8

Question 1

4. A daschund comes in with diffusely hyperechoic and highly granular liver on u/s. It has elevated ALT, ALP and cholesterol. What other organ would you expect to be affected?
   a. Liver
   b. Kidney
   c. Adrenal
   d. Pancreas

Answer 1

c. Adrenal

Question 2

5. What analgesic is safe and effective in rabbits?
   a. Acetominophen
   b. Ibuprofen
   c. Butorphanol
   d. Salicylic acid

Answer 2

c. Butorphanol

Question 3

6. A dog is referred to you post-cystotomy and appears ill. Abdominal radioraphs and ultrasound are unavailable. What is most indicative of leakage from the bladder?
   a. BUN abdominal fluid > serum
   b. BUN abdominal fluid < serum
   c. Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum
   d. Creatinine abdominal fluid < serum

Answer 3

c. Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum

Question 4

7. What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme’s disease)
   a. Ixodes
   b. Boophilus
   c. Dermacentor
   d. Rhiphicephalus

Answer 4

a. Ixodes (also Anaplasmosis)

Question 5

8. An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutrophilic inclusions has what?
   a. Ehrlichia risticii
   b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
   c. Equine viral arteritis
   d. Equine herpes virus

Answer 5

b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)

Question 6

9. Hypoderma bovis infected cattle hide. What do you do??
   a. Condemn the carcass
   b. Condemn the hide

Answer 6

b. Condemn the hide

Question 7

10. When is an LDA most likely to develop?

Answer 7

a. Within the first month of lactating (after freshening)

Question 8

11. A pregnant lactating cow with Actinobacillosis ligneresii is treated with?
    a. Potassium iodide
    b. Potassium chloride
    c. Sodium iodide
    d. Sodium chloride

Answer 8

c. Sodium iodide

Question 9

12. Oleander toxicosis in cattle, best treatment option.

Answer 9

a. Rumenotomy

Question 10

13. What causes a head tilt and ear droop in rabbits

Answer 10

a. E. cuniculi and P. multocida

Question 11

14. Signs of cerebellar disease

Answer 11

a. Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors

Question 12

15. An emergency tracheostomy on a horse?

Answer 12

a. Horizontal incision through annular ligaments

Question 13

16. Management of parasites on a pasture
    a. Clean up fecal matter 2x week
    b. Clean up fecal matter every 2 weeks

Answer 13

a. Clean up fecal matter 2x week

Question 14

17. What to give a horse with too much detomidine

Answer 14

a. Yohimbine

Question 15

18. Aggressive Rottweiler needs oral exam. What is best method of restraint in order to perform the exam?
    a. Have tech restrain the dog
    b. Muzzle the dog
    c. Medetomidine
    d. Some other drug

Answer 15

c. Medetomidine

Question 16

19. 2 year old cat with unilateral nasal discharge and headshaking. What is most likely diagnosis
    a. Neoplasia
    b. Chronic upper respiratory tract infection
    c. Otodectes cynoti
    d. Nasopharyngeal polyp

Answer 16

d. Nasopharyngeal polyp

Question 17

20. Dog with mitral insufficiency will have which of the following signs?
    a. Weight loss and cyanosis
    b. Systolic murmur and cough
    c. Systolic murmur and ascites
    d. Systolic murmur and cyanosis

Answer 17

b. Systolic murmur and cough (left heart failure)

Question 18

21. You have a cat with sinusitis and suspect calicivirus. What other clinical finding would you likely see?
    a. Bronchitis
    b. Diarrhea/vomiting
    c. Corneal ulceration
    d. Oral ulcers and lameness

Answer 18

d. Oral ulcers and lameness

Question 19

22. Which of the following disease carried by rhesus macaques is the biggest problem if transmitted to humans?
    a. Herpes virus B
    b. Hepatitis
    c. Cytomegalo virus
    d. Respiratory syncitial virus

Answer 19

a. Herpes virus B

Question 20

23. Pregnant client whose cat is serologically positive for toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is true?
    a. The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis
    b. The cat has an active infection
    c. The cat is shedding the virus

Answer 20

a. The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis

Question 21

24. Signs of acute anterior uveitis:

Answer 21

a. Miosis (pain), low intraocular pressure (in contrast to glaucoma), blepharospasm, hyperemia

Question 22

25. What dose the heartworm antigen test detect?
    a. Microfilaria
    b. Male adults
    c. Female adults
    d. L3 larvae

Answer 22

c. Female adults

Question 23

26. How long from mosquito bite to heartworm infection?
    a. 2 months
    b. 4 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 8 months

Answer 23

c. 6 months

Question 24

27. A bull has had a sample of smegma from his sheath cultured in a Trichomonas pouch. Flagellated organisms are isolated in the media (Bull cultures positive for T. foetus). What do you do?
    a. Turn the bull out with a group of cows
    b. Cull
    c. Reculture in 2 weeks
    d. Perform further diagnostics on the sample

Answer 24

b. Cull

Question 25

28. A cow presents with bilateral corneal opacity, epiphora, and blepharospasm. There is 4mm of corneal neovascularization on the right eye. Fluoroscein stain reveals 3mm of uptake in the left eye and 10mm uptake in the right eye. What is next? a. Biopsy for SCC b. Cryotherapy of neovascularization c. Flush nasolacrimal duct d. Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns

Answer 25

d. Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns

Question 26

29. What is CA Brucellosis Status and Tuberculosis status?

Answer 26

a. Brucellosis free since 1997; modified accredited advanced for Bovine tuberculosis

Question 27

30. Transporting a 24 month old bull from Oregon to California, you need to test for which diseases:

Answer 27

a. Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis

Question 28

31. Common indication for feline dental extraction. a. Hypereruption b. Dentigerous cyst c. Hypoplastic enamel d. Odontoclastic resorptive lesion

Answer 28

d. Odontoclastic resorptive lesion

Question 29

32. Feline presented for stiffness and lameness in all 4 limbs. On PE all 4 limbs have decreased range of motion in joints. Radiographs show multiple locations of vertebral spondylosis and exostoses around joints. Owner feeds home cooked diet of exclusively liver. Diagnose which nutrient disease? a. Hypocalcemia b. Vitamin D deficiency c. Vitamin A toxicity d. Vitamin E toxicity

Answer 29

c. Vitamin A toxicity

Question 30

33. What is the vector for WEE? a. Tick b. Mosquito c. Gnat d. Sand fly

Answer 30

b. Mosquito

Question 31

34. Who may sign a health certificate? a. An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian b. A CA licensed veterinarian c. A veterinarian approved by CDFA d. Any licensed from the state can sign a health certificate for that state

Answer 31

a. An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian

Question 32

35. A dog with C6-T2 spinal cord lesion would present with which of the following signs? a. UMN signs in pelvic and thoracic limbs b. Normal thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs c. Normal thoracic limbs, LMN signs in pelvic limbs d. LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs

Answer 32

d. LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs

Question 33

36. An 8 week old kitten with fever, pot belly, and poor hair coat is presented. Evaluation of a viscous material from abdominocentesis indicates the problem is: a. Panleukopenia b. FeLV c. FIP d. Ascarids

Answer 33

c. FIP (pyogranulomatous inflammation)

Question 34

37. Which disease must be tested for interstate transport of horses?

Answer 34

a. EVA (Coggin's test)

Question 35

35. What treatment is best for mildly contracted tendons in a foal? a. Increased exercise, tenotomy b. Increased exercise, oxytetracycline c. Splint, tenotomy d. Splint, oxytetracycline

Answer 35

b. Increased exercise, oxytetracycline

Question 36

39. What is a once a day drug that can be used in a horse to treat a gastric ulcer? a. Nizatadine b. Sucralfate c. Omeprazole d. Aluminum hydroxide

Answer 36

c. Omeprazole

Question 37

40. Middle aged horse with painful abdomen (COLIC). Medication to control the pain and for sedation? a. Xylazine and ketamine b. Xylazine and butorphanol c. Flunixin meglamine and ketamine d. Flunixin meglamine and butorphanol

Answer 37

b. Xylazine and butorphanol

Question 38

41. A cat housed outdoors presents for acute severe blepharospasm of the right eye. What diagnostic procedure should you do first? a. Search for foreign body b. Check intraocular pressure c. Fluorescein stain d. Schirmer tear test

Answer 38

a. Search for foreign body

Question 39

42. How to diagnose Cryptococcus in a cat? a. LCAT titer of serum, urine and CSF b. Cytology of nasal swab c. See organism in peripheral blood d. See organism in CSF e. See nasal turbinate destruction on rads

Answer 39

a. LCAT titer of serum, urine and CSF (more recent)

Question 40

43. What is the best way to test for Ionophore (Monensin) toxicity? a. Serum b. Feed c. Plasma d. Urine

Answer 40

b. Feed

Question 41

44. Consistent post-mortem lesion with P. multocida and Actinobacillus (Haemophilus) pleuopneumoniae in pigs? a. Fibrinopurulent polyarthritis b. Meningoencephalitis c. Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis d. Cranioventral consolidation

Answer 41

c. Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis

Question 42

45. What is the best way to tell if a pet parrot is dehydrated? a. Ulnar vein refill time b. Heart and respiratory rate c. Basilic vein refill time

Answer 42

c. Basilic vein refill time (less than ½ second)??

Question 43

46. Which of the following has No anti-inflammatory effects? a. Aspirin b. Carprofen c. Ketoprofen d. Acetaminophen

Answer 43

d. Acetaminophen (analgesic and anti-pyretic)

Question 44

47. Best way to relieve chronic bloat in a cow with tetanus? a. Tube the rumen b. Create a rumen fistula c. Mineral oil d. Bloat guard

Answer 44

b. Create a rumen fistula

Question 45

48. Which of the following are considered to cause/contribute to feline HCM? a. Acromegaly, hyperthyroid b. Acromegaly, hyperparathyroid c. Taurine deficiency, hyperthyroid d. Taurine deficiency, hyperparathyroid

Answer 45

a. Acromegaly, hyperthyroid

Question 46

49. A bird breeder with a bunch of birds has some of the birds come down with Aspergillosis. What do you tell them? a. This is a serious zoonotic disease b. All birds need to be treated because it is highly contagious c. This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

Answer 46

c. This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

Question 47

50. Most common place for enteroliths in the horse. a. Transverse colon b. Ileocolic junction

Answer 47

a. Transverse colon

Question 48

51. What do you do with a ram with bilateral hard swelling of epididimus? a. Cull b. 2 weeks sexual rest c. Breeding soundness exam

Answer 48

a. Cull (for epididimitis)

Question 49

52. What is polycythemia rubra vera?

Answer 49

a. Absolute increase in RBC (myeloproliferative disease)

Question 50

53. What is an acanthocyte?

Answer 50

a. RBC with points/spiculation