Ageing Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

anterior cerebral artery stroke

A

contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss

lower > upper

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2
Q

middle cerebral artery stroke

A

contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss
upper > lower

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

aphasia

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3
Q

posterior cerebral artery stroke

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

visual agnosia

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4
Q

Total anterior circulation infarcts sx

A

involves middle and anterior cerebral arteries

  1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
  2. homonymous hemianopia
  3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
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5
Q

Partial anterior circulation infarcts sx

A

involves smaller arteries of anterior circulation e.g. upper or lower division of middle cerebral artery
2 of the above criteria are present

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6
Q

Lacunar infarcts sx

A

involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

presents with 1 of the following:

  1. unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three.
  2. pure sensory stroke.
  3. ataxic hemiparesis
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7
Q

Posterior circulation infarcts sx

A

involves vertebrobasilar arteries

presents with 1 of the following:

  1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
  2. loss of consciousness
  3. isolated homonymous hemianopia
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8
Q

basilar artery stroke Sx

A

locked in syndrome

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9
Q

what is weber syndrome

A

branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain

ipsilateral CN III palsy
Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity

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10
Q

what is lateral medullary syndrome/Wallenberg syndrome

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Ipsilateral: facial pain and temperature loss
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temperature loss
Ataxia, nystagmus

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11
Q

70 year old taxi driver with trouble calculating change and with navigation - where is affected

A

parietal lobe

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12
Q

what is a common side effect of alpha blockers

A

postural hypotension

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13
Q

fall and syncope = DDx

A

arrthymia
orthostatic hypotension
vasovagal
valve disease i.e. aortic stenosis

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14
Q

what are common drugs that increase the risk of falls

A
BZDs
antipsychotics 
antihypertensives 
antidepressants 
anticholinergics 
Class 1A antiarrthymias 
opiates 
diuretics 
parkisons medication
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15
Q

what is the intervention for falls with the most supportive evidence it works

A

Strength and balance training

Must be 3x week for minimum 12 weeks

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16
Q

being on how many drugs are considered a risk factor for falls

A

> 4

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17
Q

4 drugs that are frequently associated with adverse effects in the elderly

A

warfarin
digoxin
insulin
BZDs

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18
Q

side effects of NSAIDs

A

GI haemorrhage
decline in GFR
decreased effectiveness of diuretics, anti hypertensive agents

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19
Q

what anti-emetics cannot be used in parkinsons

A

prochlorperazine

metoclopramide

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20
Q

what can beta blocker not be prescribed with

A

verapamil

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21
Q

who can not get non-cardioselective beta blockers (e.g. propranolol, sotalol)

A

patients with COPD

22
Q

who should CCB be stopped in

A

people with chronic constipation

23
Q

what drugs do Potassium rich food [i.e. bananas,oranges, green leafy vegetables] interact with

A

ACEIs, ARBs, K-sparing diuretics

24
Q

what drugs do food with lots of Vit E and K [Apples, chickpeas, spinach, nuts, spinach, kiwi, broccoli] interact with

25
what is important to note about these foods; Chicken, turkey, milk, soy,cheese, yogurt
alter PH Interacts with: Antibiotics, thyroid meds, Digoxin, diuretics
26
what is the relation of Amitrytilline and BPH
makes it worse there is a risk of urinary retention
27
what food/drink should you AVOID with a statin
grapefruit juice
28
what food/drink should you AVOID with metronidazole
alcohol
29
what food/drink should you AVOID with warfarin
cranberry
30
what food/drink should you AVOID with thyroxine
calcium get decreased absorption
31
what drug should not be prescribed with warfarin
NSAID = risk of bleed
32
what would a combination of ACEi and spironolactone cause
Hyperkalaemia
33
what would a combination of digoxin and verapamil cause
digoxin toxicity
34
what would a combination of fluoxetine and phenelzine cause
serotonin syndrome
35
what conditions are Triptans contraindicated in
IHD uncontrolled HTN Lithium SSRI
36
what antibiotics can not be given to someone on a statin
clarithromycin
37
what is the criteria for Delirium
Disturbance in attention Change in cognition Acute Fluctuates
38
how does hypoactive delirium compare to hyperactive
hyperactive - agitation and restless hypoactive - sleepy and slow
39
what are the hallmarks of Delirium
Acute and fluctuating Inattention Altered level of consciousness Disorganised thinking
40
what is the 4AT
assessment test for delirium and cognitive impairment
41
what are the categories of 4AT and the points you can get in that category
Alertness [out of 4 points] AMT4 [out of 2 points] - [age, dob, place, current year] Attention [out of 2 points] - say months of the year backwards starting from December Acute change or Fluctuating course [out of 4 points]
42
what are the score cut-offs for 4AT
4 or above = possible delirium +/- cognitive impairment 1-3 = possible cognitive impairment 0 = delirium unlikely
43
medication for Tx of delirium
Haloperidol - 0.25-0.5mg PO, max 5mg a day Quetipine - for Parkinsons patients or Lewy Body Dementia Lorazepam - ONLY if alcohol or BZDs withdrawal
44
what score is used to assess risk of stroke in AF
CHA2DS2-VASc ``` Congestive HF Hypertension Age > 75 [2pts] Diabetes Stroke or TIA previously [2pts] Vascular disease Age 65-74 [1pt] Sex (female) ``` Score more than 1 = offer anti-coagulation
45
what are the options for anti-coagulation for AF
Warfarin - INR target 2-3 NOACS
46
symptoms of opioid overdose
hallucinations, myoclonus, drowsiness
47
what is MR and what is it used for
Modified release (MR) Background pain Twice daily tablet
48
what is morphine IR and what is it used for
``` Immediate release (IR) Breakthrough pain ``` ‘PRN’ tablet (sevredol) or liquid (oramorph) which is approx 1/6 of total background dose
49
Patient on Codeine 60mg four times a day (total daily dose 240mg) - what is the equivalent morphine dose
24mg morphine divide by 10 = weak opiate
50
conversion factor for PO morphine to SC
Morphine is twice as potent given SC To work out SC dose, divide PO dose by 2 Oral MST 10mg bd [20mg total] = SC morphine 10mg over 24 hours
51
what is common [anticipatory] prescribing for end of life
Pain / SOB = Morphine 2mg scut hourly Distress = Midazolam 2mg scut N/V = Levomepromazine 2.5mg eight hourly  Secretions = Hyoscine butylbromide injection (Buscopan® 20mg SC hourly