4.2 Rape Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

Under which section of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 is the offence of rape defined?

A

Section 1.

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2
Q

What is the maximum penalty for the offence of rape?

A

Life imprisonment.

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3
Q

The offence of rape is triable on _____.

A

Indictment.

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4
Q

What three body parts can be the subject of penetration in the offence of rape?

A

The vagina, anus, or mouth.

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5
Q

According to the Sexual Offences Act 2003, rape is an offence that can only be committed via the use of the _____.

A

Penis.

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6
Q

Can a woman be convicted of rape as a principal offender?

A

No, it can only be committed as a principal by a man (or person with a penis).

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7
Q

Under what legal theory can a woman be convicted in relation to rape?

A

Aiding and abetting (as an accessory).

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8
Q

According to s. 79(9), what specific part of the female anatomy is included in the term ‘vagina’?

A

The vulva.

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9
Q

Is it necessary to prove that the hymen was ruptured to show penetration of the vagina?

A

No.

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10
Q

Section 1(2) states that the reasonableness of a defendant’s belief in consent must be determined having regard to all the circumstances, including _____.

A

Any steps the defendant took to ascertain whether the complainant consented.

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11
Q

In which context are more steps likely to be expected of a defendant to ascertain consent?

A

Where there is no established relationship.

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12
Q

How does s. 79(2) define the duration of penetration?

A

As a continuing act from entry to withdrawal.

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13
Q

True or False: Proof of ejaculation is necessary to establish the offence of rape.

A

False, it is entirely irrelevant to the offence.

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14
Q

How does s. 79(3) ensure the offence of rape protects and applies to transsexual individuals?

A

It includes references to body parts that have been surgically constructed.

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15
Q

How is ‘consent’ defined under s. 74 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003?

A

Agreeing by choice, while having the freedom and capacity to make that choice.

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16
Q

Any consent given must be ‘true’ consent, not simply a _____ induced by fear or fraud.

A

Submission.

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17
Q

Which case involved a police officer using threats to take children away to negate ‘true’ consent?

A

R v Stephen Mitchell.

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18
Q

According to R v Howard (1965), when does a complainant lack the ‘capacity’ to agree by choice?

A

When their understanding and knowledge are so limited they cannot decide whether to agree.

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19
Q

If consent is withdrawn during the act, at what point does continued penetration become a sexual offence?

A

Immediately upon the withdrawal of consent.

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20
Q

What was the general ruling in R v B [2006] regarding HIV status and consent?

A

Non-disclosure of HIV status does not generally vitiate consent to sexual intercourse.

21
Q

Under what condition might HIV status vitiate consent according to R v McNally [2013]?

A

If the complainant had been positively assured that the accused was not HIV-positive.

22
Q

If an HIV-positive person makes no mention of their condition, under which Act might they be charged?

A

Offences Against the Person Act 1861 (s. 18 or s. 20).

23
Q

In Assange v Sweden [2011], the court held that consent is negated if a complainant makes it clear they only consent if the defendant uses a _____.

24
Q

In R (F) v DPP [2013], why was consent negated regarding the defendant’s ejaculation?

A

The defendant deliberately ejaculated inside the victim despite agreeing to withdraw beforehand.

25
In McNally v R [2013], the court determined that deception as to _____ can vitiate consent.
Gender.
26
Does a lie about one's wealth generally vitiate consent in the context of sexual offences?
No.
27
What was the ruling in R v Lawrence [2020] regarding a lie about a vasectomy?
A lie about fertility is not capable in law of negating consent.
28
Why did the lie in R v Lawrence [2020] fail to negate consent?
It related to the risks/consequences of the act rather than the physical performance of the act.
29
Which four offences are covered by the presumptions in Sections 75 and 76?
Rape, assault by penetration, sexual assault, and causing sexual activity without consent.
30
Under s. 75, if the prosecution proves specific circumstances and the defendant's knowledge of them, what is the resulting presumption?
The complainant did not consent and the defendant did not reasonably believe they consented.
31
What is the legal effect of a s. 75 presumption if the defendant adduces 'sufficient evidence' to the contrary?
It becomes a matter for the jury to decide (it is a rebuttable evidential presumption).
32
According to s. 75(2)(a), a presumption of no consent arises if violence or _____ was used against the complainant.
The fear of immediate violence.
33
Does s. 75 apply if violence is threatened against a person other than the complainant?
Yes, under s. 75(2)(b).
34
What circumstance regarding the complainant's location creates a presumption under s. 75(2)(c)?
The complainant was unlawfully detained (and the defendant was not).
35
Under s. 75(2)(d), a presumption arises if the complainant was _____ or otherwise unconscious.
Asleep.
36
Why does a physical disability trigger a s. 75 presumption?
If it prevents the complainant from communicating whether they consent.
37
Under s. 75(2)(f), what must a substance do to a complainant to trigger a presumption of no consent?
Stupefy or overpower them.
38
If a situation (like a threat to take away children) is not listed in s. 75(2), does it mean consent existed?
No; it only means a statutory presumption cannot be used, but consent can still be absent under s. 74.
39
Section 76 deals with _____ presumptions about consent.
Conclusive.
40
Under s. 76, if the specified circumstances are proved, can the defendant argue that they believed there was consent?
No, the presumption is conclusive.
41
What are the two circumstances specified in s. 76(2) that lead to a conclusive presumption?
Deception as to nature/purpose of the act or impersonating a person known personally to the victim.
42
In R v Bingham [2013], why did s. 76 not apply to the defendant's online pseudonymity?
There was no deception as to the 'purpose' (sexual gratification) and the person impersonated was unknown.
43
In R v Devonald [2008], 'purpose' was given a wide meaning to include what motive?
Teaching the victim a lesson (rather than just sexual gratification).
44
Does s. 76 apply if a defendant deceives a complainant into having sex more frequently than they otherwise would (R v Jheeta)?
No, as there is no deception as to the nature or purpose of the intercourse.
45
Would a false promise to marry in exchange for sex be covered by the conclusive presumptions of s. 76?
No.
46
Would a false promise to pay for sexual intercourse fall under the s. 76 conclusive presumptions?
No.
47
In the s. 1 definition of rape, who is 'Person A' and who is 'Person B'?
A is the defendant (perpetrator) and B is the victim (complainant).
48
Under s. 1(1)(a), the penetration must be _____.
Intentional.
49
What common law principle regarding the 'freedom' to choose was emphasized in R (F) v DPP?
It must be approached in a 'broad common-sense way'.