4 Flashcards

(20 cards)

1
Q

Dental Decay (Caries)

A

Bacteria cause demineralization, cavitation
• Can attack teeth thru life span
• Some types are more common in older people:
Recurrent caries: decay at the interface of a dental restoration (e.g., filling or crown) and tooth
• Root caries
• Both recurrent/ root caries are asymptomatic-may become advanced before discovery= destruction of much or all of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient-level risk factors for suboptimal transitions

A

Low education (<high school)

Limited ADL support

Poor self-management skills

Living alone

Poor health perception

Prior hospitalizations/long stays

Low income or homelessness

Age, ≥5 multimorbidities (e.g., depression, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, cancer, substance abuse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

System-level risk factors

A

High hospital admission communities

Lack of discharge education

Poor communication across settings

Failure to implement follow-up plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What defines an optimal transition of care?

A

Coordinated, timely, and safe movement of patients across settings, with accurate information transfer, patient empowerment, and continuity of care. Goal: reduce 30- and 90-day readmissions

Contains care coordination, discharge planning and disease or case management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Key components of optimal transitions:

A

Accurate, timely transfer of information

Patient empowerment for their preferences

Comprehensive assessment of patient & caregiver needs

Comprehensive Med review & mgmt

logistical arrangement to execute transition (home health, oxygen, PT, social work)

Discharge planning starts at admission

Coordination with medical & community resources

Follow-up after discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Barriers to safe transitions

A

Diverse patient needs
lack of provider education/feedback (no discharge summary/poor knowledge of post-acute settings)
communication difficulties w/colleague at time of transition
time/resource constraints (no reimbursement in US system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the CCTP (Community-Based Care Transitions Program (CCTP) / Policy Approach)

A

Federally funded program (2011) to improve transitions of Medicare patients; shown dec 30-day rehospitalizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CMS transitional care management codes (99495): in 2013

A

Within 2 business days post-discharge: contact patient (phone, email, in-person)
Moderate complexity medical decision-making

Face-to-face visit within 14 days. Home with family support and home with home healthcare = reimbursed by Medicare

Transitional care mgmt payment codes allow ambulatory care provider to bill for services they perform to assist with transitions of care in the first 30d of d/c from inpt setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Medicare post-discharge destination coverage:

A

Home health services: nursing, PT, OT, speech, social work, aides
Requires OA receiving home health be homebound
Custodial care (Alf/nursing home)

Covers snf up to 100 days oost hospital stay for skilled needs (IV tx, artificial nutrition/hydration, wound/ostomy care, rehab)

Acute rehab: must tolerate 3 hrs/day therapy- for OA w/substantial and considerable rehab need/potential

Long-term acute care: for prolonged care needs (long term ventilation, IV nutrition, complex wound care, multiple IV meds)
Inpt hospice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Discharge medication instructions:

A

Indication for each med, stop dates, tapering schedule, CLEAR behavior triggers for PRN psych meds

Reconcile pre-admission & new medications preadmit med that have been stopped, dosage of cont’d meds that changed

Meds added during hospital stay as PRN/ppx (analgesics/ppi/laxative) can be tapered/discontinued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Key info to communicate to next clinician:

A

Direct communication of: Critical but pending study results, goals of care (pt preferences & adv directives)
family/caregiver dynamics,

Brief discharge summary suffices:
Hospital course summary w/care provided and important test results,
problems/diagnoses list,
functional & cognitive status at BL/discharge
Reconciled med list, allergies, follow-ups appt, test results still outstanding

contact info for discharge clinician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Risk factors for dental decay

A

Poor oral hygiene: d/t impaired visual acuity, no manual dexterity, limited upper extremity flexibility; or diminished salivary flow

-frequent sticky, starchy, sugary foods (esp at night)
- infrequent dental visits d/t diminished sensitivity, permanent or removable artificial teeth & limited lifetime exposure to fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Examples of evidence-based programs:

A

Project RED: Education, discharge planning, med reconciliation, PCP communication dec 30-day ED visits & hospitalizations

GRACE Initiative: Home-based NP + social worker care = dec hospital & nursing home admissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

peridontal disease

A

Periodontitis is worse in patients with poorly controlled diabetes, and may impair diabetic control
-linked epidemiologically and immunologically to peripheral vascular disease, CVD, CAD to the circulating C reactive proteins
-the same pathogens causing periodontitis to be aspirated into the lungs to cause pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what organism causes periodontitis?

A

Plaque or Porphyromonas gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

salivary function in aging

A

the major salivary glands undergo regressive histologic changes with aging
-by old age, healthy glands are more susceptible to factors that impede function such as dehydration or drug-induced hypofunction

17
Q

Erythroplakia

A

Redness or mix of red/white patch of tissue/lesions in the oral cavity that cannot be associated with inflammation
-biopsy immediately!
Account on 93% of cellular atypia

18
Q

Leukoplakia

A

thickened, white, pre-malignant leathery-looking spots on the inside of the mouth that can develop into oral cancer
<10% become malignant
-monitor closely, biopsy if increasing in size or not gone in 14 days (2 wks)

19
Q

Demographics of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the mouth

A

Oral cancer incidence rates are higher for White males than for Hispanic and Black males. The incidence of oral cancer increases with age.

20
Q

epidemiology of oral squamous cell carcinoma

A

most frequent malignancies worldwide, accounts for 90% of all oral cavity cancers.

Multiple risk factors associated,
smoking, alcohol intake,
infection, sun exposure, poor oral hygiene, chronic irritability, and genetic disorders.