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AAB Basic Knowledge Flashcards

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1
Q

What agency approves new test methodologies, instruments, and reagents before they are available for purchase by consumers?

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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2
Q

How often should biological safety hoods be inspected?

A

Annually

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3
Q

What is the minimum number of standards required for a standard curve?

A

3

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4
Q

What is the maximum magnification using a brightfield microscope?

A

1000X

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5
Q

What is the most accurate pipette for reconstituting control material?

A

glass volumetric pipettes

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6
Q

Which unit of measure refers to 10^-3?

A

milli-

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7
Q

What is the calculated cholesterol/HDL ratio given the following results?
Cholesterol 225 mg/dL
HDL 75 mg/dL

A

3.00

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8
Q

200 uL of patient serum is diluted with 800 uL of saline. What is the final dilution?

A

1:5

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9
Q

What is calculated LDL cholesterol given the following lipid profile results?

Triglycerides 190 mg/dL
Cholesterol 225 mg/dL
HDL 75 mg/dL

LDL = Total Cholesterol - HDL - (Triglycerides / 5)

A

112

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10
Q

How is relative centrifugal force calculated?

A

1.18 X 10^-5 X r X rpm^2

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11
Q

A chain of custody is required for all the following EXCEPT:
A. legal blood alcohol
B. pre-employment drug screen
C. paternity testing
D. fetal fibronectin

A

D. fetal fibronectin

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12
Q

What federal legislation regulates most clinical laboratories?

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)

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13
Q

What is the level of complexity of most testing performed in clinical laboratories?

A

moderately complex

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14
Q

How often does CLIA require clinical laboratories to have inspections?

A

every 2 years

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15
Q

Which laboratories are NOT required to participate in proficiency testing?

A

laboratories performing waived testing only

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16
Q

Which proficiency testing (PT) results do not meet the CLIA performance criteria?
A. failed two analytes in one PT event
B. failed three analytes in one PT event
C. failed the same analyte in two consecutive PT events
D. failed two different analytes in the last two PT events

A

C. failed the same analyte in two consecutive PT events

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17
Q

Which one of the following is an example of alternate proficiency testing?
A. two technologist perform the same proficiency test
B. split samples sent to another facility using the same test method
C. the proficiency sample sent to a reference laboratory
D. using a patient specimen and comparing the results from two analyzers

A

B. split samples sent to another facility using the same test method

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18
Q

All of the following are pre-analytical errors EXCEPT which one?
A. ordering a lab test under the wrong patient number
B. misidentification of a patient
C. mislabeling an add-on test
D. transcription error entering a manual result

A

D. transcription error entering a manual result

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19
Q

Which one of the following is the most common analytical error?
A. not checking specimen integrity
B. mislabeling a specimen
C. reporting results outside the linear limits
D. clerical errors

A

A. not checking specimen integrity

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20
Q

What is the most common post-analytical error?

A

clerical error

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21
Q

How often must a procedure be revised?

A

upon implementation and substantial revisions

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22
Q

How often must thermometers be checked against the NIST thermometer?

A

annually

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23
Q

In which manual are the directions for running quality control for a specific assay kept?

A

operating procedure manual

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24
Q

Following equipment maintenance, when is quality control suggested?

A

after any preventative maintenance

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25
What is the most common reason for a control value to be outside of 3SD? A. deterioration of control material B. deterioration of reagent C. microbial contamination of reagent D. random error
D. random error
26
If one control is outside the 95% confidence limits, then what is the most appropriate remedial action to take initially?
repeat same control
27
Where should an unopened container of methanol be stored?
flammable safety cabinet
28
After preventative maintenance by field service, which one of the following is recommended? A. verification of quality control results B. follow-up phone call by customer service C. electrical check by biomedical engineering D. new lot correlation by technical specialist
A. verification of quality control results
29
According to CLIA, who is responsible for specimen processing, test performance, and reporting test results?
testing personnel
30
Which one of the following is NOT a job duty of the testing personnel? A. inventory control B. equipment maintenance C. interpretation of highly complex testing D. accuracy of reported results
C. interpretation of highly complex testing
31
True of False Continuing education documents, job competency training checklist, remedial action documentation, and annual performance appraisal are all required to be kept in the employee's personal records.
True
32
Which of the following statements concerning continuing education units (CEUs) is false? A. CEUs provide an opportunity to learn about new technological advances B. CEUs are mandated by the College of American Pathologists C. CEUs provide an opportunity for networking among colleagues D. CEUs are required by some states and organizations
B. CEUs are mandated by the College of American Pathologists
33
Who is responsible for monitoring trends for corrected reports in the laboratory?
Quality Assurance
34
Which federal law requires that the competency of laboratory personnel be documented?
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)
35
Tracking and trending customer complaints concerning the laboratory is a responsibility of which area?
Quality Assurance
36
Which federal agency issues regulations to ensure employee safety?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
37
Which federal agency requires safety training during new employee orientation and annually thereafter?
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
38
OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires original container labels to contain all of the following EXCEPT which one? A. product name B. hazard warning C. manufacturer's name and address D. emergency telephone number
D. emergency telephone number
39
Which plan minimizes personnel exposure to hazardous chemicals?
Chemical Hygiene Plan
40
Which bloodborne pathogens are of greatest risk to laboratorians?
Hepatitis B and human immunodeficiency virus
41
All of the following are components of the OSHA Tuberculosis Plan EXECPT which one? A. all employees with patient contact must be fit for respirators B. all laboratory employees are required to have PPD skin tests C. employees who have had a positive PPD must have an annual chest x-ray exam D. all lab employees are exempt from having fit testing for respirators
D. all lab employees are exempt from having fit testing for respirators
42
When a fire occurs, when should the hospital operator be notified of the fire?
After pulling the alarm
43
Which federal agency regulates disposal of biohazardous waste?
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
44
Which federal agency regulates facilities that use radioisotopes?
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
45
Which federal agency regulates disposal of hazardous chemicals and biohazardous waste?
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
46
Which labor law requires an employer to provide reasonable accommodations to a wheelchair-bound employee?
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
47
Which federal agency is responsible for enforcing employment discrimination laws?
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
48
Which federal law defines the minimum wage and overtime compensation?
Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
49
Which agency is responsible for enforcing equal pay for equal work?
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
50
Title VII, which prohibits discrimination, is part of which labor law?
Civil Rights Act
51
Which federal agency regulates packaging, labeling, and transportation of biological products?
Department of Transportation (DOT)
52
Which law required the Department of Health and Human Services to establish standards for protected health information?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
53
What do the etched rings on the top of a pipette mean?
the last drop is to be blown out after the pipette drains
54
What is the accuracy of a volumetric pipette?
1:1000
55
What is the term used to describe a 99.95% purified chemical that can be measured directly referred to as?
primary standard
56
What is a solution in which the molecules of solute in solution are in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules referred to as?
saturated
57
What is the pH of pure water?
7.0
58
Which statistical term most specifically describes analytical precision?
coefficient of variation
59
Quality control should be performed and monitored to ensure which one of the following?
reliability
60
What is the term used to describe material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing concentrations of the substance being measured?
control
61
A procedure has a 2SD variation from a mean value. How many values from a normal population will the 2SD include?
95.45%
62
To produce reliable results, how long should a patient fast before having blood drawn for lipid studies?
12 to 16 hours
63
How is a 10% bleach solution to disinfect the work area made?
100mL bleach added to 900mL water
64
Reactivity is what color diamond using the National Fire Protection Agency code?
Yellow
65
What is a substance that minimizes any change in hydrogen ion concentration?
buffer
66
Who are the testing personnel for proficiency samples?
any employee who performs the test(s)
67
Which type of specimen provides the fastest turnaround time? A. plasma B. serum C. whole blood D. microtainer sample
whole blood
68
If the mean for BUN is 18.0 and one standard deviation is 0.15, then what is the acceptable range for this control?
17.7-18.3 mg/dL
69
Coefficient Variation equation
CV = (standard deviation / mean) × 100%
70
A/G ratio equation
A/G ratio= (Albumin)/ (Total Protein - Albumin)
AAB
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