6.1.1 Cellular Control Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Define a gene mutation

A

a change in the sequence of base pairs in a DNA molecule that may result in an altered polypeptide
- occurs continuously and spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define mutagen

A

a factor that increases the probability of a mutation occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give four examples of mutagens

A

1) ionising radiation
2) deaminating chemicals
3) addition of methyl/ethyl groups into bases
4) viruses inserting sections of viral DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is ionising radiation a mutagen

A

it can break the DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are deaminating chemicals mutagens

A

they can alter the chemical structure of bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is the addition of methyl/ethyl groups into bases a mutagen

A

it leads to incorrect base pairing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why do mutations usually have no effect

A

they only slightly alter the polypeptide
this means its structure/function isn’t changed as the genetic code is degenerate
many mutations occurs in non-coding sections of DNA so have no effect on the amino acid sequence at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an insertion mutation

A

a nucleotide is randomly inserted into the DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What effect does an insertion/deletion mutation have

A

it changes the amino acid that would of been coded by the original codon
a frameshift mutation occurs
this can dramatically change the amino acid sequence produced, and therefore the ability of the polypeptide to function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a frameshift mutation

A

it shifts the reading frame of the genetic code
this changes the triplets further in the DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define deletion mutation

A

a nucleotide is randomly deleted from the DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a substitution mutation

A

occurs when a base in the DNA sequence is randomly swapped for a different base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is a substitution mutation potentially less harmful than a deletion/addition mutation

A

the mutation will only change the amino acid for the single codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give the 3 types of substitution mutations

A

1) silent mutation
2) missense mutation
3) nonsense mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a silent mutation

A

when the mutation doesn’t alter the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide
(due to degenerate genetic code)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a missense mutation

A

when the mutation alters a single amino acid in the polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a nonsense mutation

A

the mutation creates a premature stop codon
this causes the polypeptide chain produced to be incomplete
therefore affects the final protein structure and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define beneficial mutation

A

a change in a polypeptide that results in an altered characteristic in an organism that causes them beneficial effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give an example of a beneficial mutation

A

the production of melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define harmful mutation

A

a change in a polypeptide that results in an altered characteristic in an organism that causes harmful effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give an example of a harmful mutation

A

deletion mutation of three nucleotides in the gene coding for the protein CFTR
- causes cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define a neutral mutation

A

a change in a polypeptide which offers no selective advantage or disadvantage to the individual organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give three reasons why a neutral mutation may occur

A

1) the mutation doesn’t alter the polypeptide
2) the mutation only slightly alters the polypeptide so that its structure/function isn’t changed
3) the mutation alters the structure or function of the polypeptide by the resulting difference in characteristic gives no advantage/disadvantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the role of regulatory mechanism

A

control which genes are expressed at different points in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the role of regulatory genes
to code for proteins that control the expression of structural genes
26
What is the role of structural genes
to code for a protein that has function within the cell e.g. enzymes, membrane carriers, hormones
27
Define operon
a group or cluster of genes controlled by the same promoter
28
Why is lactase an inducible enzyme
it is only synthesised when lactose is present
29
What is the benefit of lactase being an inducible enzyme
it prevents bacteria from wasting energy and materials
30
What is the function of the promoter
region of DNA required to allow transcription of the gene to take place
31
What is the role of the operator
segment of DNA to which a repressor binds to inhibit the transcription of a gene
32
What is LacZ
a structural gene that codes for lactase
33
What is LacY
a structural gene that codes for permease - a carrier protein which allows lactose into the cell
34
What is LacA
a structural gene which codes for transacetylase
34
Give the two molecules that are located upstream of the operon
1) promoter for regulatory gene 2) regulatory gene LacI - codes for Lac repressor protein
35
What occurs when RNA polymerase binds to lactose
results in a conformational change in the shape of the repressor protein this means it can no longer bind to the operator
36
What occurs when lactose is absent in the lac operon
1) the regulatory gene is transcribed and translated to produce the lac repressor protein 2) the lac repressor protein binds to the operator region upstream of lacZ 3) due to the presence of the repressor protein, RNA polymerase is unable to bind to the promoter region 4) transcription of the structural gene doesn’t take place 5) no lactase enzyme is synthesised
37
What occurs when lactose is present in the lac operon
1) There is an uptake of lactose in the bacterium 2) the lactose binds to the second binding site on the repressor protein, resulting in a conformational change that prevents the repressor protein from binding to the operator site 3) RNA polymerase is able to bind to the promotor region and transcription takes place 4) the mRNA from all three structural genes is translated 5) enzyme lactase is produced and lactose can be broken down and used for energy by the bacterium
38
What is a repressible enzyme
an enzyme that is normally synthesised until an effector is present
39
Describe how the production of repressible enzymes is controlled
1) an effector molecule binds to a repressor protein 2) this binding helps the repressor bind to the operator region and prevent transcription of the structural genes 3) therefore no enzyme is synthesised in the presence of an effector
40
Define transcription factor
a protein that controls the transcription of genes by binding to a specific region of DNA
41
Give two examples of transcription factors
1) production of oestrogen 2) breakdown of protein by gibberellin
42
Explain why RNA analysis is important with regards to gene expression
the cell expresses a gene RNA is produced by transcription this RNA present in a cell can be analysed - scientists can match the RNA present in a cell to specific genes, and find which genes are being expressed in a specific cell
43
Describe the process of post transcriptional modification in eukaryotes
1) both the exons and introns are transcribed into mRNA 2) as the introns are not translated they are removed from the pre-mRNA molecule 3) the exons are fused together to form a continuous molecule - mature mRNA - this process is called splicing
44
Explain the role of splicing in producing mature mRNA from pre-mRNA
splicing ensures that only coding sections of mRNA are used to form proteins
45
What occurs in control at the post translational level
post translation, polypeptides undergo modifications in the golgi apparatus or in the cytosol
46
Describe the main role of cAMP
main role is activation of protein kinases
47
Give an example of an activation of a protein kinase
in eukaryotic cells, cAMP activates protein kinase A (PKA) - inactive precursor enzyme once activated, it can activate other proteins e.g. enzymes
48
What is a homeobox gene
a gene that contains a DNA sequence that codes for a protein transcription factor
49
How do homeobox genes control body plan development
they code for a protein transcription factor the transcription factor attaches to DNA at specific locations - they regulate the transcription of genes by turning different genes on and off in the correct order
50
Why are homeobox sequences highly conserved across species
similar as they all code for amino acid sequences that form transcription factors - the DNA binding regions must all have the same shape mutations that cause changes in the homeobox sequence lead to non-viable organisms - these are not favoured by natural selection
51
What are hox genes
a subset of homeobox genes in animals they are involved in the correct positioning of body parts in an organism along the anterior-posterior axis
52
Describe the process of apoptosis
1. old cells that have undergone a large number of mitotic cell divisions are systematically processed 2. DNA becomes denser and more tightly packed 3. nuclear envelop breaks down and chromatin condenses 4. vesicles form that contain hydrolytic enzymes 5. phagocytes engulf and digest the cell via phagocytosis
53
What is the importance of mitosis and apoptosis in body plan development
both are key mechanisms controlling development as they are constantly replacing and destroying cells
54
What is another role of tumour-suppressor genes
can stimulate apoptosis in cells with damaged DNA - destroys any genetically damaged cells (cancer)
55
What are the two groups of genes which control mitosis
proto-oncogenes - genes that stimulate cell division tumour-suppressor genes - genes that reduce cell division
56
Describe the molecular regulation of the cell cycle
checkpoints are regulated by two groups of proteins cyclins - act as regulators cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK's) - act as catalysts once activated by cyclins - they ensure that the cell cycle progresses from one stage to the next
57
What are internal cell stimuli
internal factors that affect apoptosis and the cell cycle
58
Give four examples of internal cell stimuli
1. irreparable genetic damage 2. RNA decay 3. internal biochemical changes 4. production of cyclin D these factors all initiate apoptosis in cells
59
What are external cell stimuli
external factors that affect apoptosis and the cell cycle
60
Give four examples of external cell stimuli
1. presence of cell signalling molecules such as cytokines, hormones and growth factor 2. viruses 3. UV light 4. bacteria can damage/destroy cells faster than they can be replaced/repaired respond to stimuli by activating pathways to initiate apoptosis