to absorb any axial thrust on the rotor 5) support the dummy piston ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,4,5 C) 2,4 D) 3,5 E) 1,4 ```

C) 2,4

240. If left at a standstill, while the turbine is still hot, the lower half of the rotor will cool off faster than the upper half and the rotor will _____ or "hog" ``` A) turn on its own B) bend upwards C) twist D) bend downwards E) stall ```

B) bend upwards

241. A barring gear consists of an electric motor and several sets of reducing gears to turn the turbine shaft at a low speed. It is used: 1) after stopping a hot turbine to prevent "hogging" 2) only on small turbines 3) continually when the turbine is not operating 4) prior to start up for approximately 3 hours ``` A) 1,2,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,4 D) 2,3 E) 2,4 ```

C) 1,4

242. A jacking oil pump is used to: 1) make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain alignment 2) supply oil to a hydraulic motor for the turning gear 3) supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so lubrication is assured 4) supply a high volume of oil at high pressure ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) none of the above ```

E) none of the above

In a nuclear power station a ____ supplies heat through a ____ to the working fluid in place of a steam plant Boiler. 1) reactor 2) heat exchanger 3) burner 4) pump ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 3,2 D) 1,4 E) 2,4 ```

A) 1,2

244. In a nuclear power plant circulating coolant picks up heat in the reactor and rejects it to the _____ in the steam cycle by means of a heat exchanger. ``` A) hotwell B) condenser C) working fluid D) turbine E) feed pump ```

C) working fluid

245. With _____ a series of nozzle valves opens in sequence as the load increases. This type of governing is most efficient and is used for impulse turbines. ``` A) throttle governing B) nozzle governing C) speed governing D) bypass governing E) overload governing ```

B) nozzle governing

246. Throttle governing uses a single large control valve so when the steam is throttled the ____, thus increasing turbine efficiency. ``` A) superheat will increase B) superheat will decrease C) pressure will increase D) pressure will stay the same E) temperature will decrease ```

A) superheat will increase

247. Overload governing is used on ____ turbines. ``` A) small B) impulse C) low pressure D) reaction E) impulse and reaction ```

E) impulse and reaction

248. ______ is the percent change in speed required for load change equal to the rated. ``` A) speed governor B) governor speed drop C) governor speed increase D) throttle governing E) integral band ```

B) governor speed drop

249. The two types of governors used on steam turbines are: 1) flow sensitive governor 2) pressure sensitive governor 3) temperature sensitive governor 4) speed sensitive governor ``` A) 2,4 B) 1,3 C) 1,2 D) 3,4 E) 2,3 ```

A) 2,4

250. Back pressure and extraction turbines use ______ in connection with ______. 1) pressure sensitive governor 2) throttle governing 3) speed sensitive governor 4) bypass governing A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 3,4 D) 4,1

B) 1,3

251. The overspeed trip on a turbine is usually set to trip the mechanism when it reaches ____ of operating speed. ``` A) 1 B) 1.05 C) 1.1 D) 1.15 E) 1.2 ```

C) 1.1

252. In an/a ______, the spring loaded bolt has a centre of gravity slightly off the centre of the shaft. ``` A) electric turning gear B) nozzle C) barring gear D) shear pin coupling E) overspeed trip ```

E) overspeed trip

253. In an overspeed trip the spring loaded tripping bolt has a centre of gravity: ``` A) concentric with the shaft B) towards the nut end of the bolt C) towards the condenser end of the shaft D) towards the head end of the bolt E) towards the centre of the bolt ```

D) towards the head end of the bolt

254. When a hydraulic overspeed trip operates: 1) high pressure oil forces the main steam valve shut 2) high pressure oil supply is shut off 3) the stop valve oil cylinder drain is closed 4) the stop valve oil cylinder drain is opened 5) a spring closes the main steam valve 6) the pilot drain is closed ``` A) 1,3,6 B) 2,4,5 C) 3,4,6 D) 2,4,6 E) 3,4,5 ```

B) 2,4,5

255. When starting up a turbine it is not necessary to open trap bypasses as the traps will remove condensate as it is produced. A) true B) false

B) false

256. Sealing steam to the turbine glands is admitted ______ is put in operation. ``` A) before the extraction pump B) before the condenser circulating water pump C) after the air ejector D) after the extraction pump E) after the throttle valve is open ```

D) after the extraction pump

257. The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation _______ the ________. 1) before 2) after 3) air ejector 4) jack oil pump 5) condenser circulating water pump ``` A) 1,3 B) 2,3 C) 1,4 D) 1,5 E) 2,5 ```

A) 1,3

258. The jacking oil pump supplies oil at pressures of _______ to _____ kPa. ``` A) 6000-8000 B) 7000-9000 C) 8000-10000 D) 9000-11000 E) 10000-12000 ```

C) 8000-10000

259. The jacking oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the: ``` A) side of the bearing B) top of the bearing C) centre of the shaft D) bottom of the bearings E) thrust bearing ```

D) bottom of the bearings

260. Heat transfer takes place from a _____. A) hotter to a cooler body except in refrigeration B) hotter to cooler body if the pressure on hot body is higher C) cooler to a hotter body D) cooler to a hotter body E) hotter to a cooler body

E) hotter to a cooler body

261. The rate of heat transfer will depend on: 1) temperature difference 2) thermal resistance to heat flow at the material separating the two fluids 3) area of transmitting surface ``` A) 1 B) 1,2 C) 1,2,3 D) 2,3 E) 3,1 ```

C) 1,2,3

262. In a steam turbine condenser the temperature difference from exhaust steam to cooling water will: ``` A) remain the same under all loads B) increase with a load decrease C) increase with a load increase for most loads D) remain the same under most loads E) decrease with a load increase ```

C) increase with a load increase for most loads

263. Power plant thermal efficiencies could be easily doubled by removing the ______ and using exhaust steam for heating. ``` A) hot well B) condenser C) feed pump D) circulating pump E) deaerator ```

B) condenser

264. If the cooling water for a condenser, taken from a cooling tower is high in dissolved oxygen, the ability of the condenser to act as a deaerator is ______. A) directly proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen B) not impeded C) inversely proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen D) impeded E) reduced

B) not impeded

265. The ____ cooling water is in direct contact with the turbine exhaust steam. ``` A) down flow condenser B) central flow condenser C) radial flow condenser D) jet condenser E) air ejector ```

D) jet condenser

266. A _____ also acts as a deaerator even with the turbine at full load and the condenser at a reduced vacuum. ``` A) feed pump B) cooling tower C) air cooled condenser D) surface condenser E) jet condenser ```

D) surface condenser

267. In a ______ the feed pump draws from the hot well only the quantity of feed water required by the Boiler, the remainder overflows into the cooling pond where it is cooled and reused as cooling water. ``` A) surface condenser B) counterflow condenser C) counterflow condenser D) radial flow condenser E) jet condenser ```

D) radial flow condenser

268. The purpose of a surface condenser is to: 1) maintain a vacuum at the turbine exhaust 2) conserve pure Boiler feedwater 3) act as a deaerator 4) cool the condensate below saturation temperature ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

269. A surface condenser may be ____. 1) oval 2) triangular 3) cylindrical 4) rectangular 5) hexagon ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,5 E) 1,3,4 ```

E) 1,3,4

270. Condenser tube plates can be installed with _____. 1) ferrules 2) metallic or fibre packing 3) roll expanding 4) combination of roll expanding and ferrule 5) all of the above ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,5 E) 1,3,4 ```

E) 1,3,4

271. In a surface condenser, when the tube plates are practically the same material such as admiralty brass tubes in admiralty brass plates, the tubes can be _____ into the tube plates. ``` A) ferruled B) welded C) roll expanded D) packed with metallic or fibre packing E) roll expanded at inlet and ferruled at outlet ```

B) welded

272. Allowances must be made for differential expansion of the tubes and shell. Packed tube ends may allow the tube to move ___. ``` A) through an expansion joint B) through an expansion loop C) very little D) axially in the packing E) radially in the packing ```

D) axially in the packing

273. The classic material for water boxes has always been: ``` A) admiralty brass B) cast iron C) muntz metal D) low carbon steel E) steel alloy ```

B) cast iron

274. Air in a surface condenser: 1) increases the pressure 2) retards heat transfer 3) enters with the high pressure ejector steam 4) is cooled before being removed ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 2,3 ```

D) 1,2,4

275. In a two stage air ejector for a surface condenser the pressure of the first stage ejector cooler is ____ atmospheric but above ____ pressure. 1) above 2) ejector 3) condenser 4) below 5) steam ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 4,2 D) 4,3 E) 1,5 ```

B) 1,3

276. The cooling water for the air ejectors on a surface condenser is _____. ``` A) row water B) treated water C) condensate D) river water E) distilled water ```

C) condensate

277. The methods to detect cooling water leaks in a surface condenser while it is operation are: 1) pH test 2) electrical conductivity test 3) plastic wrapping test 4) silver nitrate test 5) fluorescent dye test ``` A) 2,4 B) 1,2,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3 E) 3,4 ```

A) 2,4

278. Under normal operating conditions a surface condenser, the atmospheric relief valve is held closed by ______. ``` A) a spring B) vacuum C) atmospheric pressure D) water pressure E) pressure difference between the atmosphere outside the vacuum in the shell ```

D) water pressure

279. The _____ function is to continually extract the condensate from the condenser Howell and pump it through the air ejector coolers. ``` A) extraction pump B) circulating pump C) vacuum pump D) feedwater pump E) cooling water pump ```

A) extraction pump

280. The condenser extraction pump suction operates at pressures _____. ``` A) slightly above atmospheric B) just st below atmospheric C) near absolute zero D) equal to 2 atmosphere E) determined by the level of condensate in the condenser ```

C) near absolute zero

281. In order to prevent air from entering the condenser when the condenser condensate extraction pump is in standby position, the pump is equipped with: ``` A) shaft sleeves B) labyrinth seals C) mechanical seals D) carbon rings E) water sealed glands ```

E) water sealed glands

282. Feedwater heaters use _____ of bleed steam to heat feedwater. ``` A) sensible heat B) latent heat C) super heat D) sensible and latent heat E) sensible and super heat ```

B) latent heat

283 low pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the waterside to the discharge pressure of the ____ pump. ``` A) circulating B) extraction C) cooling water D) Boiler feedwater E) air ejector ```

B) extraction

284. High pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the waterside to the discharge pressure of the _____ pump. ``` A) extraction B) cooling water C) Boiler feedwater D) circulating E) air ejector ```

C) Boiler feedwater

285. Low pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a _____ design. ``` A) straight tube B) U tube C) C tube D) bent tube E) low tube ```

A) straight tube

286. High pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a _____ design for thermal expansion and contraction. ``` A) C tube B) straight tube C) low tube D) U tube E) bent tube ```

D) U tube

287 the gas turbine system is: A) ideal for large generator systems B) ideal to be used over a steam turbine C) ideal to be used for unmanned and remote locations D) ideal for applications of a process plant E) ideal for large gas plant

C) ideal to be used for unmanned and remote locations

288. Gas turbines are used in industry as prime movers for: 1) portable generators 2) fire pumps 3) air compressors 4) emergency equipment ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 2,3,4 ```

D) 1,2,3,4

289. Gas turbine units are used: 1) for electrical generation 2) where energy is produced for process plants 3) where waste gases from the process may be used to drive the gas turbine 4) where high thermal efficiency is required ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

290. Gas turbines are used in large power plants to provide almost instant emergency power for: ``` A) peak load shaving B) high heating load C) water pumps D) exit lighting E) essential services ```

E) essential services

291. Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better choice over other prime movers are: 1) low maintenance 2) minimum cooling water required 3) high thermal efficiency 4) rapid start up and loading ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

292. Gas turbines are far superior to other types of engines in their: ``` A) fuel consumption B) efficiency C) lubricating oil consumption D) power per mass ratio E) fuel usage ```

D) power per mass ratio

293. A closed cycle gas turbine system: A) does not use a starting motor B) has lower pressure used in system C) will use the same working fluid over again D) must use a cooler before the regeneration E) has a lower initial cost than that of the open cycle gas turbine

C) will use the same working fluid over again

294. The compressor on a gas turbine: ``` A) can be driven by the load turbine B) is always of the axial type C) is always a multi stage compressor D) can be of the reciprocating type E) is always of the centrifuge type ```

A) can be driven by the load turbine

295. In a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement: A) the load turbine is downstream from the compressor turbine B) the load turbine drives the prop on a turbo prop engine C) is always used in an open cycle D) system flexibility is reduced E) a larger starting motor is required

A) the load turbine is downstream from the compressor turbine

296. The advantages of a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement are: 1) greater flexibility 2) it is cheaper 3) smaller starting motor may be used 4) high pressures and temperatures may be obtained ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 1,4 ```

B) 1,3

297. In a gas turbine cycle using an intercooler the following advantages are obtained: 1) the specific volume of the air is reduced 2) the cooler air recovers more heat from the regenerator 3) the temperature of the second stage compressor will be increased thus increasing thermal efficiency 4) more of the turbine power can be available for the output load ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

298. The advantages of using a reheated in a gas turbine cycle are: 1) more air can be compressed 2) a small combustor may be used 3) less air will have to be compressed in order to do the same amount of work 4) the thermal efficiency of the cycle will be improved ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,4 C) 2,3 D) 2,3 E) 3,4 ```

E) 3,4

299. The purpose of a regenerator in a gas turbine is: A) to clean the exhaust gases B) to improve the efficiency of the turbine C) to decrease the temperature in the combustion chamber D) to raise the air temperature before compression E) to decrease the air temperature after compression

B) to improve the efficiency of the turbine

300. The regenerator in a gas turbine cycle is located: A) between the power and the load turbine B) between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet C) between the compressor and combustor D) between the combustor and the turbine E) between the power turbine and generator

C) between the compressor and combustor

301. The regenerator of a gas turbine cycle is a: A) second combustor B) heat exchanger C) vessel used to transfer heat from the exhaust gas to the working fluid before compression occurs D) increase the pressure of the working fluid in the system E) increase the temperature of the combustor's outlet

B) heat exchanger

302. A gas turbine air compressor with an intercooler: A) has the intercooler located after the compressor B) increases the volume of air being supplied C) allows more output at the turbine D) used only with axial type compressors E) are not as efficient

C) allows more output at the turbine

303. The combustion chamber of a gas turbine: A) increases the pressure of the compressed air B) burns fuel with excess air C) is located between the load turbine and the compressor turbine D) is always of the multiple burner type E) utilizes 70% of the air supplied by the compressor for actual combustion process

B) burns fuel with excess air

304. A gas turbine combustion chamber requires: A) a cooling water jacket on the inner canister B) a vacuum breaker C) a safety pressure relief device D) a high voltage ignition plug for initial ignition E) an annual hydrostatic test

D) a high voltage ignition plug for initial ignition

305. The capacity of a gas turbine will increase in cold weather because: A) high grades of fuel oil burn better at cooler temperatures B) the density of the air is increased C) the volume of the air will increase D) the temperature drop throughout the cycle will be less E) the atmospheric pressure will increase

B) the density of the air is increased

306. Which of the following are advantages of a gas turbine: 1) simple design 2) low cost 3) minimal manpower 4) maximum outage time 5) rapid starting ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,3,4,5 D) 1,2,3,5 E) 1,2,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,3,5

307. Which of the following are disadvantages of a gas turbine? 1) complicated design 2) high manufacturing costs 3) slow response to load change 4) low efficiency 5) suitable for low power applications ``` A) 1,3,5 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,4,5 E) 1,2,3 ```

E) 1,2,3

308. The term peaking gas turbine refers to: A) gas turbines that produce max power B) gas turbines used with peak horsepower C) gas turbines used during major outages D) gas turbines used everyday E) gas turbines used in heavy load situations

E) gas turbines used in heavy load situations

309. Industrial gas turbines compared to aero derivative turbines are: ``` A) light weight B) rapid load changers C) less efficient D) use all different fuels E) fast starting ```

C) less efficient

310. In simple gas turbines the air is compressed to the following maximum pressures: ``` A) 2000 kPa B) 2500 kPa C) 3000 kPa D) 3500 kPa E) 4000 kPa ```

C) 3000 kPa

311. Gas turbine final combustion temperatures in a simple gas turbine are: ``` A) 1500 C B) 1700 C C) 1800 C D) 2000 C E) 2200 C ```

D) 2000 C

312. Gas temperatures at the simple gas turbine inlet section are at maximum: ``` A) 580 C B) 770 C C) 875 C D) 920 C E) 1050 C ```

D) 920 C

313. Gas temperatures at the exhaust of a simple gas turbine are at maximum: ``` A) 500 C B) 540 C C) 760 C D) 680 C E) 640 C ```

E) 640 C

314. Aero derivative engines are aircraft jet engines that: A) are converted from a turboprop engine B) are heavier in construction than a jet engine C) are closer in design to industrial gas turbines D) are more rapid in their startup than jet engines E) use less power turbine blades

A) are converted from a turboprop engine

315. In dual shaft gas turbines the load is driven by: A) the high pressure turbine B) the starting motor and low pressure turbine C) the low pressure turbine D) the exhaust gases from the combustion chamber E) the output shaft from the compressor

C) the low pressure turbine

316. The term open cycle means: A) the compressor inlet is open to atmosphere B) the compressor outlet is open to the combustion chambers C) the turbine exhaust is open to atmosphere D) the working fluid is drawn from and returned to the atmosphere E) every cycle the inlet and outlet are open

D) the working fluid is drawn from and returned to the atmosphere

317. What part of the gas turbine is normally smaller in dual shaft gas turbines? ``` A) the load B) the combustion chambers C) the starting motor D) the compressor E) the turbine blades ```

C) the starting motor

318. Closed cycle means: A) compressor outlet is closed and the inlet is open B) combustion chamber is heated internally C) combustion chamber is heated externally D) the regenerator is not open on either side E) the exhaust gases are not open to atmosphere

E) the exhaust gases are not open to atmosphere

319. An advantage of closed cycle is: ``` A) cooling water lowers cost B) fuel is cheaper C) working fluid supports combustion D) pressures are lower so stress is lower onall the equipment E) complexity is less ```

A) cooling water lowers costs

320. Exhaust systems are required on gas turbines to: 1) allow the installation of silencers 2) allow the installation of heat recovery equipment 3) direct the flow to heat recovery systems 4) minimize power losses 5) protect operators ``` A) 1,3,5 B) 1,2,3 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,4,5 E) 1,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,3

321. Gas turbines enclosures are used to: 1) protect equipment from the elements 2) allows the incorporation of heat and gas detectors 3) contains the gas turbine DCS controls 4) keep the turbine from cooling down, more efficient 5) provides ventilation systems ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 2,3,5 E) 3,5,1 ```

B) 1,2,5

322. Auxiliary systems on gas turbines are needed to: 1) provide fuel at the proper temperature and pressures 2) clean and treat fuels 3) provide hydraulic fluid for bearing lubrication 4) inject steam to clean the ducts and housing 5) provide anti icing ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,5 E) 2,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,5

323. Regarding gears on gas turbines are used: ``` A) to control speeds B) to drive slower lube oil pumps C) to drive slower hydraulic pumps D) to match turbine and generator speeds E) to increase horsepower ```

D) to match turbine and generator speeds

324. Advantages of gas turbines intakes are: 1) remove contaminants 2) prevent damage from foreign objects 3) allow addition of special cooling systems 4) smooth air flow into the compressor 5) decrease the velocity of the incoming air ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 3,4,5,1 D) 4,5,1,2 E) 5,1,2,3 ```

A) 1,2,3,4

325. Gas turbines are rated by: A) output shaft power output vs. fuel energy rate B) power produced at the output shaft C) horsepower D) ratio of rated power to the fuel energy rate E) ratio of rated power to the LHV of the fuel

B) power produced at the output shaft

326. Improving gas turbine efficiency is done by: 1) regeneration 2) precooling 3) aftercooling 4) intercooling 5) reheating ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 4,5,1 E) 1,2,5 ```

D) 4,5,1

327. Regenerators are installed: A) between the Lp and the Hp compressor sections B) between the Lp and Hp turbine sections C) between the outlet and the Lp turbine sections D) between the Hp compressor and the combustor sections E) between the combustors and the Hp turbine sections

C) between the outlet and the Lp turbine sections

The beneficial effect of intercoolers decreases with: ``` A) combining with regeneration B) pressure ratio increase C) colder cooling water D) smaller sized turbines E) higher air throughput ```

B) pressure ratio increase

Reheat is accomplished by: A) expanding and heating the gases in two stages B) heating the gases after the Lp compressor section C) heating the gases between the Hp and Lp turbine D) heating the air between the Lp and Hp compressor stages E) heating the air between the Hp compressor and the Hp turbine sections

C) heating the gases between the Hp and Lp turbine

330. How much of the energy provided by the fuel, is absorbed by the compressor: ``` A) up to 2/3 B) up to 1/3 C) up to 1/2 D) up th 3/4 E) up to 1/4 ```

A) up to 2/3

331: the purpose of a compressor diffuser is to: A) convert the compressed air exiting the casing B) convert the compressed air exiting the impeller C) convert the high pressure air into velocity for the casing D) convert the high velocity air to pressure energy E) convert high velocity air to high pressure

D) convert the high velocity air to pressure energy

332. The advantages of centrifugal over axial compressors are: 1) high capacity 2) short length 3) high flow rates 4) strength 5) adjustable flow ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 4,5 E) 2,4 ```

E) 2,4

333. In axial flow compressors, compression occurs by: A) adjusting the stationary blades B) adjusting the rotating blades C) adjusting both stationary and rotating blades D) the use of nozzle blocks between stages E) adjusting only the moving blades

C) adjusting both the stationary and rotating blades

334. In the combustors, how much air is utilized for fuel combustion? ``` A) 0.1 B) 0.2 C) 0.3 D) 0.4 E) 0.5 ```

B) 0.2

335. In the combustors, how much air bypasses the combustion chamber: ``` A) 0.9 B) 0.8 C) 0.7 D) 0.6 E) 0.5 ```

B) 0.8

336. The air bypassing the combustors is used for: A) increasing the mass of gas products flowing B) ensuring enough air for complete combustion C) raising the product temperatures flowing into the turbine blades D) raising the combustion efficiency E) cooling the turbine blades

E) cooling the turbine blades

337. The combustion chamber exit gas temperatures will reach a maximum of: ``` A) 1550 C B) 1570 C C) 1650 C D) 1670 C E) 1750 C ```

D) 1670 C

338. The turbine exit gas temperatures will be a maximum of: ``` A) 600 C B) 700 C C) 750 C D) 800 C E) 850 C ```

B) 700 C

339. Large volume combustors are used when: ``` A) simplicity is required B) frontal area is no concern C) a regenerator is being used D) less complicated design is called for E) air flow path is less convoluted ```

C) a regenerator is being used

340. The advantage of the Can-Annular design is: A) uniform outlet temperatures B) multiple igniters ensure combustion C) fuel lines distribute fuel more rapidly D) is a more efficient use of space E) if one can quits the others will keep working

A) uniform outlet temperatures

341. In a single can combustor the interconnected tubes: A) decreases the number of igniters used B) decreases the number injectors required C) decreases the complexity of the turbine D) decreases the pressures differences in each tube E) decreases the number of flame tubes required

D) decreases the pressures differences in each tube

342. Power is extracted in a gas turbine by: A) expanding the gases through the turbine blades B) attaching a generator to the turbine C) changing pressure to velocity to drive the turbine blades D) changing velocity to pressure to drive the turbine blades E) decreasing the hot gas temperature and pressure

E) decreasing the hot gas temperature and pressure

343. There are fewer turbine blades than compressor blades because: A) energy can be extracted more efficiency B) turbine blades are bigger so require fewer C) higher exhaust temperatures can be tolerated D) the hot gases occupy more volume E) hot exhaust gases are required for the HRSG's

A) energy can be extracted more efficiently

344. Gas turbine blades are cooled to: A) increase the power output to the HRSG B) increase metal temperatures out of the turbine C) increase the longevity of the blades D) increase flow rates through each section E) cool the temperature going into the next section

C. Increase the longevity of the blades

345. The greatest limitation on increased turbine output is: ``` A) turbine blade configurations B) heat resisting steels C) design limitations of the turbine shafts D) casing designs that allow flexing E) cost of expensive fuels ```

B) heat resisting steels

346. The maximum run time before blade replacement is: ``` A) 75,000 hours B) 100,000 hours C) 150,000 hours D) 125,000 hours E) 50,000 hours ```

B) 100,000 hours

347. Control of a gas turbine is accomplished by: ``` A) varying the loading station B) the power turbine all speed governor C) varying load on the generator D) varying the fuel flow E) controlling the shaft speed ```

D) varying the fuel flow

348. Automatic emergency trips shut off the main fuel valve in the event of: A) high exhaust temperatures B) differential pressures are too high across the filters C) inlet air temperatures exceed maximum D) compressor discharge pressures are too high E) compressor discharge temperatures are too high

A) high exhaust temperatures

349. Vibration accelerometers are used: A) if journal or tilt pad bearings are used B) to trip the turbine on rapid acceleration C) to control the ramp speed on startup D) on large industrial gas turbines E) for anti-friction bearings

E) for anti-friction bearings

350. Protective devices will shut down the turbine if: ``` A) lube oil pressure is too high B) governor oil pressure is too low C) compressor air flow is too high D) combustor gas temperature is too low E) exhaust gas temperature is too high ```

E) exhaust gas temperature is too high

351. Operators are allowed to control _____. ``` A) the air ratios to the combustors B) the turbine speeds C) the burner logic for combustors D) the turbine ramp rates for startup E) the shutdown sequencing ```

B) the turbine speeds

352. The performance of a gas turbine is calculated by ______. ``` A) the turbine efficiency B) heat rate vs. power output C) gas flow in vs. kWh out D) gas flow in vs. power output E) gas flow and pressure in vs. power output ```

B. Heat rate vs. power output

353. The number one factor limiting turbine efficiency increases is _____. ``` A) the blade metallurgy B) the low compressor discharge pressures C) the blade design configuration D) the compression ratio E) the reduction of pressure losses ```

D) the compression ratio

354. Turbine inlet air temperature ____. A) increases the work done by the turbine B) decreases the amount of fuel used for the same output C) decreases the mass of gas flow in the turbine D) improves overall combustion in the combustors E) increases the power output of he compressor section

C) decreases the mass of gas flow in the turbine

355. Maximum power achieved by a gas turbine is a function of _____. A) the number of turbine stops and starts every year B) the number of times base load power is exceeded C) the number of times peak load is obtained in a year D) the number of times operational limits are exceeded E) life expectancy of hot gas components

E) life expectancy of hot gas components

356. The operating output of a gas turbine is effected the most by: A) changing inlet air temperature B) changing the heat valve of the fuel C) changing the gas pressure to the combustors D) changing the combustion flame pattern E) changing from base loading to peak loading

A) changing inlet air temperature

357. Lube oil systems provide two basic functions A) filtration and anti friction B) lubricating sliding surfaces in the bearings and cool the bearings C) an adequate supply of oil to machinery and cooling machine parts D) filtration and lubricate sliding surfaces E) vibration dampening and cooling the bearings

B) lubricating sliding surfaces in the bearings and cool the bearings

358. All major oil systems consist of what basic components? 1) an oil reservoir to ensure an adequate supply of oil 2) filters to ensure the oil is clean 3) pumps to provide pressure 4) coolers to ensure oil temperatures are kept within operating limits 5) protective, monitoring and control devices ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,5 C) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 1,5 E) 5 ```

C) 1,2,3,4,5

359. Gas turbines use what two different types of bearings? 1) antifriction (roller and/or ball) bearings 2) radial (journal or tilt pad) bearings 3) axial (spherical) bearings 4) take up (frame) bearings 5) swing (levered) bearings ``` A) 1,4 B) 1,2 C) 1,3 D) 2,4 E) 4,5 ```

B) 1,2

360. Why is natural gas the best fuel for a gas turbine? A) it promotes the most efficient combustion and produces the lowest environmental emissions B) it is less expensive than other fuel sources C) it has the highest efficiency of combustion D) it has less contaminants as compared to other fuel sources E) it is a lower explosion risk than other fuels

A) it promotes the most efficient combustion and produces the lowest environmental emissions

361. Routine maintenance on a gas turbine should involve checking for fuel leaks on a _____ basis. ``` A) yearly B) monthly C) week.y D) daily E) hourly ```

D) daily

362. An essential auxiliary in a gas turbine installation is: ``` A) a generator B) a reheated C) a starting motor D) an air heater E) a water pump ```

C) a starting motor

363. Introducing warm air into the gas turbine intake as a result of an anti icing system will? A) reduce the capacity of the unit, because warm air is less dense than cold air B) form ice in the air intake C) cause major damage resulting in catastrophic destruction of the compressor section blading D) bleed air from the compressor E) increase hot turbine exhaust

A) reduce the capacity of the unit, because warm air is less dense than cold air

364. What is the final step in the sequence of starting a gas turbine? ``` A) preparation for startup B) loading C) warmup D) crank and light off E) start initiation ```

B) loading

365. What is the first step in the normal shut down of a gas turbine? A) reduce the speed to idle so the gas turbine can cool down B) open the breaker that connects the generator to the power system C) close the fuel valve D) stop the rotor E) stop the lube oil system

A) reduce the speed to idle so the gas turbine can cool down

366. In order to keep the gas pass of a gas turbine clean the following must be done: 1) inspect and clean the air intake filters 2) water washing of compressor blades 3) inspect and clean air intake ducts 4) good quality fuel must be used ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,3,4 ```

D) 1,2,3,4

367. Why do microturbines require only air bearings? 1) no governing oil system 2) small overall size 3) simplicity of components 4) everything on one shaft 5) no oil systems ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 2,5 D) 3,4 E) 4,5 ```

C) 2,5

368. Most aero derivative turbines lube oil systems require? ``` A) two back lube oil pumps B) separate inlet and outlet filter systems C) separate lube oil tanks and coolers D) separate lube oil systems E) separate back up pumps ```

D) separate lube oil systems

369. Thrust bearings on dual shaft gas turbines are positioned: A) at the front of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing B) at the front of both the compressor and the turbine section C) at the back of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing D) at the back of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing E) at the front and back of the turbine section

A) at the front of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing

370. Tilt pad bearings are used: 1) in aero derivative gas turbines 2) according to the manufacturer's specifications 3) on dual shaft industrial gas turbines 4) in large industrial gas turbines 5) with pivot pins ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 4,5 E) 5,1 ```

D) 4,5

371. Aero derivative lube oil systems use a scavenge pump to: A) recycle oil from the cleaning system B) collects oil from all users for recycling C) siphons off small amounts of oil for cleaning D) collects oil from the supply and return filters for cleaning E) returns the oil from the bearings to the supply

E) returns the oil from the bearings to the supply

372. Natural gas is the best fuel for gas turbines because: 1) no onsite storage 2) most efficient combustion 3) simplest control system 4) highest heat value 5) cleanest burning ``` A) 1,3 B) 2,4 C) 3,5 D) 2,5 E) 2,3 ```

D) 2,5

373. A fuel gas compressor must be used on gas turbines if? A) the complexity of gas system reduces the gas pressure too low B) the gas supply pressure is less than the compressor last stage pressure C) the total pressure drop across the combustors is too great D) multiple gas nozzles drops the burner gas pressure too low E) the combustor outlet pressure is greater than compressor outlet pressure

B) the gas supply pressure is less than the compressor last stage pressure

374. The most important component of a fuel metering system is? ``` A) fuel gas Hi/Lo pressure switches B) duplex filters/separators C) fuel metering valve D) primary and secondary shut off valves E) fuel gas scrubber ```

C) fuel metering valve

375. The use of a low heating value (LHV) fuel requires: ``` A) special nozzles and combustors B) higher pressure gas supply C) higher pressure gas compressors D) higher pressures from the compressor E) larger bore piping for high flow rates ```

A) special nozzles and combustors

376. Typical fuel gas metering valves are: ``` A) pneumatically adjusted B) a type of pneumatic gas metering control valve C) hydraulically actuated D) electro-pneumatically actuated E) becoming electrically actuated ```

E) becoming electrically actuated

377. Gas turbines use dual fuels for: 1) consists t power delivery 2) use as backup 3) increasing overall power output 4) switching to cheaper fuels 5) less complicated controls during operation ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 2,4 D) 3,4 E) 4,5 ```

C) 2,4

378. Fuel system daily maintenance checks consist of: 1) checking the treatment components 2) checking for fuel leaks 3) checking fuel pressures and temperatures 4) checking Delta P across the filters 5) checking the protective devices ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 2,4 E) 3,5 ```

B) 2,3

379. The most important requirements in a dual fuel system is: ``` A) two types of fuels B) ability to burn both fuels together C) a complex control system D) proper design of the combustors E) special fuel nozzles ```

E) special fuel nozzles

380. Fuel treatment systems consist of: A) centrifuges, filters, strainers, pumps and related instrumentation B) filters, dewatering and chemical treatment C) centrifuges, filters, dewatering and chemical treatment D) dewatering and chemical treatment E) mechanical and chemical treatment

C) centrifuges, filters, dewatering and chemical treatment

381. Chemicals harmful to the turbine section are: ``` A) calcium, magnesium and phosphate B) calcium, potassium and silica C) potassium, calcium and magnesium D) sodium, vanadium and silica E) sodium, potassium and vanadium ```

E) sodium, potassium and vanadium

382. Two ways to decrease NOx are: 1) lower the combustion temperature 2) use staged air in the combustors 3) utilize special burners 4) decrease the fuel to air ratio 5) operate with a lean fuel mixture ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 2,4 D) 4,5 E) 3,5 ```

D) 4,5

383. The main disadvantage to water or steam injection is: ``` A) reduced thermal efficiency B) corrosion of the rotating blades C) corrosion of the stationary blades D) corrosion of hot section components E) require ultra pure water or steam ```

A) reduced thermal efficiency

384. Dry low NOx combustion systems operate on: A) staged fuel burning B) lean premixed combustion C) bypass air cooling the flame temperature D) alternating the spray patterns of the scrubbers E) injection of dry scrubbing compounds

B) lean premixed combustion

385. Control of the dry low NOx burners is done by: A) adjustable flow nozzles B) rotating fuel nozzles C) using three gas headers to inject the fuel D) extensive solenoid gas staging system E) computer controlled fuel staging valves

D) extensive solenoid gas staging system

386. The practical limit for NOx with steam or water injection for natural gas is: ``` A) 5 ppm B) 10 ppm C) 15 ppm D) 20 ppm E) 25 ppm ```

E) 25 ppm

387. The practical lower limit for NOx for liquid fuels is: ``` A) 22 ppm B) 32 ppm C) 42 ppm D) 52 ppm E) 62 ppm ```

C) 42 ppm

388. Starter systems are disengaged when the turbine shaft reaches: ``` A) once the shafts starts speeding up B) once the turbine speed overruns the starting motor C) 30% speed D) 50% rated speed E) fuel is ignited ```

E) fuel is ignited

389. Which device is not used to start a gas turbine: ``` A) small gas engines B) small Diesel engines C) pneumatic starters D) electric motors E) steamturbine expanders ```

A) small gas engines

390. Remote gas pipeline stations use _____ for starting gas turbines ``` A) small gas engines B) small Diesel engines C) pipeline gas D) compressed air tigger motors E) electro-hydraulic motors ```

C) pipeline gas

391. Turning gears are used to: A) rotate the shaft every hour B) rotate the shaft 90 degrees every hour C) lower the stress on the starting motor D) prevent the shaft from locking E) prevents the shaft from developing flat spots

D) prevent the shaft from locking

392. Turning gears require: ``` A) extensive cooling systems B) warm up and cool down on usage C) a method to engage or disengage the shaft D) variable frequency drive motors E) hydraulic coupling ```

C) a method to engage or disengage the shaft

393. The first piece on an air intake system is: ``` A) mesh screen B) cooling coils C) heating coils D) guard filter E) drift eliminators ```

A) mesh screen

394. The air intake duct is mounted above the gas turbine enclosure to: ``` A) lower the inlet air flow resistance B) keep the intake duct as short as possible C) make the enclosure more compact D) provide support for the filters E) place it in cleaner air ```

E) place it in cleaner air

395. Inlet air temperatures to gas turbine are reduced by: ``` A) spray cooling B) fog cooling C) evaporative pads D) evaporative cooling E) refrigeration coils ```

D) evaporative cooling

396. Anti icing systems are used to prevent: ``` A) plugging of filters with ice B) damage to the duct work from icing C) blade damage D) too Lowen intake air temperature E) compressor surging ```

C) blade damage

397. Anti icing systems can cause: ``` A) wetting of the paper filter elements B) lowering of the unit pressure ratio C) higher temperatures on the back end of the turbine section D) less air flow throughput E) higher costs for little gain ```

D) less air throughput

398. The preparation for startup of a gas turbine usually assumes: ``` A) subsystem checkout first B) turning on the cooling water C) starting some auxiliary systems D) automatic operation at remote sites E) it is done by operator interaction ```

D) automatic operation at remote sites

399. When the gas turbine start button is pressed what will start first? ``` A) lubrication pump start B) hydraulic pump start C) ventilation fans start D) gas valves close E) permissive are checked ```

C) ventilation fans start

400. Purging starts when: ``` A) the compressor runs up B) air flow is established C) compressor reaches maximum D) air flow reaches peak E) starter motor disengages ```

B) air flow is established

401. Start up after a trip is done by: A) satisfying all of the 'permissives' B) the operator initiating a restart C) the computers re-initiating the startup D) resetting of the system E) selecting the manual restart on the screen

D) resetting of the system

402. The recycle valve is used to: A) load the compressor B) recycle hot compressor air for inlet warming C) allow the turbine to rapidly increase loading D) control the combustion in the combustion chambers E) recycle cooling air back to the combustion chamber

A) load the compressor

403. Loading is started when: ``` A) the generator is at minimum B) after the warmup C) the recycle valve is fully open D) pressures stabilize E) the bleed valves are fully open ```

B) after the warmup

404. A rapid decrease in gas turbine speeds can result in: A) overcooling of the unit B) high pressures in the compressor sections C) high pressures in the turbine sections D) failure of the recycle valve E) combustion being interrupted

E) combustion being interrupted

405. Prior to lighting off the turbines the operator must: ``` A) allow the speed to drop to idle B) allow the bleed valves to fully open C) check the guide vane position D) warm the turbine slowly E) open the fuel valves ```

D) warm the turbine slowly

406. The first step in a normal gas turbine shutdown is: ``` A) close the fuel valve B) cool down the turbine C) reduce speed to idle D) open the recycle valve E) take load off the generator ```

C) reduce speed to idle

407. Fast shutdowns should be avoided because______. A) of the rapid cooldown B) of increased wear on the unit C) most gas valves cannot react quick enough D) will cause other units to trip E) can cause flexing of the compressor blades

B) of increased wear on the unit

408. Turbine rotor speed on shutdown decreases once ______. ``` A) the cool down timer times out B) the shaft speed decreases below preset limit C) the turning gears takes over D) the fuel valve closes E) the main oil pump shuts down ```

D) the fuel valve closes

409. Once the turbine rotor stops on some models _______. ``` A) the barring gear starts B) the cool down timer times out C) the auxiliary oil pump starts D) the main oil pump shuts down E) the jacking oil pump starts ```

A) the barring gear starts

410. The fuel valve closing first on a shutdown is a sign of ______. ``` A) an operator error B) an emergency shutdown C) a failure of the post lube pump D) a failure of the cooldown timer E) a failure of the recycle valve ```

B) an emergency shutdown

411. The purpose of a gas turbine water wash is to _______. ``` A) clean the unit front to back B) clean the combustion blades C) clean the gas headers injectors and burners D) clean the combustion chambers E) clean the compressor blading ```

E) clean the compressor blading

412. The cleaning of a gas turbine is accomplished by _______. A) taking the unit offline and washing each section individually B) injecting cleaners into the gas or fuel system to clean the internals C) shutting down the rotor D) running a liquid or abrasive through the blades E) injecting cleaners while the unit is running under load

D) running a liquid or abrasive through the blades

413. A carbo blast cleaning consists of ____. A) using carbon black to clean the unit B) removing all the carbon by blasting it if with solvents C) removing all the dirt by scrubbing the blades with rice D) removing dirt and carbon with high pressure water E) removing carbon from the gas passages, blades, and nozzles

C) removing all the dirt by scrubbing the blades with rice

414. Water wash is accomplished by _____. A) using hard water to scrub the blades B) using scrub water mixed with sodium, potassium and vanadium C) injecting water and cleaning solvents into the compressor D) by adding cleaning solvents to the turbine at one half load E) by scrubbing all parts with brushes and solvents

C) injecting water and cleaning solvents into the compressor

415. Off line washing is performed by _____. A) having the unit isolated and the speed at zero B) injecting cleaners into the inlet at 50% rated speed C) injecting cleaners at 30% rated speed D) injecting cleaners into the inlet at zero shaft speed E) injecting cleaners at crank speed

E) injecting cleaners at crank speed

416. Water or steam injection reduces NOx emissions from a gas turbine by: A) creating a reaction environment to bind the NOx compounds B) preventing corrosion C) dropping the combustion temperature D) facilitating the production of H2NO3 E) allowing the removal of excess steam from the combustion process chamber

C) dropping the combustion temperature

417. An example of an internal combustion engine is: ``` A) a Diesel engine B) a steam engine C) a steam turbine D) a gas turbine E) an air compressor ```

A) a Diesel engine

418. A two stroke cycle engine has a power stroke every: ``` A) two crank shaft revolutions B) four crank shaft revolutions C) crank shaft revolution D) one half revolution E) one half revolution ```

C) crank shaft revolution

419. The distinguishing characteristics of the gasoline engine are ______. A) vaporized gasoline mixed with air is drawn into the cylinder during the intake stroke B) ignition is achieved by means of a spark plug C) governing takes place by throttling the air fuel mixture D) the fuel is injected at high pressure E) four stroke cycle

B) ignition is achieved by means of a spark plug

420. The major differences of the Diesel engine compared to the gasoline engine are: 1) the charge drawn into the cylinder is air only 2) the fuel is injected at high pressure at the beginning of the compression stroke 3) ignition is due to the high temperature resulting from the compression of the air 4) the fuel is injected at high pressure at the end of the compression stroke 5) the fuel is injected into the engine cylinder at a high temperature ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,4,5 E) 2,4,5 ```

A) 1,3,4

421. Scavenging is: A) the supplying of air for combustion B) the removal of exhaust gases from the cylinder C) used in all Diesel engines D) usually used in four stroke cycle engines E) recirculation of exhaust gases to reduce emissions

B) the removal of exhaust gases from the cylinder

422. A two stroke cycle Diesel engine: A) always has valves B) has difficulty removing exhaust gas from the cylinder C) are always of a uniflow type of action D) always use scavenging air E) requires oil mixed in the air for lubrication

B) has difficulty removing exhaust gas from the cylinder

423. During the compression stroke of a Diesel engine, the temperature may be as high as ____. ``` A) 250 C B) 350 C C) 450 C D) 650 C E) 850 C ```

D) 650 C

424. The oil scraper ring in a Diesel engine is located: ``` A) above the compression rings B) on the crank shaft C) on the bottom portion of the piston D) next to the camshaft E) in between the two compression rings ```

C) on the bottom portion of the piston

425 the pistons used on a Diesel engine are commonly made of ____ or _____. 1) stainless steel 2) aluminum alloy 3) carbon steel 4) cast iron ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,4 C) 2,3 D) 1,2 E) 2,4 ```

E) 2,4

426. An engine that has a/an ____ has the oil contained within the engine crankcase. ``` A) wet sump type B) dry sump type C) gravity feed reservoir D) outside storage E) underground storage ```

A) wet sump type

427. Cylinder liners in Diesel engines are usually constructed of _____. ``` A) cast iron B) aluminum C) white metal D) carbon steel E) alloy steel ```

A) cast iron

428. Diesel piston crowns are usually ______. ``` A) convex B) concave C) flat D) contoured E) none of the above ```

B) concave

429. Most pistons in large internal combustion engines are provided with ____. ``` A) four rings B) three rings C) five rings D) six rings E) two rings ```

C) five rings

430. Connecting rods are hollow bored to convey lubricating oil to the _____. ``` A) gudgeon pins B) pistons C) camshaft D) cylinder walls E) piston skirt ```

A) gudgeon pins

431. Connecting rods are usually made of _____. ``` A) carbon steel B) forged steel C) aluminum D) cast iron E) aluminum alloy ```

B) forged steel

432 the purpose of the rocker arm is to operate ______. ``` A) the camshaft B) the push rods C) the oil pump D) the inlet valves E) the exhaust valves ```

D) the inlet valves

433. The wet type of cylinder liner is _____. ``` A) water cooled B) oil cooled C) made of white metal D) submerged partly in oil E) all of the above ```

A) water cooled

434. The fuel injector ____. A) injects a mixture of fuel and air into the cylinder B) injects fuel into the cylinder during the intake stroke C) has a fuel injection nozzle D) is used in conjunction with spark ignition E) none of the above

C) has a fuel injection nozzle

435. The purpose of the carburetor is to : 1) mix the fuel and air 2) atomized the fuel 3) heat the mixture of fuel and air 4) control the amount of air-fuel mixture to the engine 5) produce a vacuum to draw fuel into the engine ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,4,5 E) 1,3,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,4,5

436. The purpose of the coil in a battery ignition system is to: ``` A) increase the voltage to the plugs B) decrease the voltage to the plugs C) prevent an arc across points D) to protect the resister E) to interrupt the primary current quickly ```

A) increase the voltage to the plugs

437. The choke in a carburetor produces a very rich air-fuel mixture for cold engine starts. A) true B) false

A) true

438. A magneto ignition system: ``` A) does not require a coil B) produces AC power C) produces a hotter spark at high speeds D) does not require points E) does not require a condenser ```

C) produces a hotter spark at high speeds

439. In the distributor system for the injection of fuel into a Diesel cylinder: ``` A) two pumps are used B) one pump is used C) one pump is used for each cylinder D) only a metering pump is used E) none of the above ```

A) two pumps are used

440. In the common rail system used for injection of fuel into the Diesel cylinder: A) the fuel is injected into the cylinder by the fuel pump B) the fuel is injected into the cylinder by the injector C) the system requires two pumps D) the system does not require a return from the injector E) the excess fuel returns directly to the inlet of the pump

B) the fuel is injected into the cylinder by the injector

441. The solid injection method includes: 1) individual pump system 2) distributor system 3) common rail system 4) air injection system The air injection system supplies air to the cylinder before compression ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 1,2,3 E) 1,3,4 ```

D) 1,2,3

442. In the common rail system of fuel injection, the fuel is pumped from the tank by a _____. ``` A) low pressure pump to the filter B) low pressure pump to the distributor C) high pressure pump to the injector D) high pressure pump to the distributor E) low pressure pump to the injector ```

E) low pressure pump to the injector

443. Super chargers are ______. A) used to force more air fuel mixture into the cylinder of a Diesel engine B) used to force more air only into the cylinder of a gasoline engine C) are usually of the rotary screw or the centrifugal type D) used to increase power output E) are never used on gasoline engines

D) used to increase power output

444. In the turbo charger: A) the exhaust gases are cooled before metering the turbine B) the air is cooled before it enters the turbo charger to increase its density C) the air is cooled after the centrifugal blower to decrease the density of the air D) the air is cooled after the centrifugal blower to increase the density of the air E) the exhaust gases drive the centrifugal lower which drives the gas turbine

D) the air is cooled after the centrifugal blower to increase the density of the air

445. The pressure at the discharge of a supercharger may be as high as ____. ``` A) 100 kPa B) 120 kPa C) 10 kPa D) 30 kPa E) 140 kPa ```

E) 140 kPa

446. Diesel engines frequently employ extra cooling for the pistons by? 1) circulating oil through passages in the piston 2) spraying oil on the underside of the piston 3) increasing the water flow in the cylinder water jackets 4) decreasing the temperature of the cooling water ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

A) 1,2

447. In a closed cooling system for an internal combustion engine: A) the pump is on the high water temperature side of the engine B) the pump is o. The low water temperature side of the engine C) the expansion tank is on the water supply side of the engine D) the cooling water is circulated intermittently E) none of the above

B) the pump is on the low water temperature side of the engine

448. Closed circuit cooling systems incorporate ____. ``` A) a heat exchanger B) a raw water supply which passes through the engine C) a check valve D) an aluminum coil E) mechanical coolers ```

A) a heat exchanger

449. Lubrication of the internal combustion engine is necessary in order to: 1) reduce friction between moving parts 2) reduce wear of parts 3) provide cooling of engine parts 4) keep parts clean 5) increase the life of the valves 6) seal between pistons and cylinder walls ``` A) 1,2,3,5 B) 1,2,3,4,5,6 C) 3,4,5,6 D) 2,3,4,5,6 E) 1,3,5,6 ```

B) 1,3,3,4,5,6

450. The four cycle engine is lubricated by thoroughly mixing a measured quantity of lubricating oil with the gasoline A) true B) false

B) false

451. The oil filter in a large Diesel engine lubrication system is ______. ``` A) placed on the suction side of the pump B) between the pump and the oil cooler C) not always required D) between the return line and the sump E) none of the above ```

E) none of the above

452. Large Diesel engines most commonly use _____ for rotation of the engine during starting. ``` A) compressed nitrogen B) compressed natural gas C) compressed air D) compressed oxygen E) all of the above ```

C) compressed air

453. The approximate air pressure required for starting a large internal combustion engine is _____. ``` A) 21000 kPa B) 1500 kPa C) 1000 kPa D) 210 kPa E) 2100 kPa ```

E) 2100 kPa

454. When high pressure air is used to start an internal combustion engine, the air is applied to the _____. ``` A) supercharger B) turbo charger C) intake valve D) cylinders E) crank case ```

D) cylinders

455. When high pressure air is used to start an internal combustion engine, the air is applied to the supercharger. A) true B) false

B) false

456. The governor in a spark ignition engine controls _____. A) the quantity of fuel entering the cylinders B) the quantity of fuel-air mixture to engine cylinders C) the spark D) the quantity of air-fuel mixture entering the carburetor E) none of the above

B) the quantity of fuel-air mixture to engine cylinders

457. The governor in an internal combustion engine regulates _____. A) the quantity of air to a gasoline engine B) the quantity of air to a Diesel engine C) the quantity of air and fuel to a Diesel engine D) the quantity of fuel to a gasoline engine E) none of the above

E) none of the above

458. The fuel injection system used for Diesel engines is called the _____. ``` A) fluid injection system B) spray injection system C) continuous injection system D) solid injection system E) turbo injection system ```

D) solid injection system

459. In a Diesel engine with a supercharging system, the amount of fuel burned is _____ ``` A) increased B) decreased C) constant D) increased during start up and decreased at operating speed E) increased during shutdown ```

A) increased

460. By using exhaust gas to drive a turbo charge, the exhaust temperature is _____. A) increased B) decreased C) constant D) decreased during startup and increased at operating speed E) constant but decreased during shutdown

B) decreased

461. For high compression Diesel engines: A) 95% of the heat is converted to work and 5% to waste B) 80% of the heat is converted to work and 20% to waste C) 70% of the heat is converted to work and 30% to waste D) 50% of the heat is converted to work and 50% to waste E) 10% of the heat is converted to work and 90% to waste

C) 70% of the heat is converted to work and 30% to waste

462. The coolant circulation method used for a cooling water system of a Diesel engine is the _____. A) natural circulation method B) condensate return system C) return trap system D) vacuum pump with a condensate return system E) forced circulation with a centrifugal pump

E) forced circulation with a centrifugal pump

463 a typical lubrication system for a medium sized Diesel engine is a _____. ``` A) natural feed B) return circulation C) splash feed D) forced feed E) spray feed ```

D) forced feed

464. A supply of oil to a turbo charger is for reason of: 1) heating the unit 2) lubricating the high speed bearings 3) cooling the rotor 4) driving the turbo charger ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 1,4 D) 2,3 E) 2,4 ```

D) 2,3

465. The cylinder lubrication of small Diesel engines is generally _____. ``` A) splash B) spray C) forced D) natural E) upfeed ```

A) splash

466. The compressor supplying compressed air to the cylinder of a large Diesel engine is generally driven by _____. ``` A) a steam engine B) a steam turbine C) a gas turbine D) a turbo charger E) an electric motor ```

E) an electric motor

467. An electric starter motor powered by a storage battery may start engines up to _____. ``` A) 1000 kW B) 1500 kW C) 2000 kW D) 2500 kW E) 3000 kW ```

A) 1000 kW

468. In a hydraulic starting system for a Diesel engine, to turn over the engine _____. A) oil flows from the filter to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation B) oil flows from the accumulator to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation C) oil flows from the reservoir to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation D) oil flows from the engine driven hydraulic pump to the motor, causing rotation E) oil flows from the hand pump to hydraulic motor, causing rotation

B) oil flows from the accumulator to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation

469. In order to keep a large Diesel engine running smoothly and efficiently, the following items must be continuously monitored: 1) oil level, temperature and pressure 2) cooling system, temperature and pressure 3) engine speed 4) cooling system, temperature and pressure ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 1,2,3 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

470. In the digital type of monitoring and control system for a large Diesel engine, it utilizes a/an _____. ``` A) g.p.s B) d.c.m C) i.c.m D) e.c.m E) t.c.m ```

D) e.c.m

471. An engine governor is used to regulate the _____ of an internal combustion engine. ``` A) speed B) exhaust C) pressure D) temperature E) life span ```

A) speed

472. Before starting a large industrial Diesel engine, special care should be taken to see that the _____. ``` A) tires' pressure are correct B) fuel tank is full C) the engine room is well lit D) the floor is free of oil spills E) the fuel injection pump is primed ```

E) the fuel injection pump is primed

473. Before starting a large industrial Diesel engine, to ensure that all valves work freely in their guides, _____ is applied to the valve system. ``` A) a little clean kerosine B) a little clean gasoline C) a little clean water D) a little clean Diesel E) a little clean sulphuric acid ```

A) a little clean kerosene

474. While starting a large industrial Diesel engine, the oil pressure may not go above the low pressure trip setting until the engine has started up, therefore a/an _____ switch is pushed to override the trip. ``` A) crossover B) overriding C) interlocking D) by-pass E) equalizing ```

D) by-pass

475. If possible, an industrial size Diesel engine should start up with _____ load until normal operating temperature has been reached. ``` A) no B) high C) medium D) full E) extra ```

A) no

476. Shortly after a large Diesel engine is started up and the oil pressure is increased to above the trip setting, the bypass switch is to be returned to the _____ position. ``` A) off B) run C) hand D) controlled E) manual ```

B) run

477. Co-generation can be defined as: A) having two steam generation units in one plant B) the utilization of steam for process and power generation purposes C) the utilization of waste heat of a steam Boiler to heat feedwater D) the utilization of one form of input energy to generate two or more forms of output energy E) the utilization of two forms of input energy to generate one single form of output energy

D) the utilization of one form of input energy to generate two or more forms of output energy

478. The primary purpose of cogeneration is _____. ``` A) to reduce the equipment cost B) to increase the lifespan of the equipment C) to reduce the prices of natural gas D) to reduce staffing cost E) to reduce the energy cost ```

E) to reduce the energy cost

479. The advantages as comparing conventional facilities of cogeneration at micro (local) level include: 1) reduction in the total energy bill when electricity is required at the site 2) it is generally more compact and less maintenance required as compared to the conventional facilities 3) reduction of load demand on heavier polluting, coal fired facilities 4) shorter startup time ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

480. The applications of cogeneration can befall into which of the following areas: 1) institutional establishments 2) large scale industries plants 3) localized central and heating and cooling plant 4) theatres and restaurants ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

481. Which of the following are the types of simple cycle cogeneration used today: 1) back pressure steam turbine 2) waste heat cogeneration 3) heat engine cogeneration 4) gas turbine 5) condensing steam turbine ``` A) 1,2,3,5 B) 1,2,4,5 C) 1,3,5 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

482. Which one of the following simple cycle cogeneration systems best describes the process? "Steam produced from a Boiler drives a steam turbine, which in turn drives the electric generator. The low pressure exhaust steam from the turbine is supplying the required heat to the process. The condensed steam from the process is then returned to the Boiler." ``` A) back pressure steam turbine B) condensing steam turbine C) waste heat cogeneration D) heat engine cogeneration E) gas turbine ```

A) back pressure steam turbine

483. Which one of the following simple cycle cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The waste heat produced by the gas turbine passes through an exhaust heat Boiler. The steam produced by the Boiler is used for heating purposes and for an absorption refrigeration system." ``` A) back pressure steam turbine B) condensing steam turbine C) waste heat cogeneration D) heat engine cogeneration E) gas turbine ```

E) gas turbine

484. Which one of the following simple cycle cogeneration systems best describes the process? "Fuel burned to produce heat for a process and the to use the waste heat from the process to produce steam in the Boiler. The steam from the Boiler is fed to the steam turbine to turn an electric generator. The low pressure exhaust steam from the steam turbine is used to drive another turbine on to provide heat to the feedwater heaters." ``` A) back pressure steam turbine B) condensing steam turbine C) waste heat cogeneration D) heat engine cogeneration E) gas turbine ```

C) waste heat cogeneration

485. Which one of the following simple cycle cogeneration systems best describes the process? "The heat engine turns an electric generator and the exhaust gases from the heat engine provide the heat source for the heat recovery unit." ``` A) back pressure steam turbine B) condensing steam turbine C) waste heat cogeneration D) heat engine cogeneration E) gas turbine ```

D) heat engine cogeneration

486. Combined cycle cogeneration refers to the production of energy from _____. A) one source utilizing one fuel source B) two sources utilizing two fuel sources C) two sources utilizing one fuel source D) one source utilizing two fuel sources E) three sources utilizing one fuel source

C) two sources utilizing one fuel source

487. Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes the process? "The fuel is burned in a conventional gas turbine combustor. The gas turbine is connected to an electric generator. The exhaust from the gas turbine is then used as combustion air to mix with fuel burned in the Boiler the steam produced from the Boiler is used to drive a steam turbine which is connected to a second electrical generator." A) back pressure steam turbine cogeneration B) waste heat cogeneration C) gas turbine cogeneration D) combined cycle steam/gas turbine cogeneration E) combined cycle gas/steam turbine cogeneration

E) combined cycle gas/steam turbine cogeneration

488. Which one of the following cogeneration systems requires neither an FD nor ID fans for the Boiler? ``` A) back pressure steam turbine B) condensing steam turbine C) open cycle gas turbine D) combined cycle steam/steam turbine E) combined cycle gas/steam turbine ```

E) combined cycle gas/steam turbine

489. Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The compressor driven by the gas turbine supplies pressurized combustion air to mix with fuel and burned in the Boiler. The steam produced by the Boiler is used to drive a steam turbine which is connected to an electrical generator. The exhaust gases from the Boiler are then fed to the gas turbine which is connected to a second electrical generator." ``` A) back pressure turbine B) waste heat C) gas turbine D) combined cycle steam/gas turbine E) combined cycle gas/steam turbine ```

D) combined cycle steam/gas turbine

490. The term HRSG stands for: ``` A) high return steam generator B) heat recovery superheated generator C) hot return steam generator D) heat recovery steam generator E) heat return steam generator ```

D) heat recovery steam generator

491. Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this? "The system consists of a gas turbine, steam turbine, electrical generators (driven by the gas and steam turbines) and a fixed HRSG unit." A) fully fixed combined cycle B) steam/gas turbine combined cycle C) gas/steam turbine combined cycle D) back pressure steam/gas turbine combined cycle E) condensing steam/gas turbine combined cycle

A) fully fixed combined cycle

A HRSG extracts most of its heat energy from the exhaust of a gas turbine and the remainder of the required heat energy to run the steam turbine is supplied by: A) the flue gases of the auxiliary Boiler B) burning fuel in a series of auxiliary burners C) the heat from the exhaust heat Boiler D) increasing the input energy to the gas turbine E) a separately fired heater independent of the HRSG

B) burning fuel in a series of auxiliary burners

493. The advantages of a combined cycle cogeneration plant as compared to a conventional, steam generating plant: 1) higher production of electrical energy 2) higher thermal efficiency 3) lower emissions to atmosphere 4) lower fuel consumption ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

494. In combined cycles systems the term pressurized means _____. A) the HRSG is under steam pressure B) the gas turbine exhaust is fed into the Boiler C) the combustion chamber is under air pressure D) the Boiler is fed by forced and induced draft fans E) the gas turbine is pressurized from the Boiler

B) the gas turbine exhaust is fed into the Boiler

495. A single shaft combined cycle power plant can be arranged so that _____. A) the steam turbine is between the generator and the gas turbine B) the gas turbine is between the generator and the steam turbine C) the generator is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine D) the generator is between the HRSG and the steam turbine E) the generator is between the HRSG and the gas turbine

C) the generator is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine

496. A single shaft combined cycle power plant can be arranged so that _____. A) the HRSG unit is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine B) the HRSG unit is between the generator and the steam turbine C) the generator is between the HRSG and the steam turbine D) the gas turbine drives the generator and the exhaust gas from the gas turbine enters the HRSG E) the Boiler flue gases enter the gas turbine which drives the generator with a HRSG providing additional heat energy

D) the gas turbine drives the generator and the exhaust gases from the gas turbine enters the HRSG

497. The benefits of a combined cycle with a single shaft gas/steam turbine arrangement are: 1) high level of thermal efficiency 2) low capital cost 3) fast start up and shut down 4) short construction time 5) low maintenance cost ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4,5 ```

E) 1,2,3,4,5

498. The HRSG used to raise the temperature of the saturated steam before entering the steam turbine in a dual shaft combined cycle power plant arrangement _____. A) has a series of auxiliary burners B) receives heat energy from the exhaust gas of the gas turbine C) receives heat energy from the exhaust gas of the steam Boiler D) receives heat energy from a number of outside sources E) has separately fired unit to increase heat energy

B) receives heat energy from the exhaust gas of the gas turbine

499. Multi shaft combined cycle power plant has high efficiency at _____. ``` A) high load B) low load C) base load D) variable load E) medium load ```

C) base load

500. When the fuel supplied first produces electric power with the thermal energy as a by product. This cogeneration system is called the: ``` A) waste heat cycle B) gas turbine cycle C) heat engine cycle D) topping cycle E) bottoming cycle ```

D) topping cycle

501. When the fuel supplied produces high temperature thermal energy for processes and the heat exhausted from these processes is used to produce electrical energy from a HRSG. The cogeneration is called the: ``` A) waste heat cycle B) gas turbine cycle C) heat engine cycle D) topping cycle E) bottoming cycle ```

E) bottoming cycle

502. The _____ system has the electrical production from the cogeneration system fixed at maximum changing electrical requirements met by the electricity all utility grid. ``` A) home based B) base loaded C) set electrical demand D) constant based E) demand based ```

B) base loaded

503. The _____ system has the electrical supply from the utility grid fixed and the cogeneration system looks after changing the electrical requirements. ``` A) home based B) base loaded C) set electrical demand D) constant based E) demand based ```

C) set electrical demand

504. In a cogeneration system the thermal load can be controlled by which two of the following strategies: 1) fixed production of minimum thermal energy 2) varying requirements for thermal energy 3) base loaded for maximum thermal energy 4) topping for minimum thermal energy ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 1,3 D) 2,4 E) 1,4 ```

A) 1,2

505. Fixed production of a minimum thermal energy for thermal load control strategy of a cogeneration system is achieved by: A) varying the prime mover output and fixed the thermal energy output B) operating the prime mover at constant maximum output and adjust the thermal requirements by other means C) operating the prime mover at full load and fixed the thermal requirements by other means D) varying both the prime mover and the auxiliary firing equipment outputs E) adjusting the thermal energy output of the auxiliary firing equipment

B) operating the prime mover at constant maximum output and adjust the thermal requirements by other means

506. During low thermal requirements of a cogeneration system a diverted valve is used to: A) direct the exhaust gases from the HRSG to atmosphere B) direct the thermal energy from the duct burner to the atmosphere C) direct the excess electrical energy to another utility grid D) direct the thermal energy from the gas turbine to the duct burner E) direct the exhaust gases from the gas turbine to the atmosphere

E) direct the exhaust gases from the gas turbine to the atmosphere

507. When additional thermal energy is required in a cogeneration system, a _____ is often used for this purpose. ``` A) HRSG B) gas turbine C) Boiler D) duct burner E) unit heater ```

D) duct burner

508. The main application for HRSG, WHRG, and TEG on a cogeneration system is for: A) heat generation to drive the gas turbine B) mechanical energy generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases C) electrical generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases D) steam generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases E) light energy generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases

D) steam generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases

509. The design the HRSG in a cogeneration system depends on: 1) thermal requirements 2) mechanical requirements 3) electrical requirements 4) volumetric requirements ``` A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 1,4 D) 2,3 E) 2,4 ```

B) 1,3

510. The duct burners in a cogeneration system with a gas turbine can be used to: 1) increase the production of steam 2) control the temperature of the exhaust gas of the turbine 3) control the superheater temperatures 4) meet process steam temperature requirements ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

C) 1,3,4

511. Some HRSG boilers of the once through forced circulation design equipped with high alloy tubes and it can: A) operate with high velocity water flow through tubes B) operate with high volume water flow through the tubes C) operate with low steam flow through the tubes D) operate without water flow through the tubes E) operate without chemical treatment for the Boiler

D) operate without water flow through the tubes

512. Cogeneration systems can be designed to burn various fuels and these fuels can produce the following gases which will affect the environment negatively: 1) SO 2) NOx 3) C2H4 4) CO2 ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

513. The production of nitrous oxides leads to _____. ``` A) alkaline corrosion B) scaling of the Boiler tubes C) high pH level in the Boiler water D) low pH level in the Boiler water E) acid rain ```

E) acid rain

514. _____ and _____ can be used in a HRSG to reduce NOx leaving the HRSG. ``` A) steam and NH3 B) CO2 and NH3 C) SO2 and NH3 D) H2O and NH3 E) CO2 and SO2 ```

A) steam and NH3

515. _____ is well known for its contribution to the greenhouse effect. ``` A) C4H82 B) CO C) CO3 D) CO2 E) CH3 ```

D) CO2

516. In order to counter the corrosion nature of the condensate produced from burning fuel with a high sulphur content, a _____ heat exchanger is installed in the condensing heat recovery systems. ``` A) plastic lined B) mild steel C) high carbon steel D) high alloy steel E) stainless steel ```

E) stainless steel

517. Cogeneration systems with an IC engine connected to a HRWH can obtain good efficiency in _____ systems. ``` A) heavy industry B) normal household C) small industry D) small air conditioning E) large heating ```

C) small industry

518. The water jackets on an IC engine with a HRWH is designed to: 1) cool the air surrounding the engine 2) recover the waste heat from the engine 3) cool the engine 4) cool the lubricating oil ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

519. When an IC engine is used as part of a cogeneration system, the added advantages are: 1) higher power to weight rates than the gas turbine 2) ambient temperature does not affect the electrical energy output 3) higher thermal efficiency than a conventional gas 4) capability of intermittent operation ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 1,3 E) 2,4 ```

E) 2,4

520. HRWH stands for: ``` A) heat recovery waste heater B) heat recovery water hydrotreater C) heat recovery water heater D) heat recovery waste hydrotreater E) heat recovery warming heater ```

C) heat recovery water heater

521. HRHWG stands for: A) heat recovery high water generator B) heat recovery generator hot waste C) heat recovery high efficiency waste heat generator D) heat recovery hot water heater E) heat recovery high efficiency water generator

D) heat recovery hot water heater

522. Before attempting to start up a combined cycle cogeneration system, _____ who led be consulted first. ``` A) the jurisdictional inspector B) the local fire department C) manufacturer's guidelines and operating instructions D) the power company E) the local gas company ```

C) manufacturer's guidelines and operating instructions

523. During the start up of a cogeneration system with a gas turbine: A) the gas turbine is normally started up by compressed air B) the gas turbine is turned/started by a separate starter motor C) the gas turbine will start up automatically as soon as power is engaged D) the diverter valve will divert thermal energy from the HRSG to start the gas turbine E) the auxiliary burner will provide additional thermal energy to start the gas turbine

B) the gas turbine is turned/started by a separate starter motor

524. When starting a cogeneration system with a gas turbine, the starting motor will disengage from the turbine when the turbine is at approximately _____ % of its rated speed ``` A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 35 E) 55 ```

E) 55

525. When starting a cogeneration system with a gas turbine, the fuel is admitted to the combustors and ignited at approximately _____ % of the rated speed of the turbine. ``` A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 55 E) 15 ```

D) 55

526. when running up a cogeneration system the diverted valve is opened 100% when _____. A) the turbine is at rated load B) the temperature is rising in the turbine blades C) the combustion turbine temperature is at maximum D) the HSSG is prewarmed and up to temperature E) the HRSG is producing steam

E) the HRSG is producing steam

527. _____ of a compressor is known as free air delivered or free air capacity. ``` A) capacity B) displacement C) absolute pressure D) efficiency E) pressure ratio ```

A) capacity

528. Reciprocating compressors are suitable for _____. ``` A) low pressure service B) only high pressure service C) all ranges of pressure D) single stage only E) none of the above ```

C) all ranges of pressure

529. Four ways of dividing reciprocating compressors into types are: 1) single or double acting 2) method of compression 3) number of impellers 4) speed of prime mover 5) method of drive 6) cylinder arrangement ``` A) 3,4,5,6 B) 1,2,5,6 C) 1,3,5,6 D) 2,3,4,6 E) 1,3,4,5 ```

B) 1,2,5,6

530. _____ positive displacement compressors require intake and discharge valves. ``` A) rotary B) centrifugal C) sliding vanes D) rotary lobe E) reciprocating ```

E) reciprocating

531. A reciprocating compressor is suited for all ranges of _____. ``` A) discharge air temperatures B) speed C) oil lubrication D) cooling water temperatures E) pressures ```

E) pressures

532. Reciprocating air compressors are best suited to _____. A) high speed, low volume applications B) low pressure, high volume applications C) low pressure, low volume applications D) high pressure, moderate volume applications E) high speed, high volume applications

D) high pressure, moderate volume applications

533. Cylinder arrangements of reciprocating air compressors may be: 1) vertical or horizontal 2) rotary or simplex 3) the V or Y type 4) an angle type 5) twin impeller type ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,3,5 C) 2,4,5 D) 1,2,3 E) 2,3,5 ```

A) 1,3,4

534. In a multistage reciprocating compressor the highest pressure stages may be _____. ``` A) remote controlled B) poppet valve regulated C) double lobe D) single acting E) free piston ```

D) single acting

535. A free piston air compressor _____. A) has a spare or free piston for air compression B) uses one steam cylinder to drive two compression pistons C) has a commonly n intake and discharge valve system D) has a cushion cylinder that acts as a flywheel E) has two crankshaft

D) has a cushion cylinder that acts as a flywheel

536. A double acting reciprocating air compressor _____. A) must have at least two pistons B) receives and discharges air at both ends of the cylinder C) increases the pressure twice from inlet pressure valve D) has one compression stroke for every crankshaft revolution E) none of the above

B) receives and discharges air at both ends of the cylinder

537. In multistage compression, the high pressure cylinders are _____ because the volume is _____ and the pressure is _____ than the lower pressure stages. 1) smaller 2) larger 3) higher 4) lower 5) more 6) less ``` A) 2,5,4 B) 1,5,4 C) 2,4,6 D) 2,5,6 E) 1,6,3 ```

E) 1,6,3

538. _____ and carbon rings can be used in reciprocating air compressors to deliver oil free air. ``` A) brass B) aluminum C) titanium D) ceramic E) teflon ```

E) teflon

539. Oil free air may be provided by reciprocating air compressors by _____. ``` A) use of a porous filter B) use of an oil filter C) nylon and brass piston rings D) carbon or teflon piston rings E) use o an intercooler ```

D) carbon or teflon piston rings

540. The prime purpose of water cooling or air cooling of air compressors is to _____. A) cool the air B) help increase moisture and volume of the air C) keep the cylinder at a reasonable temperature D) prevent fire from occurring in the receiver E) prevent operator injury

C) keep the cylinder at a reasonable temperature

541. Air compressor pistons are constructed of: 1) steel 2) cast iron 3) brass 4) aluminum 5) copper alloy ``` A) 1 B) 1,2 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,4 E) 2,3,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,4

542. Water cooling by wate jacketing of air compressor cylinders is preferred over air cooling because _____. A) the construction of the compressor is cheaper than the finned type B) there is less piping involved C) the construction is fairly simple D) more efficient cooling is obtained E) the air temperature can not be controlled

D) more efficient cooling is obtained

543. Reciprocating compressor valves are usually found in two common forms. _____. ``` A) plate disc and channel type B) composition and rubber C) copper and aluminum D) angle and inverted E) ribbed and push rods ```

A) plate disc and channel type

544. Compressor valves are usually automatic and open and close by _____. ``` A) action of a poppet valve B) movement of the piston covering or uncovering ports C) operation of a solenoid valve D) a pressure difference E) a camshaft ```

D) a pressure difference

545. If _____ is used then the cylinder is constructed with integral cast fins, which provide increased radiating area. ``` A) water cooling B) water jacket C) glycol cooling D) sliding vane compressor E) air cooling ```

E) air cooling

546. Compressor connecting rods are constructed of _____. ``` A) cast iron B) stainless steel C) forged steel D) black iron E) brass ```

C) forged steel

547. A reciprocating compressor can deliver oil free air if it _____. A) uses an oil separator at the compressor discharge B) uses an oil filter before the compressor inlet C) implements a charcoal filter at the compressor discharge D) implements carbon or teflon piston rings E) uses an intercooler to increase the oil viscosity

D) implements carbon or teflon piston rings

548. Lubricating oil is necessary in an air compressor in order to perform the following functions: 1) provide sealing 2) remove heat 3) reduce friction 4) eliminate water cooling 5) reduce corrosion 6) remove carbon 7) prevent wear ``` A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 C) 1,3,4,6 D) 1,2,3,5,7 E) 1,2,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,3,5,7

549. Internal lubrication of air compressors refers to: 1) the crankcase and crankshaft 2) cylinder walls and pistons 3) vanes and casing walls of some compressors 4) impellers of a centrifugal compressor ``` A) 2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 3,4 D) 1,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

A) 2,3

550. Single acting compressors having the bottom of the cylinder open to the crankcase will have lubrication provided by _____. ``` A) a pressure lubricator B) a force fed oil pump C) a splash system D) an oil ring E) none of the above ```

C) a splash system

551. Compressor lubrication may be divided into two main sections. _____ lubrication and _____ lubrication. 1) peripheral 2) internal 3) splash 4) external 5) pressure ``` A) 1,2 B) 3,5 C) 3,4,5 D) 2,3,4 E) 2,4 ```

E) 2,4

552. A kind of rotary compressor is _____. ``` A) a two lobe B) a cross compound double cylinder C) sliding piston D) axial E) all of the above ```

A) a two lobe

553. The operating speed of a typical two stage sliding vane compressor ranges up to _____. ``` A) 250 rpm B) 5000 rpm C) 1800 rpm D) 3000 rpm E) 2000 rpm ```

D) 3000 rpm

554. An important advantage of a sliding vane compressor is that it _____. ``` A) does not require internal lubrication B) has a high starting torque C) does not require inlet or discharge valves D) requires light nylon timing gears E) does not require a prime mover ```

C) does not require inlet or discharge valves

555. In a rotary lobe compressor one lobe is directly driven by the driving mechanism while the other lobe is driven by _____. ``` A) intermeshing with the driven lobe B) a reduction gear C) means of timing gears D) speed increasing gears E) a belt ```

C) means of timing gears

556. The impellers of a _____ compressor maintain their relative positions with each other by the use of timing gears. ``` A) sliding vane B) free piston C) axial flow D) angle types E) lobe type rotary ```

E) lobe type rotary

557. In the _____ compressor, the male rotor has convex lobes and the female rotor has concave flutes. ``` A) lobe type rotary B) axial flow C) sliding vanes D) rotary screw E) free piston ```

D) rotary screen

558. The lobe type compressor runs at speeds up to about _____ rev/min ``` A) 1550 B) 1600 C) 1650 D) 1700 E) 1750 ```

E) 1750

559. The rotary screw compressor usually has the _____. ``` A) male lobe driven B) male flute driven C) female flute driven D) female lobe driven E) female and male driven ```

A) male lobe driven

560. Rotary lobe compressors have their elements _____. ``` A) lubricated by graphite B) enclosed by an aluminum casing C) as spring loaded vanes D) revolving in opposite directions E) lubricated by oil ```

D) revolving in opposite directions

561. Three different designs of rotary compressors are: 1) sliding vane 2) rotary screw 3) axial flow 4) volume centrifugal 5) rotary lobe 6) diffuser vane centrifugal ``` A) 2,4,6 B) 1,2,3 C) 3,4,6 D) 1,3,5 E) 1,2,5 ```

E) 1,2,5

562. Centrifugal compressors are commonly used for _____. A) low volume, high pressure applications B) low speed, high pressure applications C) high humidity, low volume applications D) large volume, low pressure applications E) large volume, low speed

D) large volume, low pressure applications

563. Adjustable diffuser vanes on centrifugal air compressors are implemented to _____. A) change the operating characteristics of the compressor B) prevent back or reverse flow of air C) remove foreign particles from the air D) reduce the amount of air entering the compressor E) change the direction of the air flow to remove moisture

A) change the operating characteristics of the compressor

564. Centrifugal air compressors are used for _____ pressure applications. ``` A) changing B) low volume, high pressure C) low volume, low pressure D) high volume, high pressure E) high volume, low pressure ```

E) high volume, low pressure

565. For changing the air ____ in centrifugal air compressors to _____, volume casings and diffuser vanes are implemented. 1) pressure 2) volume 3) velocity 4) temperature ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,4 C) 4,1 D) 3,1 E) 4,2 ```

D) 3,1

566. A centrifugal air compressor may have _____ for multi-staging. ``` A) two or more pistons B) two or more impellers on separate shaft C) two or more compressors D) two or more diffuser vanes E) two or more impellers on same shaft ```

E) two or more impellers on same shaft

567. Each pair of moving and fixed blades in an axial air compressor constitutes a/an _____. ``` A) pressure drop B) temperature decrease C) program of air D) stage E) obstacle ```

D) stage

568. Axial flow compressor advantages are similar to those of centrifugal air compressors, they have an added advantage of _____. ``` A) being lower in cost B) being a shorter machine C) being corrosion and erosion free D) being approximately 10% more efficient E) solid forged rotor ```

D) being approximately 10% more efficient

569. In axial air compressors, the pressure rise per stage is _____ therefore, for high pressures _____ stages are required. 1) low 2) high 3) single 4) multi ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,4 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 2,1 ```

B) 1,4

570. Axial flow compressor blades are subject to greater _____ and _____ than there is in a centrifugal compressor. 1) fouling 2) erosion 3) corrosion 4) cleaning ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,4 C) 2,1 D) 3,4 E) 2,3 ```

E) 2,3

571. Axial flow compressors are _____. ``` A) a dynamic type of compressor B) a single acting compressor C) a rotary type of compressor D) centrifugal compressor E) all of the above ```

A) a dynamic type compressor

572. _____ on centrifugal air compressors are provided in order to control the amount of air flowing to the impeller and thus control the capacity of the unit. ``` A) adjustable inlet vanes B) adjustable diffuser vanes C) variable frequency drive D) moving and fixed blades E) dummy piston ```

A) adjustable inlet vanes

573. A compressor driven by a constant speed driver has its output varied by _____. ``` A) a start and stop switch B) a solenoid valve C) a mercury switch D) some type of unloading device E) a safety relief valve ```

D) some type of unloading device

574. A variable speed control regulates the speed of the _____ from air receiver pressure monitoring. ``` A) driver B) compressor crankshaft C) compressor impellers D) compressor blades E) coupling ```

A) driver

575. The stop and start system is best employed where _____. A) the air demand is constant B) the air demand is low and infrequently demanded C) a large AC motor is used as the driver D) a Diesel engine is used as the driver E) variable speed and start, stop

B) the air demand is low and infrequently demanded

576. In the variable speed control method the compressor output is regulated by _____. ``` A) adjustment of clearance pockets B) a rheostat C) a safety relief valve D) a driver that can be throttled E) only small receivers are available ```

D) a driver that can be throttled

577. A method of unloading a reciprocating compressor is to _____. A) hold the discharge valves closed B) hold the discharge valve open C) place a check valve in the discharge line D) hold the inlet valves in the open position E) unloading a cylinder

D) hold the inlet valves in the open position

578. The item used to activate the inlet air unloader is _____. ``` A) spring loaded pilot valve B) a torsion bar C) a bleed off valve D) a compressor flywheel E) none of the above ```

A) a spring loaded pilot valve

579. The flow of air from a compressor must be _____ to suit load requirements and to maintain constant pressure in the system. ``` A) increased B) decreased C) dampened D) interrupted E) regulated ```

E) regulated

580. The _____ control method can be used when the compressor is driven by a steam engine, a turbine, or an internal combustion engine. ``` A) constant speed B) start and stop C) dual D) start and stop in conjunction with constant speed E) variable speed ```

E) variable speed

581. Output from a compressor using the constant speed control method must use some type of _____. ``` A) unloading B) uploading C) down loading D) start and stop device E) variable speed ```

A) unloading

582. To prevent surging, the capacity of the compressor must not be allowed to fall below the _____. ``` A) surge limit B) maximum volume C) rated point D) rated pressure E) set point ```

A) surge limit

583. One method to prevent surging in dynamic compressors is to _____. ``` A) use variable frequency drive B) use vanes C) install a recirculation line D) open a discharge line blow off valve to atmosphere E) use a safety valve ```

D) open a discharge line blow off valve to atmosphere

584. The reasons for cooling the air in an air compression system is to: 1) remove water vapour and oil vapour from the air 2) make cylinder lubrication more effective 3) decrease the amount of power required to compress the air 4) remove fixed carbon from the value s ``` A) 2,4 B) 1,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 E) none of the above ```

C) 1,2,3

585. A good method of drying air before it goes into the receiver is to _____. ``` A) heat it B) pressurize it C) cool it D) increase the velocity E) decrease the velocity ```

C) cool it

586. Air compressor inter and after coolers may be _____. ``` A) water or air cooled B) oil or hydrogen cooled C) teflon lubricated D) electrically heated E) freon refrigerant cooled ```

A) water or air cooled

587. The aftercooler is used in an air compression system to _____. A) cool the air after the first stage of compression B) cool the lubricating oil of large axial compressors C) cool the air after it leaves the receiver D) cool the air after the last stage of compression E) cool the air before being compressed

D) cool the air after the last stage of compression

588. It is advisable that _____ is fitted between the after cooler and air receiver. ``` A) a gauge glass B) pressure gauge C) a moisture separator D) an air filter E) temperature gauge ```

C) a moisture separator

589. In a compressed air system, if water vapour is not removed from the air then it may collect in pipelines and cause: 1) increase in pressure 2) water hammer 3) gurgling noise 4) damage from freezing ``` A) 1,3 B) 3 C) 1,4 D) 2,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

D) 2,4

590. If there is a shut off valve between the aftercooler and the receiver, the aftercooler must also be fitted with a _____. ``` A) safety valve B) pressure gauge C) thermometer D) fusible plug E) vacuum breaker ```

A) safety valve

591. An air compressor will require more power to compress the air if an intercooler is implemented. A) true B) false

B) false

592. Effective intercooling will reduce weakening of parts due to high temperatures, and reduce possibility of _____. ``` A) compressor explosions B) water hammer C) compressor implosions D) compressor leaks E) corrosion ```

B) water hammer

593. Aftercoolers should be fitted with _____. ``` A) pressure gauges B) thermometers C) possibly a safety valve D) water separator E) all of the above ```

E) all of the above

594. The presence of _____ in the air may later result in the compressed air piping being subjected to water hammer. ``` A) oil B) corrosion C) dirt particles D) nitrogen E) moisture ```

E) moisture

595. Detrimental effects of moisture in an air compression system are: 1) it may cause corrosion 2) it may cause water hammer 3) it will reduce compressor capacity 4) it will cool the air below dew point 5) it may wash carbon off the valves 6) it may freeze in the air lines ``` A) 1,2,3,6 B) 3,4,5,6 C) 1,2,3,4,5,6 D) 2,4,5,6 E) 1,2,3,4,5 ```

A) 1,2,3,6

596. The inlet pipe to the compressor must be _____. A) larger than the compressor intake B) twice as large as the compressor intake C) smaller than the compressor intake D) at least as large as the compressor intake E) at least as large as the compressor discharge

D) at least as large as the compressor intake

597. An air filter on an air compressor inlet pipe is used to _____. A) reduce the air velocity B) keep out the moisture C) purify the air by removing exhaust process gases D) prevent dust and other particulate from entering the compressor E) increase the air velocity

D) prevent dust and other particulate from entering the compressor

598. A typical air dryer type consists of a pressure vessel containing a chemical known as a _____. ``` A) drying agent B) desiccant C) moisture eliminator D) dryer E) silica ```

B) desiccant

599. In an air dryer desiccant is used to _____. ``` A) fill the empty space in the air dryer B) absorb moisture C) prevent corrosion in the receiver D) add moisture to the air E) heat the air ```

B) absorb moisture

600. The specification for an air receiver must conform to ASME section _____. ``` A) I B) VI C) IV D) VII E) VIII. Air receivers should be used on air lines where necessary and smaller ones located close to where the air is to be used ```

E) VIII. Air receivers should be used on air lines where necessary and smaller ones located close to where the air is to be used

601. The four major purposes of an air receiver is to: 1) act as a reservoir or storage vessel 2) house fittings such as safety valve, pressure gauge, and fusible plug 3) dampen the pulsation of a reciprocating compressor 4) act as a compressor output control reference point 5) allow moisture and oil particles to settle out 6) allow further heating of the air before going to the use ``` A) 1,2,5,6 B) 1,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,6 D) 2,3,4,5 E) 2,4,5,6 ```

B) 1,3,4,5

602. The axis of an air receiver may be: 1) vertical 2) 45 degrees from vertical 3) horizontal 4) 30 degrees from vertical ``` A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4,2 E) 1,3 ```

E) 1,3

603. Air receivers should be inspected regularly and then _____. ``` A) pneumatically tested B) hydrostatically tested C) dismantled and cleaned D) tested for explosive gases E) shipped to a pressure vessel tester ```

B) hydrostatically tested

604. An air receiver is a pressure vessel which is used: 1) as a reservoir 2) to dampen pulsation of reciprocating compressor 3) tip allow moisture and oil particles to settle out from the air ``` A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1,2 E) 1,2,3 ```

E) 1,2,3

605. When first starting a compressor operate the cylinder lubricator by hand to _____. A) take some load off the pressure lubricator B) make sure it works for duration of compressor operation C) supply some oil to the cylinder for start up D) to ensure that there is oil in the crankcase E) all of the above

C) supply some oil to the cylinder for start up

606. Air compressors should be automatically unloaded _____. ``` A) by the operator B) during the shutting down period C) for the start up period D) at all times of compressor output E) if the is no cooling water for the aftercooler ```

C) for the start up period

607. When starting up a compressor, ensure the manual block valves in the suction and discharge lines at _____. A) both wide open B) both closed C) both valves throttled back D) suction valve wide open and discharge valve closed E) suction valve closed and discharge valve wide open

A) both wide open

608. When starting up a compressor, make sure: 1) no one is still working on the unit 2) the suction and discharge valves are closed 3) to check the system for oil leaks 4) it is unloaded ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

C) 1,3,4

609. Once the compressor is started and running at rates speed and all conditions are satisfactory, it is recommended to load the compressor up _____. ``` A) quickly to 100% load B) quickly to 75% load C) quickly to 50% load D) gradually E) slowly to 10% load and stop ```

D) gradually

610. A refrigerant may be defined as a: A) a liquid that absorbs heat at high pressure and gives up heat at low pressure B) a fluid that absorbs heat at a low temperature and pressure and gives up heat by condensing at a higher temperature and pressure C) a fluid that absorbs heat at a high pressure D) medium for creating heat E) a fluid that absorbs heat at a high temperature and pressure and gives up heat by condensing at a lower temperature and pressure

B) a fluid that absorbs heat at a low temperature and pressure and gives up heat by condensing at a higher temperature and pressure

611. A good refrigerant should require a _____. ``` A) low latent heat value B) high temperature boiling point C) high condensing temperature D) high condensing pressure E) large amount of heat to evaporate ```

E) large amount of heat to evaporate

612. Ammonia refrigerant will _____. ``` A) mix easily with mineral oils B) not mix with mineral oils C) mix with oils when heated D) not mix with water E) be added with oil for lubrication purposes ```

B) not mix with mineral oils

613. A good refrigerant should have _____. ``` A) a high net refrigeration effect B) a low net refrigeration effect to save power C) a medium refrigeration effect D) a high condensing pressure E) a condensing temperature ```

A) a high net refrigeration effect

614. Group 3 refrigerants are ____. ``` A) extremely flammable B) moderately flammable C) non flammable D) moderately explosive E) non explosive ```

A) extremely flammable

615. Group 1 refrigerants _____. ``` A) are quite poisonous B) are easily ignited C) have the highest latent heat value D) are considered the safest E) are moderately toxic ```

D) are considered the safest

616. NH3 (R-717) refrigerant _____. ``` A) will not cause corrosion to metals B) is non toxic C) is corrosive in the presence water to nonferrous metals D) is very expensive E) is extremely explosive ```

C) is corrosive in the presence of water to nonferrous metals

617. R-12 and R-22 refrigerant to are _____. ``` A) known as halocarbons or freons B) used only in commercial establishments C) extremely toxic D) used only in indirect systems E) extremely explosive ```

A) known as halocarbons or freons

618. The heat necessary to evaporate a liquid refrigerant in mechanical refrigeration is _____. ``` A) sensible heat B) refrigeration super heat C) latent heat D) heat of condensation E) superheater ```

C) latent heat

619. In a mechanical vapour compression system the compressor's function is to _____. A) condense the high pressure gas B) establish two pressure levels C) reduce the temperature of the refrigerant gas D) control the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator E) to compress the vapour, so that heat can be easily removed

B) establish two pressure levels

620. Most modern refrigeration systems make use of the principle of absorbing heat by _____. A) condensing refrigerant at a low pressure B) high evaporating pressures C) the evaporation of a liquid, and then discarding the heat to atmosphere D) evaporation of brine E) high condensing temperature and pressure

C) the evaporation of a liquid, and then discarding the heat to atmosphere

621. The flow of refrigerant to the evaporator is controlled by the _____. ``` A) king valve B) suction flow regulating valve C) purge valve D) expansion valve E) discharge flow regulating valve ```

D) expansion valve

622. The discharge pressure on centrifugal compressors is increased by _____. ``` A) running the stages in parallel B) arranging the stages in series C) slowing up the compressor D) throttling the nozzles E) throttling the suction valve ```

B) arranging the stages in series

623. The high and low sides of a refrigerating system are separated by an imaginary line _____. A) from the king valve to the compressor discharge valve B) between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the brine valve C) between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the expansion valve D) from the equalizing valve to the expansion valve E) between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the king valve

C) between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the expansion valve

624. The function of the condenser in a refrigeration system compression system is _____. A) to evaporate the liquid to a high pressure gas B) to establish a pressure differential C) to cool the hot compressed refrigerant vapour until it condenses to a liquid D) to condense or liquefy the purge gases E) to cool the hot compressed liquid refrigerant in the receiver

C) to cool the hot compressed refrigerant vapour until it condenses to a liquid

625. The purpose of the expansion valve is to _____. A) isolate the high and low sides of the system B) regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator C) expand the refrigerant gas for better refrigeration effect and higher temperatures D) control the brine flow E) control the temperature of the refrigerant

B) regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator

626. Some reciprocating compressors on ammonia systems are protected from liquid slugs by _____. ``` A) spring loaded safety heads B) automatic drain traps C) extra heavy valves D) low pressure cutoffs E) high water cutouts ```

A) spring loaded safety heads

627. The evaporator is where _____. A) the liquid refrigerant is stored B) the liquid refrigerant absorbs heat and boils into a vapour C) the gas condenses D) most of the refrigerant is stored E) the refrigerant is charged into a liquid

B) the liquid refrigerant absorbs heat and boils into a vapour

628. The liquid receiver is a/an _____. ``` A) oil storage unit B) storage for most of the brine C) contaminated liquid storage tank D) vessel to charge the system with oil E) pressure vessel ```

E) pressure vessel

629. Brine used in ammonia indirect systems is usually _____. ``` A) lithium bromide B) calcium chloride C) sodium chloride D) sodium hydroxide E) calcium hydroxide ```

B) calcium chloride

630. In an indirect ammonia system using brine _____. A) the refrigerant is cooled by the brine B) the brine is used to condense the ammonia C) the brine absorbs heat from the space to be cooled D) only freon 22 refrigerants are used E) the condenser pressure must be very high

C) the brine absorbs heat from the space to be cooled

631. Absorption systems compared to compression require _____. ``` A) more items of equipment B) less items of equipment C) approximately the same a,punt of equipment D) less space E) more electrical power to run ```

A) more items of equipment

632. Absorption type refrigeration systems require _____. ``` A) condenser, receiver, compressor and expansion valve B) reciprocating compressors C) pumps and compressors D) centrifugal compressors E) more space than compression systems ```

E) more space than compression systems

633. The direct refrigeration system is one in which the evaporator is in direct contact with _____. A) the cooling water in the condenser B) the material being refrigerated C) the calcium chloride in the cooling coil D) the brine in the brine tank E) the cooling water on the suction side of the compressor

B) the material bring refrigerated

634. Solution of calcium chloride used in an indirect refrigeration system can be subjected to temperature as low as _____. ``` A) -11 C B) -18 C C) -25 C D) -51 C E) -4 C ```

D) -51 C

635. The evaporator in a centrifugal compressor (chiller unit) system is also called a _____. ``` A) vaporizer B) eliminator C) purger D) cooler E) vent condenser ```

D) cooler

636. A two stage, duplex compressor refrigeration system is used where _____. A) moderate low temperatures are required B) extremely low temperatures are required C) small quantities of refrigerant are required D) high quantities of refrigerant are required E) the cost of refrigerant is high

B) extremely low temperatures are required

637. A duplex compression refrigeration system is used when temperatures below _____ degrees C are required ``` A) -18 B) -20 C) -46 D) -51 E) -92 ```

E) -92

638. In a two stage duplex compressor refrigeration system, the condenser for the first stage is the _____ for the second stage. ``` A) eliminator B) purges C) receiver D) evaporator E) liquid cooler ```

D) evaporator

639. In a two stage refrigeration system, the first stage compressor is usually a _____ compressor. ``` A) centrifugal B) axial flow C) diffuser D) rotary E) reciprocating ```

D) rotary

640. In a two stage refrigeration system, the first stage compressor is also known as a _____ compressor. ``` A) booster B) standby C) low volume D) extraction E) refrigerant ```

A) booster

641. In a two stage refrigeration system, the second stage compressor is usually a _____ compressor. ``` A) centrifugal B) axial flow C) diffuser D) rotary E) reciprocating ```

E) reciprocating

642. Because of the greater range between the suction and discharge pressures of s multi stage refrigeration system, the necessary compression is usually divided between _____ single stage compressors. ``` A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 ```

A) 2

643. There are _____ basic elements common to most compression refrigeration systems. ``` A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 ```

D) 5

644. A/an _____ is usually provided between the low pressure discharge and high pressure suction of a multi stage refrigeration system. ``` A) condenser B) receiver C) purged D) evaporator E) intercooler ```

E) intercooler

645. The separation of the solution of ammonia and water in the ammonia absorption system is done by means of _____. ``` A) heat B) sprayers C) gravity D) rectification E) centrifuge ```

A) heat

At about 240 kPa, the ammonia will boil at a temperature of about _____ degrees C. ``` A) -10 B) -15 C) -20 D) -25 E) -30 ```

B) -15

647. When the pressure difference across a capillary tube is increased _____. A) the flow of refrigerant increases B) the flow of refrigerant decreases C) the pressure of the refrigerant increases D) the pressure of the refrigerant decreases E) there is no change in the flow rate

A) the flow of the refrigerant increases

648. The king valve on an ammonia vapor compressor system serves as a _____. ``` A) refrigerant control valve B) valve to connect the ammonia drum when charging the system C) brine control valve D) master isolation shut off valve E) the condenser flow control ```

D) master isolation shut off valve

649. The automatic expansion valve is controlled by _____. ``` A) transmitter B) evaporator pressure C) capillary action D) refrigerant level E) the king valve ```

B) evaporator pressure

650. The thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow by _____. A) liquid level in the condenser B) a temperature sensor at the evaporator inlet C) evaporator pressure D) liquid level in the evaporator E) a temperature sensor at the evaporator outlet

E) a temperature sensor at the evaporator outlet

651. The low side float valve is controlled by _____. ``` A) refrigerant level in the receiver B) the brine level C) a float connected to/or in the evaporator D) evaporator pressure E) refrigerant level in the condenser ```

B) the brine level

652. A capillary tube is mainly used on _____. ``` A) large industrial refrigeration units B) small household systems C) ammonia systems D) lithium bromide units E) absorption systems ```

B) small household systems

653. The high side float is usually installed on _____. A) the liquid receiver or may act as a float chamber itself B) the evaporator inlet C) the condenser D) the line between the compressor and condenser E) the line between the condenser and receiver

A) the liquid receiver or may act as a float chamber itself

654. The capillary tube has a _____. ``` A) very small diameter B) medium sized diameter C) large diameter D) convergent divergent cross section E) concave cross sectional area ```

A) very small diameter

655. Refrigeration control can be achieved by regulating the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator and also by _____. ``` A) increasing the brine concentration B) regulating the output of the compressor C) removing refrigerant from the system D) increasing the level of the receiver E) regulating the level of the condenser ```

B) regulating the output of the compressor

656. The starting and stopping of the compressor is normally done automatically by means of _____. ``` A) a pressure limiting device B) an automatic low pressure cut out C) either a temperature actuated control or a pressure actuated control D) a rheostat E) a heat sensor in the evaporator ```

C) either a temperature actuated control or a pressure actuated control

657. Condenser cooling water is usually controlled by _____. ``` A) level controls B) cooling tower demands C) solenoid valves D) hand operated gate valves E) the level in the receiver ```

D) hand operated gate valves

658. A low pressure control in a refrigerating system can be used for _____. ``` A) condenser pressure control B) to start and stop the compressor C) purging non condensable gases D) keeping the receiver pressure from getting too high E) evaporator pressure control ```

B) to start and stop the compressor

659. Low pressure cut outs are used on refrigeration systems to _____. A) start the compressor on high pressure B) stop the compressor when the suction pressure drops too low C) shut the system down due to non condensable gases D) stop the compressor when charging the system E) stop the compressor when the discharge pressure is too low

B) stop the compressor when the suction pressure drops too low

660. Pressure relief devices may be _____. A) safety valves and pressure limiting devices B) low pressure cutouts and rupture members C) relief valves, fusible plugs, or rupture members D) charging safety equipment E) high and low level cut offs

C) relief valves, fusible plugs or rupture members

661. An oil pressure failure switch is used to _____. A) prevent damage to the compressor due to inadequate lubrication B) add oil automatically to the compressor C) warn the operator of low oil D) close the expansion valve if the oil pressure gets low E) prevent damage to the condenser due to inadequate oil level

A) prevent damage to the compressor due to inadequate lubrication

662. The oil separator is always inserted in the system _____. ``` A) to prevent oil logging B) in a cool pot C) discharge line D) suction line E) the bottom of the evaporator ```

C) discharge line

663. Oil separators and traps on an ammonia system _____. A) return the oil to the receiver B) remove the oil from the condenser discharge and direct it to the drain C) separate the oil from the compressor discharge and return it to the compressor D) help the oil in the condenser and receiver to be drained when necessary E) separate the oil from the receiver and return it to the compressor

C) separate the oil from the compressor discharge and return it to the compressor

664. Purging lines and valves are usually located in ammonia compression systems on the _____. ``` A) evaporator outlet B) bottom of the receiver C) top of the receiver D) compressor outlet E) top of the evaporator ```

C) top of the receiver

665. Refrigeration systems are purged _____. ``` A) to release excess refrigerant B) to rid the system of non condensable gases C) to rid the system of moisture D) to lower the evaporator pressure E) to lower the system pressure ```

C) to rid the system of non condensable gases

666. Purge valves are required on a refrigeration system for _____. A) ridding the system of oil vapours B) getting rid of non condensable gases in the brine C) reducing back pressure on startup D) purging non condensable gases out of the system E) purging oil out of the condenser

D) purging non condensable gases out of the system

667. Moisture in refrigerating systems could cause _____. ``` A) high temperatures B) freeze ups and clogged expansion valves C) the relief valves to open D) high discharge pressure E) high suction pressure ```

B) freeze ups and clogged expansion valves

668. The effects of moisture in a refrigeration system are: A) it helps to cool and increase the refrigeration effect B) it does not cause any troubles C) it can freeze and clog expansion valves D) it prevents condensate from forming E) it can cause high receiver level

C) it can freeze and clog expansion valves

669. Moisture in refrigeration systems can be removed by _____. ``` A) purger B) heating the refrigerant C) making the oil more absorbent D) using a dehydration device or strainer dryer E) blowing down the system ```

D) using a dehydration device or strainer dryer

670. Freon leaks are usually detected by _____. ``` A) a lighted sulphur stick B) a sniffer C) using a blow torch D) a halide torch E) a carbon tetrachloride detector ```

D) a halide torch

671. If dry nitrogen is used as a testing medium in refrigeration systems the following procedure should be used. A) remove the relief valves but not the controls B) use higher pressure gauges C) remove controls, relief valves and isolate the compressor and block off holes where relief valves were fitted D) call the Boiler inspector E) all gas detectors must be activated

C) remove controls, relief valves and isolate the compressor and block off holes where relief valves were fitted

672. Before charging a refrigeration system, a high vacuum is maintained in order to _____. ``` A) draw in atmospheric air B) prevent an explosion C) condense moisture to be removed D) prevent condensate from evaporating E) evaporate moisture so it can be removed in vapor form ```

E) evaporate moisture so it can be removed in vapor form

673. The liquid charging valve is usually connected to a line located _____. A) between the liquid shut off valve and the expansion valve B) between the king valve and the condenser C) at the compressor discharge line D) between the purge valve and condenser E) between the purge valve and the expansion valve

A) between the liquid shut off valve and the expansion valve

674. In an indirect ammonia system using brine and a water cooled condenser, the discharge pressure is controlled by _____. A) the load on the brine B) regulating the expansion valve C) regulating the cooling water to the condenser D) using a pressure release valve E) the amount of ammonia refrigerant used

C) regulating the cooling water to the condenser

675. In an indirect ammonia vapor compression system using brine, the suction pressure is controlled by _____. A) the load on the brine B) the flow of the condensing water to the condenser C) throttling the metering valve D) equalizing valve E) the flow of the cooling water to the suction side of the compressor

A) the load on the brine

676. A pressure limiting device will _____. A) a prevent the rupture disc from breaking B) prevent the emergency disc from breaking C) stop the compressor before the relief valves lift D) keep the clearance pocket pressure regulated E) prevent the pressure relief valve from discharging

C) stop the compressor before the relief valves lift

677. The emergency discharge line on refrigeration systems shall _____. A) be connected directly to the top of the receiver or other vessel used for storing the refrigerant B) be connected to the compressor C) have two valves connected to charging drum D) have two return bends in the piping E) be connected directly to the top of the condenser and the compressor

A) be connected directly to the top of the receiver or other vessel used for storing the refrigerant

678. The emergency valve shall be installed _____. A) within reach h of the receiver B) outside of the engine room at a height of two meters C) in a glass fronted box painted yellow D) in a glass fronted box painted bright orange, inside of the control room and so placed that it cannot be tampered with by any other than the person called upon to open the valve in an emergency E) in a glass fronted box painted bright red, outside of the building and so placed that it cannot be tampered with by any other than the person called upon to open the valve in an emergency

E) in a glass fronted box painted bright red,outside of the building and so placed that it cannot be tampered with by any other than the person called upon to open the valve in an emergency

679. The emergency line of refrigeration system shall be provided with a _____. ``` A) check valve B) diffuser at its upper end which shall be placed above the roof C) strainer D) drain valve E) two stop valves ```

B) diffuser at its upper end which shall be placed above the roof

680. Pressure limiting devices of refrigeration systems shall be connected _____. A) between the compressor and the stop valve on the suction side B) to a blowdown tank C) to the receiver outlet D) between the compressor and the stop valve on the discharge side E) between the inlet of the condenser and the outlet of the receiver

D) between the compressor and the stop valve on the discharge side

681. The person in charge of a refrigerating system, containing more than 24 kg of refrigerant _____. ``` A) shall post a card of instructions near the refrigerant compressor B) shall have the instructions in safe keeping C) shall not worry about emergency instructions D) shall give the operators the instructions E) shall be operated by 3rd class power engineer only ```

A) shall post a card of instructions near the refrigerant compressor

682. Regulations for refrigeration are contained in the _____. ``` A) CSA B-51 code B) CSA B-52 code C) ASME Section IV D) ASME Section VII E) ASME Mechanical refrigeration code ```

B) CSA B-52 code

683. The emergency valve on ammonia systems should be _____. A) located near the compressor B) between emergency line and the evaporator C) located outside the building D) near the fire alarm E) located at the exit leading to the outside of the building

C) located outside the building

684. High pressure cut outs at used on refrigeration systems to _____. A) stop the compressor when the pressure on the high pressure side of the system is too high B) stop the compressor when the pressure on the low pressure side of the system is too low C) stop the compressor due to non condensable gases in the system being too high D) stop the compressor when changing the system E) stop the compressor when the system ran too long

A) stop the compressor when the pressure on the high pressure side of the system is too high

685. Pressure limiting devices should be provided on a refrigeration system with more than _____ kg of refrigerant. ``` A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9 ```

E) 9

686. The problem with oil is the greatest in the _____ of a refrigeration system. ``` A) condenser B) receiver C) evaporator D) compressor E) purger ```

C) evaporator

687. An oil separator is installed in refrigeration systems to prevent oil from carrying over to the _____. ``` A) condenser B) receiver C) evaporator D) compressor E) purger ```

A) condenser

688. Which of the following oil separator is used in a refrigeration consists series of baffles through which the oil laden refrigerant must pass? ``` A) cyclone B) impingement C) oil still D) inverted trap E) I.G.F. ```

B) impingement

689. The presence of non condensable gases in a refrigeration system can cause _____. ``` A) breakdown of the lubricating oil B) impurities in the refrigerant C) low discharge pressure D) high discharge pressure E) low suction pressure ```

D) high discharge pressure

690. The majority of the non condensable gases in a refrigeration system tend to collect at the highest point of the _____ naturally. ``` A) compressor B) receiver C) condenser D) evaporator E) purger ```

C) condenser

691. When moisture combines with refrigerants it could cause the formation of _____. ``` A) concentrated refrigerant B) diluted refrigerant C) mildly corrosive compounds D) highly corrosive compounds E) strong base cation ```

D) highly corrosive compounds

692. When using _____ as a refrigerant, moisture corrosion will not usually be a problem. ``` A) ammonia B) propane C) R-12 D) R-22 E) CO2 ```

D) R-22

693. Before admitting any refrigerant, the entire refrigeration system is put _____. ``` A) slightly above atmospheric pressure B) well above atmospheric pressure C) under a slight vacuum D) under a high vacuum E) above the dew point ```

D) under a high vacuum

694. A salometer is a type of _____ that is used to indicate the percentage of salt in a solution. ``` A) hydrometer B) manometer C) flowmeter D) concentrator E) spectrophotometer ```

A) hydrometer

695. When a concentrated solution is at its lowest freezing point, it is called a _____ solution. ``` A) sub temperature B) super critical C) sub critical D) critical E) eutectic ```

E) eutectic

696. The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of sodium chloride and water is _____. ``` A) -12 C B) -21 C C) -30 C D) -43 C E) -51 C ```

B) -21 C

697. The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of calcium chloride and water is _____. ``` A) -12 C B) -21 C C) -30 C D) -43 C E) -51 C ```

E) -51 C

698. A _____ works on the principle of cool air contacting and removing heat from warm water. ``` A) shell and tube exchanger B) circulating pump C) cooling tower D) evaporator E) deaerator ```

C) cooling tower

699. The hyperbolic cooling tower has the advantages of: 1) low initial cost 2) low power consumption 3) long service life 4) minimum maintenance ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 2,3,4

700. The cooling tower design in which the fan is least likely to ice up is: ``` A) hyperbolic B) induced draft C) forced draft D) counterflow E) balance draft ```

B) induced draft

701. The cooling tower design in which the noise level from the fan is likely to be the lowest is: ``` A) hyperbolic B) induced draft C) forced draft D) counterflow E) balance draft ```

B) induced draft

702. The double pipe heat exchanger belongs to the _____ category. ``` A) regenerative B) bent pipe C) double tube D) jacketed pipe E) recuperative ```

E) recuperative

703. The concentric pipe heat exchanger is suitable for high pressure service because _____. ``` A) the metal selected is stainless steel B) the tubes, etc are small in dimension C) the tubes are seamless construction D) the unit is ASME stamped E) none of the above ```

B) the tubes, etc are small in dimension

704. The double pipe heat exchanger is a _____ flow design. ``` A) concurrent B) high differential temperature C) high differential pressure D) counter-current E) low differential temperature ```

D) counter-current

705. Concentric pipe heat exchanger fins can be attached by _____. ``` A) mechanical insertion B) casting C) brazing D) none of the above E) all of the above ```

A) mechanical insertion

706. The disadvantages of hairpin heat exchangers are: 1) small heat transfer surface area 2) not a flexible design 3) cleaning is expensive 4) each hairpin introduces more leak points 5) non-standardized parts ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,4,5 E) 2,4,5 ```

A) 1,3,4

707. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a U-shaped shell and tube heat exchanger? ``` A) tubes are bent to a minimum radius B) outer tubes are easily replaced C) only one tube sheet D) no differential expansion E) good for high temperatures only ```

C) only one tube sheet

708. U shaped shell and tube heat exchangers are not known for _____. ``` A) high heat transfer rates B) high temperatures C) high pressure D) high differential expansion E) all of the above ```

D) high differential expansion

709. Fixed tube sheet shell and tube heat exchangers have _____. ``` A) tube sheets that are contained within the shell B) little access for cleaning C) tubes that are hard to plug D) tube sheets not welded to the shell E) none of the above ```

E) none of the above

710. Fixed tube sheet chemical cleaning is used to clean _____. ``` A) the inside of the tubes B) the outside of the tubes C) only the tubesheets D) all of the above E) none of the above ```

B) the outside of the tubes

711. The floating tube sheet in the design allows for the _____. A) tube bundles to be easily removed B) tube bundles to be easily repaired C) different designs for different applications D) different rates of expansion E) use of different pressures and temperatures

D) different rates of expansion

712. Reboilers are _____. A) an exchanger with process fluids on the tube inside B) a Boiler with steam on the outside of the tubes C) an exchanger with steam inside the tubes D) an exchanger that only reheats fluids to drive off vapours E) a Boiler that produces steam to heat vapours

C) an exchanger with steam inside the tubes

713. What are the advantages of a kettle type reboiler? 1) provides flexibility 2) rapid steamer 3) gravity circulation 4) easily accessible 5) smaller size ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,5 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,4,5 E) 1,3,4 ```

E) 1,3,4

714. Horizontal thermosyphon reboilers require _____. ``` A) a large vapor space B) a small vapor space C) a flooded shell D) lots of heat transfer tubes E) placement equal to the liquid level in the tower ```

C) a flooded shell

715. Vertical thermosyphon reboiler often has _____. ``` A) heated liquid on the tube side B) positioning next to a horizontal tower C) steam on the tube side D) liquid on the shell side E) all of the above ```

A) heated liquid on the tube side

716. In a horizontal thermosyphon reboiler, heat is controlled by _____. A) adding more steam to the vessel B) raising the vapor pressure on the shell C) reducing the vapor pressure on the shell D) raising the levels on the shell side E) by varying the condensate level in the tube side

E) by varying the condensate level in the tube side

717. Plate heat exchangers (PHE's) use what to separate the two mediums a/an _____. ``` A) rubber gaskets B) different flow patterns C) the plate corrugations D) inlet and outlet piping E) alternate plates ```

E) alternate plates

718. Maximum cooling in PHE's is maintained by _____. ``` A) corrugating the plates B) inlets and outlets at the plate corners C) counter flowing the two streams D) the thickness of the gaskets E) thinness of the steel plates ```

B) inlets and outlets at the plate corners

719. High heat transfer coefficients are maintained by _____. ``` A) the use of numerous plates B) the use of stainless steel C) thinness of the gaskets D) close spacing of the plates E) all of the above ```

D) close spacing of the plates

720. The use of compression bolts on PHE's is to _____. ``` A) tighten end plates B) seal gaskets C) compress the plate pack D) decrease flow channel size E) all of the above ```

E) all of the above

721. Advantages of PHE's include: 1) a rapid startup 2) leakage easily detected 3) enables use of low flow rates for erosion 4) can cool toxic materials 5) minimal heat loss ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 3,4,5 E) 1,3,5 ```

E) 1,3,5

732. Aerial coolers are not used for _____. ``` A) cooling below ambient temperature B) where water supply is limited C) cooling in series with water coolers D) cooling before water coolers E) cooling where water fouling is a concern ```

A) cooling below ambient temperature

723. Aerial cooling can be used when the liquid temperature is above: ``` A) 25 C B) 35 C C) 45 C D) 55 C E) 65 C ```

D) 55 C

724. Aerial coolers are arranged in _____. ``` A) units B) bays C) bundles D) banks E) all of the above ```

E) all of the above

725. In an aerial cooler, how many bundles are in a bay? ``` A) one B) two C) one or more D) two or more E) three ```

C) one or more

726. In an aerial cooler, a bay has how many fans? ``` A) one B) one or more C) two D) two or more E) three ```

D) two or more

727. Temperatures in aerial coolers are not controlled by _____. ``` A) stop, start of fans B) induced draft fans C) louvers opened or closed D) natural draft E) forced draft ```

D) natural draft

728. Vertical arrangements of overhead aerial coolers are not used _____. ``` A) to take advantage of natural flow fro top to bottom B) to take the wind into consideration C) in steam condensing applications D) to keep the footprint small E) in small Packard units ```

C) in steam condensing applications

729. The most common configuration of an overhead aerial cooler is _____. ``` A) vertical B) A frame C) V frame D) horizontal E) all of the above ```

D) horizontal

730. Overhead aerial condensers control very low freezing temperatures by _____. ``` A) closing louvres at the entrance B) closing louvres at the exit C) recirculating hot exhaust air D) controlling the fan speed E) shutting down all the fans ```

C) recirculating hot exhaust air

731. The most common configuration of power generating plant steam condensing overhead aerial condensers are _____. ``` A) vertical B) A frame C) V frame D) horizontal E) all of the above ```

B) A frame

732. The most commonly used method of increasing aerial cooler capacity is _____. ``` A) large cooling fans B) increase number of headers C) increase the number of tube bundles D) change the tube configuration E) add fins to the tubes ```

E) add fins to the tubes

733. When cooling fluids, atmospheric spray towers do it depend on _____. ``` A) atmospheric conditions B) wind drift C) wind direction D) tower fill E) spray ```

D) tower fill

734. The cooling process in atmospheric packed tower depends on _____. ``` A) the production of fine droplets B) the direction of the wind C) air speed through the tower D) the proper use of natural currents E) the proper design of the louvres ```

A) the production of fine droplets

735. The greatest savings in a hyperbolic cooling tower is the _____. ``` A) use of small amounts of packing B) concrete structures last forever C) savings in power D) small footprint E) reliability of the tower ```

C) savings in power

736. In counterflow hyperbolic cooling towers, the cooling is most dependant on _____. ``` A) clean suction screens B) density difference of the air C) adequate water flow over the tower D) cooling water drift E) adequate air flows ```

B) density difference of the air

737. Hyperbolic towers are used because _____. ``` A) they work in humid climates B) they are extremely dependable C) they are predictable in operation D) they cost less to maintain E) all of the above ```

E) all of the above

738. Mechanical daft cooling towers are best used when _____. ``` A) they are in a dry climate B) the intakes are unobstructed C) they are close to the plant D) there is no wind E) the water flow in each cell is equal ```

A) they are in a dry climate

739. Makeup to a cooling tower is best prevented by _____. ``` A) use of smaller fans B) installation of tower packing C) use of louvres D) tower orientation E) drift eliminators ```

E) drift eliminators

740. Forced draft cooling towers do not use _____. ``` A) fill B) spray C) pack D) louvres E) drift eliminators ```

D) louvres

741. Forced draft cooling towers are not suited to cold weather operation because _____. A) the fans pump cold air B) the exhausted hot air can not be recirculated C) the cold inlet air causes freezing in the tower bottom D) the drift eliminators freeze up and plug E) none of the above

A) the fans pump cold air

742. What is the greatest advantage of induced draft cooling towers? A) the fans will not freeze B) a smaller footprint fits on an existing site C) no recirculation of warm air D) the induced draft cooling tower has the highest heat transfer E) none of the above

C) no recirculation of warm air

743. The greatest disadvantage of a counterflow induced draft tower is _____. A) the height of the tower B) high horsepower electric motors C) very complex path for the air flow D) structure must be heavier to withstand the heavy weight E) louvres can freeze and cause collapse of the tower

B) high horsepower electric motors

744. The greatest advantage of a cross flow cooling tower is _____. A) they are lower in weight B) they are larger and have a more stable footprint C) they are smaller and have lighter fans D) they have a very long air travel path E) they are less prone to warm air circulation

D) they have a very long air travel path

745. The greatest influence on the operating efficiency of a cooling tower is _____. ``` A) the size of the fans B) the height of the tower C) the length of the air path D) the amount of fill and spray E) the contact time between air and water ```

E) the contact time between air and water

746. The number one reason for fill in cooling tower is to _____. ``` A) break the water into small droplets B) make the air path as tortuous as possible C) increase the cooling capacity D) lower the overall height of the tower E) maximize air/water contact time ```

E) maximize air/water contact time

747. Most indirect fired heaters have _____ firing systems. ``` A) elaborate B) very expansive C) simple D) complicated E) manual ```

C) simple

748. The pilot used for most indirect fired heaters are the _____ type. ``` A) on demand B) ignition C) interrupted D) continuous E) intermittent ```

D) continuous

749. The main burner on the indirect fired heater is turned off and on by a thermostat which senses _____. ``` A) the heater stack temperature B) the heater solution temperature C) the fire tube temperature D) the coil bundle temperature E) the flue gas temperature ```

B) the heater solution temperature

750. Before starting an indirect fired heater, ensure proper operating level of the heat transfer fluid has been established in the heater shell and _____. A) the level is always above the process heating coil B) the level is always just below the process heating coil C) the level is always between the fire tube and the process tube D) the level is always at the mid point of the heater E) the level is always above the expansion tank

A) the level is always above the process heating coil

751. The burner of an indirect heater will burn at _____ rate until the desired heat transfer fluid temperature is reached. ``` A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) full E) modulating ```

D) full

752. Toxicity levels in wastewater treatment are measured in _____. ``` A) mg/L B) kg/L C) mg/mL D) kg/kL E) mg/ML ```

A) mg/L

753. The upper pH level limit for wastewater is at _____ ``` A) 8 B) 8.5 C) 9 D) 9.5 E) 10 ```

B) 8.5

754. The lower pH level limit for wastewater is at _____. ``` A) 5.5 B) 6 C) 6.5 D) 7 E) 7.5 ```

C) 6.5

755. In regards to wastewater the abbreviation BOD means _____. ``` A) bad oil damage B) biodegradable oil demand C) biochemical door department D) biochemical oxygen demand E) biochemical oxygen damage ```

D) biochemical oxygen demand

756. The temperature of the water being dumped into the receiving water is important. The higher the temperature the higher the need for _____. ``` A) chemical treatment B) deaeration C) acidity test D) direct input to the river E) a means of cooling the incoming water ```

E) a means of cooling the incoming water

757. Methods of cooling the wastewater prior to dropping the incoming water into the receiving water are: 1) cooling towers 2) deaeration 3) long serpentine channels 4) retention ponds ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,4 E) 2,3 ```

A) 1,3,4

758. The added benefit of using a cooling tower to cool the wastewater is _____. A) some of the water evaporates in the air, less to take care of B) it increases the dissolved oxygen content of he wastewater C) it will cool the wastewater below ambient temperature D) no operator required E) the chemical oxygen demand is increased

B) it increases the dissolved oxygen content of the wastewater

759. To allow for reasonable separation in an oil/water separation pond, which is a component of an industrial wastewater treatment plant, the separator should have sufficient capacity to hold the average flow for _____, ``` A) 1 day B) 1 to 2 days C) 2 to 3 days D) 3 to 4 days E) 4 to 5 days ```

C) 2 to 3 days

760. The stabilization lagoon should be large enough to hold the effluent of the oil/water separation pond to contain _____ discharge from the plant. ``` A) one week B) two weeks C) thee weeks D) one month E) two months ```

D) one month

761. In order to enable aerobic bacteria and other organisms to break down the organic components in the wastewater _____ are used. ``` A) clarifies B) chemicals C) enzymes D) a combination of sun light and ultraviolet light E) compressed air bubbles ```

E) compressed air bubbles

762. _____ is/are mixed with the effluent of the wastewater heater to help break down the organic materials in the flow. ``` A) activated sludge B) activated chemicals C) oils D) polishing chemicals E) steam ```

A) activated sludge

763. In the clarifier some of the activated sludge is sent back to the first stage aeration tank, the remainder is sent to _____. ``` A) wastewater heater B) disposal C) second stage aeration D) polishing pond E) oil/water separation pond ```

B) disposal

764. The removal of inorganic material in municipal wastewater system is carried out in grit and screen sections. This removal section is sometimes known as _____. ``` A) tailworks B) hardworks C) headworks D) midworks E) removalworks ```

C) headworks

765. The primary separation of suspended solids is facilitated by _____. ``` A) pumps B) chemicals C) activated sludge D) gravity E) rotating biological contactors ```

D) gravity

766. Grit, which has been removed from the wastewater in the grit chamber, is then disposed of _____. ``` A) in barrels B) in an incinerator C) in a toxic dump D) o farmers field E) in landfill ```

E) in landfill

767. A rotating trash screen used in a wastewater treatment plant is also called a _____. ``` A) comminuter B) compactor C) constrictor D) accumulator E) barminutor ```

A) comminuter

768. In a wastewater plant, some organic material accumulates on the screen, this organic material is acceptable as landfill material. A) true B) false

B) false

769. An ångström unit is equivalent to _____. ``` A) 10 to the power of -10 B) 10 to the power of -6 C) 10 to the power of -3 D) 10 to the power of -2 E) 10 to the power of -1 ```

A) 10 to the power of -10

770. _____ particles, are so small that they will not settle at the bottom or float to the top. ``` A) ångström B) colloidal C) activated sludge D) barminutor E) grit ```

B) colloidal

771. This wastewater process involves changing the charge of the colloidal particles is called _____. ``` A) coagulation B) floatation C) flocculation D) sedimentation E) clarifier ```

C) flocculation

772. This wastewater process involves changing the colloidal particles charge, attaching them to polyelectrolytes and allowing them to settle is called _____. ``` A) sedimentation B) flotation C) flocculation D) coagulation E) clarifier ```

D) coagulation

773. In the coagulation process, the sedimentation takes about _____ hours. ``` A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 ```

E) 4

774. Coagulation involves the following processes: 1) mixing 2) floatation 3) flocculation 4) stabilization lagoon 5) settling ``` A) 1,3,5 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,3 E) 1,4,5 ```

A) 1,3,5

775. The bacteria in activated sludge needs _____ to live. ``` A) water B) oxygen C) sugar D) aluminum sulphate E) salts ```

B) oxygen

776. The bacteria in activated sludge feeds on _____ in the wastewater. ``` A) aluminum sulphate B) salts C) organic material D) polyelectrolytes E) water ```

C) organic material

777. A rotating biological contactor's main purpose is to reduce the _____ of the wastewater. ``` A) temperature value B) acidity value C) toxicity D) biochemical oxygen demand value E) pH value ```

D) biochemical oxygen demand value

778. The shaft of a rotating contactor is mounted in such a way that _____ of the shaft is exposed to the air. ``` A) 0.1 B) 0.2 C) 0.3 D) 0.4 E) 0.5 ```

E) 0.5

779. A rotating biological contactor rotates at _____. ``` A) 1-2 rpm B) 3-5 rpm C) 5-10 rpm D) 10-20 rpm E) over 20 rpm ```

A) 1-2 rpm

780. The permeable portion of a trickling filter can be made of: 1) bed of rock 2) screens 3) shredder 4) slag 5) plastic ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,4,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 3,4,5 E) 1,2,3,4,5 ```

B) 1,4,5

781. The wastewater is properly cleaned when the conditions are optimized. This means _____. A) the filters have a large enough diameter B) the quality of the wastewater is below the guidelines for the plant C) the quantity of material in the wastewater is properly matched to the right quantity and types of organisms D) the quantity of material in the wastewater is properly matched to the right types of organisms and speed of the rotating biological contactor E) the grit level is low

C) the quantity of material in the wastewater is properly matched to the right quantity and types of organisms

782. The only place inlet samples are taken from is at the _____. ``` A) flare pit B) stabilization lagoon C) headworks D) oil/filter separator E) clarifier ```

C) headworks

783. In a PBNR process, _____ are removed. ``` A) carbon dioxides B) colloidal materials C) inorganic materials D) phosphorous compounds E) sand and suspended solids ```

D) phosphorous compounds

784. The manometer used when doing a BOD test is graduated in _____. ``` A) g/L B) kg/L C) mg/kL D) dg/kL E) mg/L ```

E) mg/L

785. When doing a settleability test the sample needs to sit for _____ minutes prior to taking a reading. ``` A) 35 B) 30 C) 25 D) 20 E) 15 ```

B) 30

786. In a preventative maintenance system, mechanical work means: 1) inspecting 2) adjusting 3) preparing work orders 4) parts inventory control 5) lubricating ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,5 E) 2,4,5 ```

D) 1,2,5

787. Preventative maintenance is the systematic inspection, cleaning, lubrication, and servicing of equipment. A) true B) false

A) true

788. If occasional shut downs are not critical or do not lead to expensive loss of production, preventative maintenance may be of marginal interest. A) true B) false

A) true

789. Preventative maintenance is the systematic _____,_____,_____,_____ of equipment. 1) cleaning 2) inspection 3) lubrication 4) supervision 5) servicing ``` A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,3,5 C) 2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,4,5 E) 3,4,5 ```

B) 1,2,3,5

790. Preventative maintenance is based on: 1) repairing deficiencies 2) reporting deficiencies 3) scheduling maintenance inspections 4) recording repairs performed ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

791. Inspecting, adjusting, and cleaning fall under which classification of preventative maintenance? ``` A) actual work B) pre-work C) maintenance work D) mechanical work E) temporary work ```

D) mechanical work

792. Preventative maintenance can be separated into two classifications: 1) actual work 2) paper work 3) mechanical work 4) maintenance work ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 1,4 E) 2,4 ```

B) 2,3

793. Parts inventory control falls under which classification of preventative maintenance: ``` A) actual work B) paper work C) temporary work D) mechanical work E) pre-work ```

B) paper work

794. A third class chief engineer should be familiar with the following maintenance management areas: 1) preventative maintenance 2) management information system 3) work order system 4) planning and scheduling work ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2 E) 3,4 ```

B) 1,3,4

795. Operations administration records are kept to a minimum and are only taken daily and weekly. A) true B) false

B) false

796. The authority that makes the keeping of the log book mandatory is the: ``` A) boilers act B) industry trade union C) plant or chief engineer D) institute of power engineers E) workers compensation board ```

A) boilers act

797. Requirements for the provincial Boiler and pressure vessels act and regulations, as far as record keeping goes, the following must be adhered to. 1) a logbook is kept in all plants 2) the logbook must be available to the inspector and is a legal document 3) the Boiler registration and inspection certificates are kept in a safe place 4) the chief inspector is kept informed of all accidents and casualties ``` A) 3,4 B) 2,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

798. Required records are kept: 1) to comply with the provincial boilers and pressure vessels act and regulations 2) to comply with the provincial workers compensation board 3) to comply with the ASME codes 4) to comply with the insurance companies ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2 E) 2,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

799. The logbook is: A) a legal document B) not required by Boiler inspector C) not to be used as evidence in inquiries D) not to be used for recording operating temperatures and pressures E) used to record absenteeism

A) a legal document

800. Gantt charts used in planning techniques are used for showing: 1) total time scheduled for a job 2) work done compared with work schedule 3) work completed 4) start of work ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

D) 1,2,3,4

801. In order to construct a good plan for a boiler outage, you must know: 1) the extent and complexity of repairs 2) the cost of the spare parts required 3) the effects of the shutdown on production 4) the availability of a Boiler inspector ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 3,4 ```

C) 1,3,4

802. The limitations of using a Gantt chart as a planning technique is that it: A) does not foresee delays or trouble B) cannot cover enough basic information C) is only good for very small planning jobs D) is very hard to follow E) cannot be used to indicate actual work completed

A) does not foresee delays or trouble

803. The pre-work phase of a plan is to formulate the plan. A) true B) false

A) true

804. The actual work phase of a plan is to make sure that the work is done, hopefully meeting most of the time allocations. A) true B) false

A) true

805. The purpose of a review of a plan is: 1) to gain experience 2) to recommend changes for the next time 3) to inform other people of various problems 4) to make a report to become part of the continuous program of planning ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

3B2 Flashcards

(607 cards)