1
Q
What is reconnaissance?
A
A mission undertaken to observe by visual or other detection methods, information about the activities and resources of an enemy or adversary.
2
Q
Where is the only place a recon be positioned relative to the supported unit?
A
The front
3
Q
What are the fundamentals of recon?
A
GODRDRE
Gain and maintain enemy contact
Orient on the recon objective
Do not keep recon assets in reserve
Report all information timely and accurately
Develop the situation rapidly
Retain freedom of maneuver
Ensure continuous recon
4
Q
What are the forms of recon?
A
RAZRS
Recon in force
Area
Zone
Route
Special
5
Q
What is a zone recon?
A
A recon in a large area with non-permissive boundaries.
6
Q
How long does a zone recon take?
A
It is a long and deliberate effort. The intent is to observe everything in the assigned area.
7
Q
What is an area recon?
A
A recon in a smaller area with permissive boundaries.
8
Q
What is an area recon intended to provide?
A
Key information related to specific terrain or decision points.
9
Q
What are the elements of the Commander’s Recon Guidance?
A
FTED
Focus
Tempo
Engagement/Disengagement Criteria
10
Q
What are the two components of tempo?
A
Level of Detail
Level of Covertness
11
Q
What are the levels of detail?
A
Rapid or Deliberate
12
Q
What are the levels of covertness?
A
Stealthy and Forceful
13
Q
What are the possible combinations for tempo?
A
Rapid and Stealthy
Rapid and Forceful
Deliberate and Stealthy
Deliberate and Forceful
14
Q
What is engagement criteria?
A
When a unit has authorization to engage an enemy
15
Q
What is disengagement criteria?
A
When a unit must break contact to avoid decisive engagement
16
Q
What is bypass criteria?
A
When it is tactically advantageous to avoid enemy units, generally because the enemy units are too small or insignificant to engage.
17
Q
What is displacement criteria?
A
A trigger for a planned withdrawal. For example, recon objective is met, phaseline is passed, or BHO is complete.
18
Q
What are the two types of recon techniques?
A
Recon Push
Recon Pull
19
Q
What is a recon push?
A
A recon push is used when a commander has a relatively thorough understanding of the operational environment and he PUSHES recon assets out to confirm a proposed COA.
20
Q
What is a recon pull?
A
Used when a commander is uncertain of the AO, recon assets pull the main body to identified positions of tactical advantage.
21
Q
What is the big difference between a recon push and a recon pull?
A
COA is created before the recon in a push, COA is created after the recon in a pull
22
Q
What are the three forms of recon management?
A
Cueing
Mixing
Redundancy
23
Q
What is cueing?
A
When one platform calls on another platform to provide increased detail
24
Q
What is mixing?
A
Two different platforms collecting on the same intelligence requirement
25
What is a screen?
A security task that is designed to provide early warning to a protected force.
26
What is redundancy?
Two identical platforms collecting on the same intelligence requirement.
27
What echelon conducts a screen?
Squadron or above
28
Can a screen be out in front of a protected force?
No, it can only be to the side or rear
29
What is a movement to contact?
Offensive task designed to establish or regain enemy contact to allow the commander to further develop the situation.
30
What is a deliberate attack?
An attack that is integrated with the overall ground scheme of maneuver and tactical plan in order to provide synchronization of combat power at the decisive point.
31
What is a hasty attack?
An attack launched with the forces at hand and minimal preparation to maintain the momentum or take advantage of an enemy situation.
32
Who chooses battle positions?
Battalion Staff
33
What are the elements the battalion staff utilize to select battle positions?
NORMA
Nature of the Target
Obstacles
Range to Target
Maneuver Area
Altitude above Target Area
34
What elements do individual aviators use to select firing positions within battle positions?
BRASSCRAFO
Background
Altitude
Sun/Moon Position
Shadows
Cover and Concealment
Rotor Wash
Adequate Maneuver Area
Fields of Fire
Obstacles
35
What are the fundamentals of security?
Maintain Enemy Contact
Orient on the protected force, area, or facility
Provide reaction time and maneuver space
Perform continuous recon
Provide early and accurate warning
36
When will I use the movement technique "traveling"?
Enemy contact is not likely
Flying low level or contour
37
When will I use the movement technique "travelling overwatch"?
Enemy contact is possible
Flying contour or NOE
38
When will I use the movement technique "bounding overwatch"?
Enemy contact is likely
Flying NOE
39
How far is "tight" separation?
Approximately 2 rotor disks
40
How far is "close" separation?
3-5 rotor disks
41
How far is "loose" seperation?
6-10 rotor disks
42
How far is "extended" separation?
More than 10 rotor disks
43
What is the five step process for air to ground fires?
Step 1: Aircraft check in (Aircraft)
Step 2: Situation Update (JTACT)
Step 3: Gameplan (JTAC)
Step 4: 9-Line Brief (JTAC)
Step 5: BDA Report (Anyone)
44
What is the aircraft check in briefing format?
1: ADMIN INFO
Wake up call
Mission number (if available)
Number and type of aircraft
Position and altitude
2: SERVICES
Ordnance
Playtime or time on station
Capabilities
3: CONTINGENCIES
Abort Code
45
What is the situation update format?
TTFACOR
Threat
Targets
Friendly Updates
Artillery
Clearance Authority
Ordnance
Remarks/Restrictions
46
What is the gameplan format?
Type control
Method of attack
Desired effect
Ordnance interval
47
What is the 9-line brief format?
IP/BP
Heading
Distance
Target elevation
Target description
Target location
Type mark/terminal guidance
Location of friendlies
Egress
48
What is the BDA format?
SALT-R
Size
Activity
Location
Time
Remarks
49
What is the army aviation 5 line?
Observer ID/Warning Order
Friendly Location and Mark
Target Location
Target Description and Mark
Remarks
50
What does an aircrew need in order to initiate a danger close strike?
GFC initials
51
What are the required readbacks in the 9-line?
Line 4: Target elevation
Line 6: Target location
Remarks/Restrictions
52
What are the techniques of fire?
Hover
Running
Diving
Low Altitude Bump
Diving/Running Fire IP
53
What is the SPOT report format?
Size
Activity
Location
Unit
Time
Equipment
What is being done about it
54
What composes a Weapons Engagement Zone (WEZ)?
R MAX
R MIN
Azimuth/Elevation Limitations
Time of Flight
55
Aircrew must defeat the ______ for guided weapons
Weapon
56
Aircrew must defeat the _______ for unguided weapons
Gunner
57
What are the three transmissions for the CFF?
Transmission 1:
Oberver ID
Warning Order
Transmission 2:
Target Location
Transmission 3:
Target Description
Method of Engagement
Method of Fire and Control
58
What are the two most common types of fire missions we will call for?
Adjust Fire, Fire for Effect
59
What method should we use for target location?
Laser grid, you will send a grid from a laser and then lase each burst for adjustments
60
What is the most common method of control?
Fire when ready
61
What is danger close for field artillery?
600m
62
What is danger close for naval gunfire?
750m
63
What is the minimum acceptable grid length for a CFF?
six digits
64
What does "repeat" mean?
Fire another round(s) with the last data
65
What does "splash" mean?
5 seconds from impact
66
What is a message to observer?
A message describing how an FDC intends to prosecute the target
67
What is the requirement associated with a message to observer?
The MTO must be read back in its entirety
68
What are the elements of an MTO?
Units to fire
Changes requested by the observer
Number of rounds
Target number
69
What is the CIU and what does it do?
Communications interface unit, ir processes all audio signals for the aircraft
70
What does the VU1 radio provide?
VHF, SATCOM, Maritime communications
71
Where is the VU1 antenna located?
It is the whip antenna on the tail for VHF, and the eggbeater for the SATCOM.
It shares with the FM1 through the use of a diplexer
72
What does the VU2 radio provide?
VHF, FM, UHF
Emergency communications in the event of loss of aircraft AC power
73
Where are the VU2 antennas?
Cylinder with fin on the top, shark fin on bottom
74
Where is the FM2 antenna?
Blade antenna under the middle avionics bay
75
What radios are the ARC-201s associated with?
FM1 and FM2
76
What is frequency hopping?
A security measure where the frequency and dwell time changes multiple times per second. Able to be unencrypted with a key.
77
What are the two types of frequency hopping?
HAVE QUICK AND SINCGARS
78
What is the IDM and what does it provide?
Improved Data Modem, it serves as the digital host interface between the aircraft's radios and the data bus for specific mission equipment.
79
What are the four protocols for digital communications?
Longbow Net
Tactical Internet
Private Net
Link 16
80
Who can you communicate with on a longbow net?
Other AH-64E and JSTARs aircraft
81
Who can you communicate with on tactical internet?
Anyone utilizing BFT. JBCPs and other aircraft.
82
Where do you load keys for BFT?
KGV-72
83
What is a private net?
Digital communications utilizing a radio
84
How many team members are permitted for digital comms?
16
85
How many primary members are permitted for digital comms?
8
86
Does a team member have to be a primary member?
No
87
What is an EGI?
An EGI is essentially in INU with a GPS transmitter and receiver. It is the main component of the navigation subsystem. There are two of them making it a redundant system.
88
How can you tell when the EGIs have aligned?
The heading tape will become visible in the HDU
89
Which EGI/NAV system is bein utilized by the SFD in the event of loss of aircraft power?
NAV/EGI 2
90
What is the max altitude for the radar altimeter?
1428 ft
91
What is the breakdown of the 1000 point data base by point type?
1-50: Waypoint/Hazard
51-99: Control Measures
100-950: Any Type
951-1000: Targets
92
What does AAG stand for and what does AAG do?
Air to Air to Ground
Provides the capability to transmit and receive video and meta data.
93
What are the levels of control for MUMT-X?
Level 2 - View UAV sensor and store targets
Level 3 - Level 2 + control of sensor
Level 4 - Level 3 + control of UAV flight path
94
What does the APR-39 do?
Provides counter radar capabilities
95
What do APR 39 sensors look like on the aircraft?
Little black pucks
96
What does the AVR2B do?
Provides counter laser guided munition capabilities
97
What does the AVR2B look like on the aircraft?
Laser detectors
98
What does the Common Missile Warning System (AAR-57) do?
Protects the aircraft from surface to air fires by detecting muzzle flashes and deploying countermeasures.
99
What do flares defeat?
Heat seeking munitions
100
What does chaff defeat?
Radar guided munitions
101
What aircraft component generates the symbology for the HDU?
Mission Processor
102
How does the IHADSS determine head position?
The MTU floods the crew station with EM radiation
The IMRU senses the break in radiation and transmits a position calculation to the aircraft.
103
What are the two different things that the command heading (^) can be?
1. Heading to next waypoint
2. Heading at the initiation of a bobup box
104
What is the filled in triangle on the heading tape represent?
Alternate sensor bearing
105
When will you receive a LO altitude indication?
1. Below 10 ft AGL
2. 10% below LO bug between 11 and 999 ft AGL
3. 100 ft below LO bug between 1000 and 1428 ft AGL
106
What is the maximum altitude for the radar altimeter?
1428 ft AGL
107
When will you get an airspeed LO indication in the crew station?
You are in a single engine condition and you have decelerated below VSSE
108
When is position hold active?
Less than 5 knots ground speed
109
When is velocity hold active?
Between 5 and 40 knots ground speed (accelerating)
Between 30 and 5 knots ground speed (decelerating)
110
When is altitude hold active?
Above 40 knots ground speed
111
What airspeed does full saturation of the velocity vector correspond to in hover mode?
6 knots ground speed
112
What airspeed does full saturation of the velocity vector correspond to in transition mode?
60 knots ground speed
113
How big an area does the bobup box represent?
12 ft
114
When the bobup box reaches the edge of the HMD format how far have you drifted?
40 ft
115
When looking at the TADS which side is the night side and which is the day side?
Night side is on the left
Day side is on the right
116
Where are the TADS black boxes located?
#1 Forward EFAB
117
How does a TADS internal boresight work?
It aligns the DTV to the laser and the FLIR to the DTV
118
What does a flashing * mean when lasing?
The TADS has received multiple returns with greater than 15 meter difference, making the laser invalid
119
What are the two types of hellfire missiles?
Semi-Active Laser (SAL)
Radio Frequency (RF)
120
What are the four major assemblies of the hellfire missile?
Guidance
Warhead
Control
Propulsion
121
What does the PIU do?
Interfaces the launcher with the MP for firing
122
What are the two missile firing modes?
LOBL - Lock on before launch
LOAL - Lock on after launch
123
What are the two types of missile engagements?
Autonomous
Remote
124
What are the laser distractors?
USABOBBEP
Underspill
Spot jitter
Attenuation
Boresight error
Overspill
Beam divergence
Backscatter
Entrapment
Podium effect
125
What is underspill and what causes it?
It is when the laser strikes an object in front of the target, it is caused by placing the laser spot too low on the target.
126
What is spot jitter and what causes it?
It is when the laser is bouncing around the target, it is caused by improper lasing or vibrations
127
What is attenuation and what causes it?
It is when a laser return is absorbed by obscurants along the path to the target, if it is severe enough the seeker will not detect a return
128
What is beam divergence?
The laser beam becomes wider and taller proportional with distance
129
What is overspill and what causes it?
It is when energy spills over the target onto terrain in the background, it is caused by the laser spot being placed too high on the target
130
What is backscatter and what causes it?
It is when laser beam energy is being reflected off of atmospheric particles instead of the target causing inaccurate returns.
131
What is entrapment and what causes it?
Laser energy is trapped or masked within an object (i.e. wheel well, window, etc.). It is caused by lasing into an enclosed space
132
What is podium effect and what causes it?
When lasing the return is obscured either due to some portion of the target blocking it or the angle of the designator does not allow the seeker to see the laser. It is caused by lasing at close distances or changing angles.
133
What is driving the constraints box when shooting a LOBL missile?
The Missile Seeker
134
What is the minimum altitude to launch a SAL missile?
32 ft
135
When firing a SAL the aircraft should be offset ___ to ___ degrees to the firing side to prevent the missile from flying through the FOV on the TADS
3 to 5 degrees
136
Can safety inhibits be overridden?
No
137
How can performance inhibits be overridden?
Pull to second detent
138
What is the tri service laser code range?
1111-1788
139
Should you fire a missile when receiving erratic range readings? Why or why not?
No, erratic range could indicate overspill, under spill, or attenuation
140
What is the rule for calculating time of flight for a HF?
4 seconds per KM
141
What is a rapid fire engagement?
Multiple missiles fired in close succession on same laser code
142
What is a ripple fire engagement?
Multiple missiles fired in close succession on alternating laser codes
143
What is the JAGM missile?
A multi sensor air to ground missile that is the successor the R HF missile. Can fire any combination of SAL/RF.
144
What is Doppler Beam Sharpening?
When an RF missile takes a curved path to the target to optimize relative motion and increase RF clarity.
145
What is the danger close distant for a R HF normally and HOB?
130 meters
HOB - 150 meters
146
What type of rockets do we fire?
Hydra 70 Rockets
147
What is the diameter of a Hydra 70 rocket?
2.75 inches
148
What is the effective range of the Hydra 70 rocket?
3-5 Km
149
What is the pylon articulation range?
+4 to -15
150
When will TOTAL ROCKETS be displayed on the rocket page?
BLUF: You have rockets in the tube that have failed to fire
When there is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and number of rockets on board.
151
What will rockets do initially when fired from a hover?
They will pitch up due to the tendency of rockets to weathervane into the wind
152
What is the bursting and lethality radius of the M151 warhead?
Bursting - 10 meters
Lethality - 50 meters
153
What does the forward pylon connector provide on a rocket pod?
Fuzing
154
What is a M274 rocket?
TP rocket
155
What is an M257 rocket?
Overt illumination rocket, it provides one million candlepower for 100-120 seconds
156
What is an M278 rocket?
Covert illumination rocket, it provides one million candlepower IR illumination for 180 seconds
157
What is an M264 rocket?
Smoke rocket
158
What is an M255 rocket?
Flechette rocket with 1179 nails in the warhead
159
What does "ACCEL" limit mean?
Vertical acceleration is less than +0.5 Gs and this may cause the rocket to impact the main rotor system. This is a safety inhibit.
160
Can you load multiple rocket types in one zone?
No, only one rocket type can be loaded per zone
161
What is the rate of fire caution associated with rockets?
Due to the possibility of surging engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers, every 3 seconds, or fire with one outboard launcher with no restrictions.
162
What is the capacity of an ammo mag with sideloader and without?
1160 with side loader
1200 without
163
What is the ammunition capacity of an IAFS?
300 rounds total
242 in magazine
58 in AHS
164
What are M848 rounds?
Dummy rounds used for AWS functions checks
165
What are M788 rounds?
Training practice rounds, used for gunnery training
166
What are M789 rounds?
High explosive dual purpose rounds, used for combat
167
What is the fragmentation radius of a M789 HEDP round?
4 meters
168
What are the penetration effects of a M789 HEDP round?
Can penetrate 2 inches of rolled homogenous armor at 2500 meters
169
What is the max ballistic solution range for the AWS?
4200 meters
170
What is the max effective range of the AWS?
1500-1700 meters
171
What is the very effective range of the AWS?
3000 meters
172
What is the rate of fire for the AWS?
625 +/- 25 RPM
173
What is the duty cycle for the AWS?
6 50 round busts with 5 seconds between bursts, followed by a 10 minute cooling period
Generalized as no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds without a 10 minute cooling period
174
What is projectile drift?
Rounds spin in a clockwise motion, this causes right drift at longer ranges. The mission processor compensates for this beyond 1 Km.
175
What is trajectory shift?
This is caused when the boreline axis of the weapon differs from the flight path of the helicopter.
When aiming to left the round will jump right.
When aiming to the right projectile drift and trajectory shift will cancel each other out and no correction will be required.
176
What is projectile jump?
Occurs when a round is fired anywhere but directly into the relative wind. The change in axis of rotation causes the jump.
Firing to the right produces a downward jump.
Firing to the left produces an upward jump.
177
What utility system is used for the gun turret hydraulics?
Utility Side
178
In the event of low hydraulic pressure or loss of electrical what will happen to the AWS?
It will be stowed to +11 degrees
179
What is dispersion?
Degree of scatter in range and azimuth about a mean point of impact
180
What effects dispersion?
VBS
Vibrations within the helicopter
Sights, specifically the condition of the sights
Boresight
181
What doe a first detent laser do?
Ranging only
182
What does a second detent laser do?
Ranging and Designating
183
What are the only two FOVs that are bore sighted when you do a TADS internal boresight?
Narrow and Zoom
Implication is that you should only lase when in narrow and zoom FOVs
184
What are the danger close ranges for 30MM HEDP?
500 meter firing range = 55 meters
1,000 meter firing range = 70 meters
1,500 meter firing range = 100 meters
185
What are the danger close ranges for 2.75 in HE?
300 meter firing range = 110 meters
800 meter firing range = 135 meters
1,500 meter firing range = 170 meters
186
What are the danger close ranges for 2.75 in FL?
1,000 meter firing range = 235 meters
187
What are the danger close ranges for APKWS?
All ranges = 105 meters
188
What are the danger close ranges for AGM-114R?
All ranges = 130 meters
189
What are the danger close ranges for AGM-114R2?
All ranges = 145 meters
190
What are the danger close ranges for JAGM?
All ranges = 110 meters
All ranges (air burst) = 145 meters
191
What are terminal ballistics?
A projectile's effect on target.
192
What effect does angle of impact have on terminal ballistics?
Higher angles create closer fragmentation patterns and minimize chance of ricochet
Lower angles create elongated fragmentation patterns and have a higher chance of ricochet
193
What is the primary kill mechanism of all rounds?
Fragmentation
194
How do shaped charges work?
Shaped charges employ an inner liner that collapses upon impact with the target and creates and extremely high pressure jet that can puncture through most armor.
195
What is ballistics?
The study of projectile motion and the conditions that effect that motion.
196
What are the four types of ballistics?
IEAT
Interior
Exterior
Aerial
Terminal
197
What are interior ballistics?
Ballistics that address the characteristics affecting projectile motion inside the barrel or rocket tube.
198
Can aircrews compensate for interior ballistics?
No
199
What are the conditions affecting interior ballistics?
BPPTL
Barrel Wear
Propellant charge
Projectile Weight
Thrust Misalignment
Launcher Tube and Pod Alignment
200
Where in the rocket pod are the tubes the least accurate?
Outer ring
201
What are exterior ballistics?
Ballistics that influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along the trajectory.
202
What are the conditions affecting exterior ballistics?
PAGW
Projectile Drift
Air Resistance
Gravity
Wind Drift
203
Short of 3000 meters rockets will do what in relation to the wind?
Rockets will seek the relative wind
204
Long of 3000 meters rockets will do what in relation to the wind?
The wind will push the rockets
205
What are the aerial ballistics?
Ballistics related to the fact that the rounds are being fired from an airborne platform.
206
What are the conditions affecting aerial ballistics?
RAT
Rotor down wash
Angular rate error
Turning bank error
207
What munitions do rotor wash affect the most?
Rockets
208
What is angular rate error?
Error caused by the motion (pitch, roll, or yaw) in the launch platform as the projectile is fired. This primarily effects unguided weapons systems.
209
What type of movement affects range?
Pitch
210
What type of movement affects azimuth?
Yaw
211
What is Turning Bank Error?
When rounds are fired from a bank they will miss short and inside the turn.
212
How do you need to adjust your aim to counteract turning bank error?
Aim high and opposite
213
What would happen if the fins did not deploy on a rocket?
The rocket would tumble due to all the extraneous forces acting on the rocket
214
What are the factors that affect fin stabilized projectiles?
PCR
Propellant Force
Center of Gravity
Relative Wind Effect
215
What are the factors that affect 30MM?
TPP
Trajectory Shift
Port Starboard Effect
Projectile Jump
216
What is trajectory shift?
When firing off axis round will miss left or right if the target is not led properly
217
What is projectile jump?
Effect caused by firing a round into any direction other than the relative wind.
218
What What causes projectile jump?
the change in axis of rotation that results from the initial yaw of the round when leaving the muzzle
219
Firing to the right produces what type of jump?
Upward
220
Firing to the left produces what type of jump?
Downward
221
What are the unaided night flight considerations?
CAG
Cockpit lighting
Altitude/Airspeed
Glasses
222
What needs to be considered with cockpit lighting while flying night unaided?
It needs to stay at the lowest readable level
223
What needs to be considered with altitude and airspeed changes when flying night unaided?
It takes more time to identify obstacles so it may be necessary to slow down or increase altitude in order to avoid obstacles.
224
What are the visual illusions?
CHAFFCVSS
Confusion with ground lights
Height-Depth perception illusion
Autokinesis
Fascination/Fixation
False Horizons
Crater Illusion
Vection
Structural Illusion
Size-Distance Illusion
225
What are the three components of the size distance illusion?
Size constancy
Shape constancy
Aerial Perspective
226
What is size constancy?
Assuming the size of an object is constant, causing a misperception of distance. I.E. runways
227
What is shape constancy?
Assuming that the shape of an object is constant, causing a misinterpretation of distance. I.E. sloped runways
228
What is aerial perspective?
When visual cues are of a different size or clarity than expected. I.E. short immature trees are mistaken for mature ones
229
What is vection?
Falsely perceived motion when no motion is actually occurring.
230
What is the False Horizon Illusion?
When wide sloping planes are mistaken for horizons causing unusual attitudes
231
What is confusion with ground lights?
Mistaking ground lights for celestial lights
232
What is the height/depth perception illusion?
When flying through areas where visual cues are minimal it can be challenging to judge height and depth. A common example of this is flying through the desert
233
What is the crater illusion?
When flying under NVGs and using an IR searchlight aircrews can feel as if they are landing into a crater
234
What is the size distance illusion?
When a pilot misinterprets an object of unfamiliar size and shape by comparing it with something they are accustomed to seeing
235
When
236
What is fascination/fixation?
The degradation in SA that results from focusing on one specific thing
237
What two categories is fascination/fixation divided into?
Task Saturation
Target Fixation
238
What is task saturation?
When a pilot becomes so engrossed in one task that he becomes situationally unaware
239
What is target fixation?
A pilot becomes fixated on an object or a goal causing them to lose situational awareness completely
240
What is autokinesis?
Occurs when a dim light is seen against a dark background, after staring at the light for 6-12 seconds it will appear to move 20 degrees in any particular direction
241
Do aviators use binocular cues at night?
No
242
What are the monocular cues?
GRAM
Geometric Perspective
Retinal image size
Aerial Perspective
Motion parallax
243
What is geometric perspective?
An object appears to have a different shape when it is viewed at varying distances and from different angles
244
What are the three subcomponents of geometric perspective?
LAV
Linear Perspective
Apparent Foreshortening
Vertical Position in Field
245
What is Linear Perspective?
Parallel lines will appear to converge at a distance
246
What is apparent foreshortening?
When viewed from a distance objects begin to take an oval/elliptical shape.
247
What is vertical position in field?
Objects at greater distances appear higher on the horizon than those closer to the observer
248
What is retinal image size?
An image focused on the retina is perceived by the brain to be of a given size
249
What are the subcomponents of retinal image size?
KITO
Known Size of Objects
Increasing or Decreasing Size of Objects
Terrestrial Association
Overlapping Contours
250
What is known size of objects?
The brain utilizes the retina to perceive objects to be of a certain size based on the size of the angle projected on the retina
251
What is increasing/decreasing size of objects?
If an object is moving closer it gets bigger and vice versa
252
What is terrestrial association?
Comparison of two objects of a known size can help the viewer judge distance
253
What is overlapping contour or interposition of objects?
When objects overlap the overlapped object is further away.
254
What is aerial perspective?
How the visual signature of an object differs when viewed from the sky
255
What are the elements of aerial perspective?
FLP
Fading of colors or shades
Loss of detail or texture
Position of light source and direction of shadow
256
What is the description of fading colors or shades in terms of aerial perspective?
Objects viewed at a greater distance lose their color and sharpness with distance.
257
What is position of light source and direction of shadow in terms of aerial perspective?
The main consideration is if a shadow is cast towards and observer, the object casting the shadow is closer than the light source (no shit).
258
What is loss of detail or texture in terms of aerial perspective?
Objects viewed at greater distance lose their color and look less distinct.
259
What is motion parallax?
The apparent relative motion of stationary objects as viewed by an observer moving across the landscape.
260
Closer objects will appear to move _______ due to motion parallax.
Faster
261
Farther objects will appear to move _______ due to motion parallax.
Slower
262
Which is the most important depth perception cue?
Motion Parallax
263
What anatomy in the eye allows human beings to see at night?
Rods
264
________ builds in the rods to allow the eye to see at night.
Rhodopsin (Visual Purple)
265
How long does dark adaptation take?
30-45 minutes
266
Function of eyes is highly dependent on _____________.
Oxygen
267
Above _______ ft PA, supplemental oxygen is essential for proper eye function at night.
4000
268
Where is the night blind spot?
5-10 degree wide section in the center of the field of vision
269
What are three techniques for night vision?
Off Center Vision
Scanning
Shapes and Silhouettes
270
Why does off center vision help at night?
Due to the blind spot in the center of the field of vision, en effective technique at night is to use peripheral vision to view objects
271
Why does scanning help at night?
Uniform scan patterns ensure cues are not being missed
272
How do shapes and silhouettes help with vision at night?
Pilots become familiar with architectural features in the area so that they can identify buildings in low light situations
273
How does FLIR work?
Sun emits IR energy to the surface of the Earth, that IR energy is than absorbed by objects to varying degrees. FLIR generates an image based on the difference of IR energy in the landscape.
274
IR radiation is dependent on what four factors?
RATE
Reflectance
Absorptance
Transmittance
Emissivity
275
What is reflectance?
Ratio of radiant energy reflected by a body to the radiant energy incident upon it
276
What is absorptance?
Ratio of radiant energy absorbed by a body to the radiant energy incident upon it
277
What is transmittance?
Ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reachest its farther boundary
278
What is Minimum Resolvable Temperature (MRT)?
Lowest thermal difference between an object and its background that can be seen by an observer through FLIR
279
What are the 4 sections of the engine?
Hot, Cold, Power Turbine, Accessory
280
What are some of the functions of the accessory section?
CHMU
Fuel Boost Pump
Oil Filter
Oil Cooler
Alternator
Oil lube/pump
Inlet particle seperator
Fuel filter
Chip detector
Oil/fuel bypass sensor
Overspeed and drain valve
Air turbine starter
281
Very simply, how does the engine work?
1. IPAS air from APU, engine, or AGPU are used to power the accessory section
2. The accessory setion powes the air turbine start
3. The air turbine starter turns the radial drive shaft which begins to spin the compressor section
4. The compressor section uses a 5 stage axial compressor to compress air and send to the combustion chamber
5. Atomized fuel, spark, and compressed air are combined to create combustion
6. Energy released from expanding gases is caputred by gas generator turbines
7. 52% Ng the gas generator section is able to power the engine, making the engine self sustaining
Suck, squeeze, bang, blow
282
What are the green cords on the engine?
Crewstation indications
283
What are the yellow cords on the engine?
Power, control, and trim signals
284
What are the blue cords on the engine?
Overspeed + torque signals
285
What does the alternator do?
It provides 115 V AC power to the engine and associated systems
286
What are the three windings on the alternator?
Engine Ignition
Ng Speed Indications
EDECU power
287
What does the EDECU provide?
MOTTTH
Max Torque Rate Attenuation
Overspeed Protection
Torque Matching and Load Sharing
TGT Limiting
Transient Droop Improvement
Hot Start Prevention
288
What does max torque rate attenuation do?
Prevents torque spikes during uncompensated maneuvers such as rapid left cyclic.
289
How does the EDECU incorporate TGT limiting?
If TGT exceeds limits the EDECU gives a signal to the CHMU to cut off fuel to the engine.
290
When is dual engine contingency power activated?
When NP is less than or equal to 97% or decreasing at 5% per second or greater
291
What is the TGT limiter increased to when dual engine contingency power is activated?
903C
292
What does transient droop improvement do?
Prevents rotor droop by adding additional fuel to the engine when required with no additional intervention by the pilot.
293
When is transient droop improvement active?
Above 12%
294
What is a common risk associated with TDI?
When conducting autos if you drop below 12% torque you risk drooping the rotor as TDI is not available.
295
How does hot start prevention work?
If TGT exceeds 900 degrees celsius during the start sequence all fuel will be cut off to the engine.
296
What does the CHMU do?
It receives signals from the power available spindle and load demand spindle and uses those signals to meter fuel to the engine.
297
What component provides NG overspeed protection?
CHMU
298
How does NG overspeed protection work?
At 108-112% NG the CHMU will cut off fuel to the engine to prevent an overspeed
299
What does the overspeed drain valve do?
It provides NP overspeed protection at 118.1 +/- 1% Np
300
What are the three types of engine limiting?
TGT, Fuel Flow, Ng Mach
301
What does the scissor assembly do?
Transmits rotational power from the main rotor head to the rotating swash plate
302
What does SAS stand for?
Stability Augmentation System
303
What are the four functions of SAS?
Turn Coordination
Rate Damping
Atmospheric Damping
Authority in each axis to assist in stabilization
304
How much authority does SAS have in each axis?
Collective - 10%
Directional - 10%
Lateral - 10%
Longitudinal Forward - 20%
Longitudinal Aft - 10%
305
What does turn coordination provide?
It will keep the aircraft in trim through turns when flying above 40 kts groundspeed.
306
What does rate damping provide?
Rate damping smooths out control inputs
307
What does atmospheric damping do?
Compensates for atmospheric disturbances
308
What does CAS stand for?
Command Augmentation System
309
What does CAS provide?
A uniform aircraft response to each control input
310
What are the four types of attitude hold?
Position Hold
Heading Hold
Velocity Hold
Attitude Hold
311
What does position hold provide and when is it active?
Position hold holds the aircraft over a specific point on the ground
It is active below 5 knots ground speed
312
When will you receive the "Hover Drift" message on the EUFD?
If position hold is active and the helicopter drifts more than 48 feet
313
What does heading hold do?
Holds the heading constant as long as fore trim is not interrupted and control movement is kept below a certain threshold.
314
When is heading hold active?
Below 40 knots ground speed
315
What does velocity hold do?
Holds airraft velocity constant within specific groundspeed parameters
316
When is velocity hold active?
5-40 knots when accelerating
30-5 knots when decelerating
317
What does attitude hold provide?
Holds a constant attitude while flying
318
When is attitude hold active?
40 knots and above when accelerating
30 knots or greater when decelerating
319
What are the two types of altitude hold?
Radar and Barometric
320
When is radar altitude hold active?
Speed less than 40 knots ground
Altitude less than 1428 ft radar
321
When is barometric hold active?
Speed over 40 knots ground
Altitude above 1428 ft radar
322
What does TRC provide?
The ability to reposition the aircraft while in position hold
323
What are the two different types of symbology for TRC?
2 knot circle
5 knot arc
324
What are the conditions necessary to activate TRC?
Altitude hold is engaged
Attitude hold is engaged
Altitude is greater than 5 ft AGL
Cyclic is displaced more than 1/4" from trimmed position
Force trim is not interrupted
Ground speed is less than 5 knots
325
What is the backup control system (BUCS)?
An electronic fly by wire system that allows the aircrew to fly the aircraft without any mechanical linkage to the servos
326
Which system does the BUCS receive its hydraulics from?
Primary Side
327
What do the LVDTs do?
The LVDTs send signals to the FMC to control the aircraft
328
What do the RVDTs do?
They signal to the FMC to enter BUCS
329
What does the ARDD do?
Allows the crewmember to break out of a jam and into BUCS
330
What are the three times in which BUCS will engage?
A jam between the crewstations
Severance between the crewstations
Severance aft of the crewstations
331
You receive a BUCS ON (STATION)(AXIS) on the EUFD, what has happened?
A Jam
332
What occurs when there is a jam?
Step 1: Jam is detected
Step 2: Pilot/CPG rolls the ARDD, RVDT sends signal to FMC to engage BUCS
Step 3: Signals are sent from flight controls to LVDT to control the aircraft
333
You receive a BUCS FAIL (AXIS) on the EUFD, what has happened?
There is a severance between the crewstations.
334
What occurs when there is a severance between the crewstations?
Step 1: A mistrack is detected between the CPG and PLT LVDTs. FMC will activate BUCS.
Note: BUCS will not automatically engage
Step 2: PLT will have control of the aircraft, if CPG wants to fly he must hit the BUCS trigger on the collective
335
You receive the indication BUCS ON PLT (AXIS), what has occurred?
Step 1: The FMC detects a mistrack between the CPG/PLT LVDTs and the RAMs
Step 2: BUCS is activated and both crewmembers can fly the aircraft
336
How does BUCS engagement work generally?
1: BUCS is activated
2: BUCS plunger is pushed down, cutting off all mechanical linkage to the the servos
3: SAS is given 100% control authority of the servos
4: LVDTs communicate control inputs to the SAS to fly the helicopter
337
How does a manifold work?
The IPAS system provides pressure on a piston which keeps hydraulic fluid in the system pressurized at all times.
338
What is cavitation?
Bubbles forming in the hydraulic fluid
339
What does your primary side provide hydraulics to?
Flight control servoactuators and FMC
340
What does the utility side provide hydraulics to?
Utility side of all servos
RAAATEE
Rotor Brake
APU start
AWS
AHS
T/W unlock actuator
External stores actuator
Emergency Hydraulics
341
What are the two low level indicators on the utility manifold?
Low Level Valve
Low Level Switch
342
What happens when the low level valve is tripped in the utility manifold?
The auxiliary isolation valve is activated and fluid is diverted from the following systems:
AWS
AHS
External Stores Actuator
343
What happens when the low level switch is tripped?
The emergency shutoff valve will be activated shutting off all fluid from the following systems:
T/W Unlock Actuator
Utility side of directional servo
344
What two functions does the utility accumulator provide?
1. Emergency Hydraulics
2. APU Start
345
What happens when I push the emergency hydraulics button?
The 1650 nitrogen pre charge pushes the fluid in the accumulator through the emergency routing to the servos.
346
How long will the aircrew have control authority while in emergency hydraulics?
30-41 seconds of control authority at a 1 Hz rate
347
What is the diameter of the rotor system?
49 ft
348
Where is the highest point on the helicopter and how high is it?
VU1 antenna, 17ft 6in
349
What does the power train do in the helicopter?
350
What is decisive engagment?
When a unit is fully committed to an engagement and cannot maneuver
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