1
Q
What bacterial structure mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of a cell?
A
fimbria
2
Q
What bacterial structure protects against phagocytosis
A
capsule
3
Q
What bacterial structure provides rigid support to bacterial cell and protects against osmotic pressure
A
peptidoglycan
4
Q
What bacterial structure is the space b/w the inner and outer cellular membranes in gram negative bacteria?
A
periplasmic space
5
Q
What bacterial structure allows motility?
A
flagella
6
Q
What is the bacterial form which provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals?
A
spore
7
Q
what forms attachment b/w two bacteria during transfer of DNA material (aka conjucation)
A
pilus
8
Q
What is the name of independent pieces of genetic material within bacteria that may contain genes for abx resistance?
A
plasmid
9
Q
What stain is required to see Cryptococcus neoformans?
A
india ink
10
Q
What stain is required to see PCP?
A
silver stain
11
Q
What stain is required to see Chlamydia?
A
Giemsa stain
12
Q
Which organisms are not well visualized with Gram stain? (4)
A
- treponema
- legionella
- mycoplasma (b/c no cell wall)
- mycobacteria (b/c of high lipid content)
13
Q
Which bacteria are encapsulated?
A
- Strep pneumo
- H. influenzae type B
- Neisseria meningitidis
- E. coli
- Salmonella
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- GBS
14
Q
By what method are plasmids exchanged b/w bacteria?
A
conjugation (via pilus)
15
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- inhibits ACh release –> flaccid paralysis
A
botulinum toxin (clostridium botulinum)
16
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- phospholipase that causes gas gangrene
A
alpha toxin (clostridium perfringens)
17
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- inhibits the inhibitor of adenylate cyclase –> increased cAMP –> impairing phagocytosis; whooping cough
A
Pertussis toxin (Bordetella pertussis)
18
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics? (2)
- stimulates adenylate cyclase –> increasing Cl and water secretion into gut –> diarrhea
A
Heat-labile ETEC toxin Cholera toxin (Vibrio cholerae)
19
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics? (2)
- destroys leukocytes
A
- gamma-hemolysin (S. aureus)
2. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (tissue destruction with MRSA)
20
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- composed of edema factor, lethal factor, and protective antigen
A
Anthrax toxin (Bacillus anthracis)
21
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- enterotoxin causing rice-water diarrhea
A
Cholera toxin
22
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- causes Scarlet fever
A
pyogenic/exotoxin A (GAS)
23
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- causes toxic shock syndrome
A
TSST-1 (S. aureus)
24
Q
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- inactivates EF-2 –> pseudomembranous pharyngitis
A
Diphtheria toxin (Corynebacterium diphtheriae)
25
What exotoxin matches each of the following characteristics?
- blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitter (GABA and glycine)
tetanospasmin (Clostridium tetani)
26
What 6 bacteria secrete enterotoxins (exotoxins that causes water and electrolyte imbalances of intestinal epithelium resulting in diarrhea)?
1. Vibrio cholerae
2. ETEC
3. S. aureus
4. Shigella
5. Yersinia
6. C. diff
27
What is the function of catalase?
Hydrogen peroxide --> water + o2
28
One hour after eating potato salad at a picnic, an entire family began to vomit. After 10 hrs, they were better. What is the organism?
S. aureus
29
What very common aerobic skin colonizer is responsible for many indwelling foreign device infections?
S. epidermidis
30
What types of disease processes are caused by Strep pyogenes? (3)
1. Pyogenic (pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo, erysipelas)
2. Toxin-mediated (scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis)
3. Immune mediated (rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis)
31
Which gram positive organism causes scalded skin syndrome?
S. aureus (exfoliative toxin)
32
Which gram positive organism cause gray-white membrane in the posterior pharynx of an unvaccinated child?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
33
Which gram positive organism cause pharyngitis resulting in glomerulonephritis
GAS
34
Which gram positive organism is the most common cause of meningitis?
Strep. pneumo
35
Which gram positive organism is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?
S. aureus
36
Which gram positive organism cause serious newborn infections
GBS, listeria, E.coli
37
Which gram positive organism cause infants with poor muscle tone?
Clostridium botulinum
38
Which gram positive organism cause resp distress in a postal worker?
Bacillus anthracis
39
Which gram positive organism cause otitis media in children
strep. pneumo
40
Which gram positive organism cause cellulitis? (2)
s. aureus, GAS
41
Which pts are susceptible to Listeria monocytogenes?
old, young, pregnant, immunocompromised
42
Which bacteria are spore formers? (3)
Bacillus, clostridium, coxiella burnetti
43
A culture reveals gram negative, oxidase positive diplococci. What is the likely organism? (3)
1. Moraxella catarrhalis (COPD)
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (urethral discharge from college student)
3. N. meningitidis (CSF)
44
A 50 yo male smoker presents with a new cough and flu-like symptoms. Gram stain of the sputum shows no organisms but silver stain shows rods. What is the diagnosis?
legionella pneumophila
45
What gram-negative organism cause sepsis, DIC, adrenal hemorrhage?
N. meningitidis (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome)
46
What gram-negative organism cause 5 yo with pharyngitis, drooling, and x-ray revealing thumb sign?
H. influenzae type B
47
What gram-negative organism cause burn wound infection?
pseudomonas
48
What gram-negative organism cause life-threatening meningitis + purpura?
N. meningitidis
49
What gram-negative organism cause septic arthritis in young, sexually active patients?
N. gonorrhoeae
50
Which form of E.coli causes HUS?
EHEC (0157:H7)
51
What infectious agent cause diarrhea caused by gram-negative, non-motile organism that does NOT ferment lactose?
Shigella
52
What infectious agent cause rice-water stools (2)
Vibrio cholerae, ETEC
53
What infectious agent cause diarrhea caused by S-shaped organism?
Campylobacter
54
What infectious agent cause diarrhea transmitted from household pet?
Yersinia (pet feces)
55
What infectious agent cause diarrhea caused by gram-negative motile organism that does not ferment lactose
Salmonella
56
Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea
ETEC
57
What infectious agent cause bloody diarrhea after eating undercooked hamburger meat?
EHEC (O157:H7)
58
What infectious agent cause diarrhea and RLQ pain mimicking appendicitis?
Yersinia
59
What infectious agent cause diarrhea after consuming eggs or handling raw chicken? (2)
Salmonella, campylobacter
60
What infectious agent cause osteo in sickle cell patient?
Salmonella
61
What organism cause LAD with new kitten?
Bartonella
62
What organism is associated with dog bite?
Pasturella
63
What organism is associated with ixodes tick?
Borrelia burgdorferi
64
What organism is associated with rabbit hunter?
Francisella tularensis
65
What organism is associated with pet prairie dog?
Yersenia pestis
66
What is the treatment for latent TB?
Isoniazid alone for 9 months (+B6)
67
What ist he treatment for active TB?
RIPE for first 2 months
| Just rifampin+isoniazid for next 4 months
68
What abx is used for ppx of MAC in AIDS patients? When should this begin?
Azithromycin
| when CD4+
69
What is the distinction b/w Ghon complex and Ghon focus? Are these seen in primary or reactivated TB?
Ghon focus: lung lesion from primary TB
Ghon complex: Ghon focus + hilar LAD
70
What is the Rickettsial triad of symptoms?
1. HA
2. Fever
3. Rash
71
25 yo with mycoplasma atypical pneumonia exhibits ANEMIA due to cold agglutinins. What type of immunoglobulins is responsible for the anemia?
IgM antibodies
note: cold agglutinins are non-specific IgM ab to erythrocytes. can agglutinate (lyse) RBCs in cold environments
72
Which abx should be used to treat mycoplasma pneumoniae?
tetracycline or macrolide (azithromycin)
73
Which abx should be used to treat rocky mountain spotted fever
doxy
74
Which abx should be used to treat bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole
75
Which penicillin drug would you use given the following infection?
- syphilis
penicillin G (IV)
76
Which penicillin drug would you use given the following infection?
- UTI
aminopenicillins, like amoxicillin (better gram (-) coverage)
77
Which penicillin drug would you use given the following infection? (3)
- pseudomonas
- ticarcillin
- carbenicillin
- piperacillin
78
What extended coverage do ampicillin or amoxicillin have? (7)
HEELPSS
- H. influenzae
- E coli
- Enterococci
- Listeria
- Proteus mirabilis
- Salmonella
- Shigella
79
What are the 2 diff. mechanisms of resistance bacteria use against penicillin agents?
- production of beta-lactamase
| - alteration of penicillin-binding protein (ex. MRSA)
80
What are the beta-lactamase inhibitors? (3)
- clavulanic acid
- sulbactam
- tazobactam
81
Which generation of cephalosporin would you choose to use for each of the following infections?
- UTI prevention
1st
82
Which generation of cephalosporin would you choose to use for each of the following infections?
- Serratia UTI
2nd (remember, HENS PEcK)
83
Which generation of cephalosporin would you choose to use for each of the following infections?
- N. meningitidis
3rd
84
Which generation of cephalosporin would you choose to use for each of the following infections?
- Pseudomonas
4th (cefepime)
or ceftazidime (3rd)
85
Which generation of cephalosporin would you choose to use for each of the following infections?
- resistant otitis media
cefdinir (oral 3rd gen)
86
What side effect would you be concerned about if a patient is receiving both ceftriaxone and gentamicin?
nephrotoxicity
87
Classify the following cephalosporins in their generation: cefepime
4th
88
Classify the following cephalosporins in their generation: cephalexin
1st
89
Classify the following cephalosporins in their generation: cefuroxime
2nd
90
Classify the following cephalosporins in their generation: ceftazidime
3rd
91
Classify the following cephalosporins in their generation: ceftaroline
5th
92
What is the MoA of cephalosporins?
Binds to penicillin-binding protein --> inhibition of synthesis and cross-linking of peptidoglycans
93
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following statements?
- aminoglycoside pretender
Aztreonam (monobactam)
94
What cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following statements?
- broad-spec coverage for appendicitis
imipenem + cilastin OR
| meropenem
95
How does an organism develop resistance to vancomycin?
amino acid modification; D-ala D-ala --> D-ala D-lac
96
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of an abx and the nurse calls you when his face becomes flushed 15 min after the infusion started. What is the treatment for this patient?
- stop vanco
- antihistamines
- restart @ slower infusion
97
What are the side effects of aminoglycosides?
NOT
- nephrotoxicity
- ototoxicity
- teratogenic
98
What drugs have photosensitivity reactions?
SAT for photo
- Sulfonamides
- amiodarone
- tetracyclines
99
What causes gray baby syndrome? Gray man syndrome? Red man syndrome?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. amiodarone
c. vanco
100
What are the clinical uses for macrolides?
PUS
- pneumonia (atypical)
- URI
- STD: chlamydia, gonorrhea
101
What agent is used for ppx of gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
102
What agent is used for ppx of syphilis
penicillin G
103
What agent is used for ppx of recurrent UTIs (3)
- TMP-SMX or
- nitrofurantoin or
- cephalexin
104
What agent is used for ppx of PCP pneumonia
TMP-SMX
105
What agent is used for ppx of exposure to H. influenzae type B meningitis
rifampin
106
What agent is used for ppx of endocarditis prevention in pt with turbulent flow heart disease?
amoxicillin
107
What are the major side effects of the IV polymyxins? (2)
- neurotoxicity
| - nephrotoxicity
108
What is the MoA of sulfamethoxazole (SMX)?
inhibits dihydropteroate synthase
109
What is the MoA of trimethoprim?
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
110
What is the MoA of levofloxacin?
inhibits DNA gyrase (topoisomerase III)
111
What is the MoA of nitrofurantoin
inhibits bacterial ribosomes (only effective in urine)
112
What is the MoA of metronidazole
forms toxic free radicals that damage DNA
113
What is the MoA of polymyxin B?
cation detergent
114
What 2 organisms are important causes of pneumonia and meningitis in neonates?
GBS
| e. coli
115
A group of picnic goers develop vomiting 2 hrs after eating. What is the most likely cause?
S. aureus
116
What infection matches each of the following descriptions?
- green frothy vaginal discharge with flagellated cells on wet prep
Trichomonas vaginalis
117
What infection matches each of the following descriptions?
- koilocytes on biopsy of lesion
HPV
118
What infection matches each of the following descriptions?
- multiple tender vesicles which becomes shallow ulcers
Herpes simplex virus
119
What infection matches each of the following descriptions?
- painless genital ulcer followed by rash on palms and soles
syphilis
120
What infection matches each of the following descriptions?
- mucopurulent cervical discharge with cervical motion tenderness
PID
121
Which TORCHeS infections is the most likely cause?
chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
toxo
122
Which TORCHeS infections is the most likely cause?
hydrops fetalis
parvo virus B19
123
Which TORCHeS infections is the most likely cause?
PDA, cataracts, deafness
rubella
124
Which TORCHeS infections is the most likely cause?
saddle nose, snuffles, Hutchinson teeth, saber shins
syphilis
Step 1 DIT
flashcards
Decks in class (20)
# Cards
-
DIT Rapid-Fire Facts131
-
2. Neuro131
-
DIT Warm-Up Questions101
-
1. Foundations46
-
3. Pharm Basics60
-
4. Cardio70
-
5. Rheum & Derm0
-
6. Repro0
-
7. Micro124
-
8. Immuno64
-
9. GI84
-
10. Pulmonary55
-
11. Medicine in Society0
-
12. Biochem99
-
13. Psych25
-
14. Renal80
-
16. Endocrine0
-
17. Heme72
-
18. Oncology0
-
Microbiology pt.2143
