ACCSAP Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

ACEi/ARB for patients with IHD + HTN and/or DM

A

Class I Indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Features associated with adverse prognosis in PE

A

Echo: RV Dilation (RV/LV > 0.9), septal flattening and paradoxical leftward septal motion, RV enlargement, TR, PH, McConnell’s sign (RV free wall hypokinesis with apical sparing)

Biomarkers: Elevated CTnT, BNP

CT: RV dilation, ventricular septal bowing from R to L

ECG: new atrial arrhythmias, new RBBB (even incomplete), T wave inv in V-V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

normal P wave axis

A

up in I, II and down in avR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type I CRCD

A

anthracyclines (Doxorubicin) resulting in myocyte destruction and clinical heart failure from iron-based oxygen free radicals

Dose related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type II CRCD

A

Loss of myocardial contractility but not myocyte death, usually reversible. Seen with mAB

Not dose related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clue against athletic heart in enlarged RV

A

Pulmonary HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Imaging test of choice for hemochromatosis

A

cMR- heart and liver with decreased T2 compared to skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DAPT after CVA

A

NIHSS </= 3 and no lytics = 21 days then lifelong ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1st step w/u of asymptomatic WPW

A

GXT to look for abrupt loss of pre-excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TIMI Score Components

A

Age >65
multiple risk factors
ST deviation on admission
multiple episodes over 24 hours
ASA in past 7 days
Elevated biomarkers
known stenosis > 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Class I indication for bi-v ICD

A

LVEF < 35%, sinus rhythm, NYHA II +, LBBB and QRS > 150ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nervous response after MI

A

increase in sympathetic nervous system via norepi and beta-1-adrenergic activity. Decrease in parasympathetic via acetylcholine signaling

Later RAAS system is activated, leading to increased renin and angiotensin II levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Indications for immediate invasive (<2h) NSTEMI

A

refractory angina
s&s of HF or new/worsening MR
hemodynamic instablitiy
recurrent angina at rest despite meds
sustained VT/VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyperaldosteronism causes

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism from tumor
hyperplasia (almost always bilateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LFLG AS

A

AVA < 1, mean gradient < 40

low-dose dobutamine stress echo or invasive hemodynamic assessment, looking for gradient to increase over 40 with area < 1

or DI (<0.25 severe)

Calc scoring >1300 women or > 2000 men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MVP murmur

A

Standing will decrease pre-load as more blood is in LE, leading to earlier click and more intense murmur

17
Q

Duration to call persistent a-fib

A

7 days

Longstanding persistent = > 12 months

18
Q

Increase the MVP murmur

A

mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur at apex

Valsalva/handgrip increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased venous return /preload and decreased LV cavity size, leading to earlier fail and earlier click/murmur

also increases HCM, so click differentiates

Decreased with things that increase LV volume/size so laying down, inspiration, passive leg lift and squatting as they increase venous return

19
Q

MOA of P2y12i

A

inhibit p2y12 receptor conformational change and G-protein activation induced by ADP, which inhibits platelet activation and aggregation

20
Q

Class Ic antiarrhythmics use dependence

A

more effective at faster heart rates; makes flecainide good pill in pocket

21
Q

Indications to intervene on ASYMPTOMATIC carotid stenosis before CABG

A
  1. Recent symptoms (<6 mo)
  2. Bilateral >80%
  3. Unilateral >70% with contralateral total occlusion
22
Q

Medical therapy of vasospastic angina

A

Long acting nitrates or CCB

23
Q

ECG changes associated with prior MI

A
  • Any q wave in leads V2-V3 at least 0.02 sec or QS complex in V2and V3
  • Q wave at least .03 seconds and 0.1 mV deep or QS comples in I, II, aVL, aVF or V4-V6 in any two leads of a contiguous grouping
  • R wave at least 0.04 seconds in V1-V2 and R/S at least 1 with a concordant positive t wave in absence of conduction defect
24
Q

MV PPM

A

Severe is EOA index < 0.9

25
RHC for PHTN: differentiating pulmonary vasculopathy vs Left heart disease
PCWP: elevated in left heart disease, normal in pulmonary vasculopathy
26
rheumatic MS pre-pregnancy
percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy is a Class I recommendation before pregnancy for asymptomatic patients with severe MS (MV area ≤1.5 cm2) who have valve morphology favorable for percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy
27
mixed venous sat
normal >65%; low argues cardiogenic shock
28
Conduction system implications of alcohol septal ablation
can cause RBBB 50% of time, so especially cautious if LBBB already
29
Limiting aspect of disopyramide
prolonging qtc
30
LV thickness to consider primary-prevention ICD
>30mm
31
Suggestive of hemochromatosis
very high serum ferritin level, serum iron/TIBC of >50%, transaminase elevation, and diabetes mellitus [DM], all of which are suggestive of hemochromatosis
32
Typical flutter
Saw-tooth pattern in inferior leads and positive flutter wave in V1
33
AR algorithm
34
Sarcoid MRI
he classical pattern of scar for cardiac sarcoidosis on cMRI using late gadolinium enhancement (Figures 1, 2) is a nonischemic pattern involving the subepicardium and midmyocardium.
35
Antiarrhythmic for WPW a-fib
Small observational studies support the use of ibutilide or intravenous (IV) procainamide for the treatment of pre-excited AF in patients who are not hemodynamically compromised
36