MTAP - IMMUNOSERO > 7 - HYPERSENSITIVITY > Flashcards

7 - HYPERSENSITIVITY Flashcards

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1
Q

What general term describes a heightened or exaggerated immune response that can cause tissue injury or disease

A

hypersensitivity

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2
Q

What term describes an immune reaction to a normally harmless antigen that results in tissue damage or illness

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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3
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE attached to mast cells and basophils

A

type I or anaphylactic hypersensitivity

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4
Q

What antibody isotype mediates type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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5
Q

What two cell types are the main effector cells in type I hypersensitivity

A

mast cells and basophils

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6
Q

What immune mechanism underlies type I hypersensitivity

A

antigen induced degranulation and mediator release

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7
Q

What kind of antigen is typically involved in type I hypersensitivity

A

soluble allergen

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8
Q

Is complement directly involved in type I hypersensitivity

A

no

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9
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is mediated by IgM or IgG against cell surface antigens

A

type II or cytotoxic hypersensitivity

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10
Q

What antibody isotypes mediate type II hypersensitivity

A

IgM and IgG

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11
Q

What target cells are affected in type II hypersensitivity

A

blood cells or cell surface antigens

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12
Q

What immune mechanisms cause damage in type II hypersensitivity

A

complement lysis opsonization ADCC

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13
Q

Is complement involved in type II hypersensitivity

A

yes

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14
Q

Are cytokines central in type II hypersensitivity lysis

A

no

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15
Q

What hypersensitivity type involves immune complex deposition

A

type III or immune complex hypersensitivity

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16
Q

What antibody isotypes mediate type III hypersensitivity

A

IgM and IgG

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17
Q

What structure is targeted in type III hypersensitivity

A

basement membrane or endothelium

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18
Q

What antigen form is involved in type III hypersensitivity

A

immune complexes

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19
Q

Is complement activated in type III hypersensitivity

A

yes

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20
Q

Are cytokines involved in type III hypersensitivity

A

yes

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21
Q

What hypersensitivity type is T cell mediated delayed reaction

A

type IV or delayed type hypersensitivity

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22
Q

What cells are effectors in type IV hypersensitivity

A

T cells and macrophages

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23
Q

What mechanism underlies type IV hypersensitivity

A

cytokine mediated inflammation and cytotoxic killing

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24
Q

What antigen presentation occurs in type IV hypersensitivity

A

T cell recognition via MHC

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25
Is complement involved in type IV hypersensitivity
no
26
Are cytokines critical in type IV hypersensitivity
yes
27
What clinical example of type I hypersensitivity from inhalants
allergic rhinitis
28
What severe systemic type I reaction
anaphylaxis
29
What skin lesion in type I hypersensitivity
urticaria
30
What most common atopic allergy worldwide
allergic rhinitis
31
What skin reaction pattern in type I hypersensitivity
wheal and flare
32
What test shows passive IgE transfer
Prausnitz Kustner reaction
33
What antigens trigger type I hypersensitivity
allergens
34
What inherited IgE tendency
atopy
35
What respiratory disorder with bronchoconstriction
asthma
36
What Greek meaning of asthma
breathlessness
37
What condition causes sneezing and congestion from allergens
allergic rhinitis
38
What feature of mast cells enables immediate response
preformed mediators
39
What role of eosinophils in type I hypersensitivity
late phase inflammation
40
What primary mast cell mediators
histamine heparin ECF A NCF A proteases
41
What secondary mediators from mast cells
leukotrienes prostaglandin D2 PAF cytokines
42
What mediator causes smooth muscle contraction and permeability
histamine
43
What anticoagulant from mast cells
heparin
44
What factor attracts eosinophils
ECF A
45
What factor attracts neutrophils
NCF A
46
What protease activates C3 and mucus production
tryptase
47
What mediators cause bronchoconstriction
leukotrienes
48
What mediator increases permeability and bronchoconstriction
PAF
49
What cytokines drive IgE inflammation
IL 4 IL 5 IL 9 IL 13 GM CSF TNF alpha
50
What triggers mediator release in type I hypersensitivity
IgE crosslinking
51
What type of hypersensitivity test involves placing allergen on the skin and then pricking the surface
skin prick test
52
What more sensitive variant of skin test involves injecting allergen within the dermis
intradermal or cutaneous test
53
What clinical sign indicates a positive skin prick or intradermal hypersensitivity test
wheal at least 3 mm larger than negative control
54
What in vitro radioimmunoassay measures total IgE in a competitive format
RIST
55
What in vitro radioimmunoassay detects allergen specific IgE in a non competitive format
RAST
56
What fluorescent alternative to RAST detects allergen specific IgE
FAST
57
What bedside test detects IgG coated erythrocytes in hemolytic disease transfusion reactions and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
direct antiglobulin test or Coombs test
58
What immunofluorescence test on renal tissue biopsies is used for Goodpasture syndrome
direct immunofluorescence of renal tissue
59
What in vitro method detects circulating autoantibodies in systemic autoimmune disorders
indirect fluorescence immunoassay
60
What category of test includes latex agglutination enzyme immunoassays and fluorescent staining for type III hypersensitivity
autoantibody detection assays
61
What clinical test is the gold standard for diagnosing contact dermatitis
patch test
62
What feature of a patch test requires symptom free test site
non inflamed clear skin area
63
What sign of a patch test is considered positive
erythema with papules or vesicles at 48 hours
64
What tuberculin based hypersensitivity skin test is also known as Mantoux test
PPD skin test
65
What quantity of PPD is injected in Mantoux method
0.1 mL 5 TU
66
What time window is used to read Mantoux test
48 to 72 hours
67
What clinical finding is measured in Mantoux test
induration diameter
68
What induration size is positive in low risk individuals
15 mm or more
69
What induration size is positive in high risk groups
10 mm or more
70
What induration size is positive in immunocompromised patients
5 mm or more
71
What does a positive Mantoux test indicate
previous exposure or infection
72
What vaccine can cause false positive Mantoux
BCG vaccine
73
What general term describes missing or defective immune components
immunodeficiency
74
What two categories of immunodeficiency exist
primary and secondary
75
What primary immunodeficiency affects antibody production in infancy
transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy
76
What is the most common isolated immunodeficiency
selective IgA deficiency
77
What antibody deficiency presents in adolescence or adulthood
common variable immunodeficiency
78
What X linked B cell deficiency is Bruton disease
X linked agammaglobulinemia
79
What immunodeficiency affects both T and B cells
combined T and B cell deficiency
80
What disorder class involves neutrophil or macrophage defects
phagocytic function defects
81
What marker is absent in X linked agammaglobulinemia
CD19 positive B cells absent
82
What enzyme defect causes X linked agammaglobulinemia
Bruton tyrosine kinase
83
What congenital thymic hypoplasia disorder
DiGeorge anomaly
84
What enzyme deficiency depletes T cells via purine toxicity
PNP deficiency
85
What most severe primary immunodeficiency
SCID
86
What syndrome has eczema thrombocytopenia immunodeficiency
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
87
What disorder has ataxia telangiectasia and immunodeficiency
ataxia telangiectasia
88
What phagocytic disorder involves defective respiratory burst
chronic granulomatous disease
89
What inheritance pattern of CGD
X linked or autosomal recessive
90
What histologic feature seen in CGD
granulomas in liver spleen and other organs
91
What dye reduction test assesses oxidative burst
NBT test
92
What normal NBT result
blue formazan formation
93
What abnormal NBT result
no color change
94
What flow cytometric assay detects respiratory burst
DHR test
95
What normal DHR result
fluorescence present
96
What abnormal DHR result
reduced or absent fluorescence
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