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1
Q

What is Change Management?

A

Formal process to make a change

Important for managing risks in an organization.

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2
Q

Why is Change Management important?

A
  • Avoid downtime
  • Prevent confusion
  • Reduce mistakes

It addresses one of the most common risks in organizations.

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3
Q

What are the steps in an approval change process?

A
  • Request forms
  • Identify the scope
  • Schedule date and time
  • Determine affected systems
  • Analyze risks
  • Get approval/rejection
  • End-user acceptance

These steps ensure a structured approach to implementing changes.

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4
Q

Who is responsible for ownership in Change Management?

A

Individual or entity that needs to make a change

They oversee/manage the change but do not perform it.

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5
Q

What is Impact Analysis in Change Management?

A

Identify risks involved with making a change

It assesses the potential impact on different parts of the organization.

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6
Q

What is a Backout plan?

A

Plan to revert everything back to before the change

Implemented if something goes wrong during the change.

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7
Q

What are Maintenance Windows?

A

Scheduled times for changes to minimize business interference

Usually done overnight to avoid disruption.

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8
Q

What is an Allow/Deny List in Technical Change Management?

A
  • Allow: only approved applications run
  • Deny: everything runs except denied applications

This helps manage application security.

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9
Q

What are Restricted Activities in Change Management?

A

Must follow specific change scope and window time

Only approved changes can be made.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of Documentation in Change Management?

A

Must be a living document, ongoing updates

Includes updating diagrams, policies, and procedures.

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11
Q

What are the motivations of Threat Actors?

A
  • Data exfiltration
  • Espionage
  • Service disruption
  • Blackmail
  • Financial gain
  • Philosophical or political
  • Ethical
  • Revenge
  • War

These motivations drive various cyber attacks.

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12
Q

What are the types of Threat Actors?

A
  • Nation-state
  • Unskilled/script kiddies
  • Hacktivist
  • Insider threat
  • Organized crime
  • Shadow IT

Each type has different capabilities and motivations.

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13
Q

What are Human vectors/social engineering attacks?

A
  • Phishing
  • Vishing
  • Smishing
  • Misinformation
  • Disinformation
  • Impersonation
  • Business email compromise
  • Pretexting
  • Watering hole
  • Brand impersonation
  • Typosquatting

These attacks exploit human behavior to gain unauthorized access.

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14
Q

What is SQL injection (SQLi)?

A

Type of code injection attack adding info into data stream

Often done through web browsers into forms or fields.

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15
Q

What is XSS?

A

Cross-Site Scripting, uses JavaScript to exploit trust in browsers

Types include non-persistent, persistent, and DOM-based XSS.

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16
Q

What are Application Vulnerabilities?

A
  • Memory injections
  • Buffer overflow
  • Race condition
  • Time of check to time of use attack (TOCTU)

These vulnerabilities allow malware to exploit applications.

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17
Q

What are OS based vulnerabilities fixed by?

A

Regular patching

Keeping operating systems updated is crucial for security.

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18
Q

What are Cloud-specific vulnerabilities?

A
  • DoS/DDoS
  • Authentication bypass
  • Directory traversal
  • Remote code execution

These vulnerabilities target cloud services and applications.

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19
Q

What is a Zero-day vulnerability?

A

Unknown vulnerabilities with no available patch

These pose significant risks as they are exploited before being discovered.

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20
Q

What is Ransomware?

A

Malware that demands money

Often delivered through phishing or email compromise.

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21
Q

What is a Trojan?

A

Malware disguised as legitimate software

Relies on human interaction for delivery.

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22
Q

What is a Botnet?

A

A collection of systems controlled by a command and control server

Used for various malicious activities.

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23
Q

What is Privilege escalation?

A

Gaining higher-level access to a system

Can be achieved by exploiting known vulnerabilities.

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24
Q

What is CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery)?

A

Exploits the trust a web application has for the user

Prevented using cryptographic tokens.

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25
What is a **Downgrade attack**?
Forces hosts to use old insecure protocols ## Footnote This reintroduces vulnerabilities to the system.
26
What is **forgery** in the context of web applications?
Takes advantage of the trust that web application has for the user ## Footnote This can lead to unauthorized actions being performed on behalf of the user.
27
What is a **crypto token** used for?
To prevent forgery ## Footnote Crypto tokens help ensure that requests are legitimate and not forged.
28
Define **directory traversal**.
Read files from web server that are outside of website’s file directory ## Footnote This can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive files.
29
What is a **downgrade attack**?
Forces hosts to use old insecure protocols that reintroduces vulnerabilities ## Footnote This can compromise the security of the system.
30
What does **SSL stripping** do?
Removes TLS encryption to read contents of traffic ## Footnote This can downgrade HTTPS to HTTP, exposing sensitive data.
31
What is a **collision attack**?
When plaintext maps to the same hash value ## Footnote This can compromise the integrity of hashed data.
32
What is a **birthday attack**?
A type of collision attack that takes advantage of probability ## Footnote It exploits the likelihood of two different inputs producing the same hash.
33
What is **spraying** in password attacks?
Using the same password/common passwords for multiple accounts ## Footnote This method targets many accounts with minimal effort.
34
Define **brute force** password attack.
Trying every single possible password/combination ## Footnote This method can be time-consuming but is effective against weak passwords.
35
List indicators of **malicious activity**.
* Account lockout * Concurrent session usage * Blocked content * Impossible travel * Resource consumption * Resource inaccessibility * Out of cycle logging * Published/documented private company data * Missing logs ## Footnote These indicators can signal potential security breaches.
36
What are the types of **segmentation**?
* Physical - separating physical devices * Logical - network switches through VLANs * Virtual - cloud-based, virtual machines ## Footnote Segmentation helps improve performance and security.
37
What are **ACLs**?
Access control lists that allow or disallow traffic ## Footnote ACLs can be based on categories, IPs, destination ports, etc.
38
What is the purpose of **encryption** in data protection?
Limit data that attackers can access ## Footnote Encryption is crucial for safeguarding sensitive information.
39
What does **EFS** stand for?
Windows Encrypting File System ## Footnote EFS is used for file-level encryption in Windows.
40
What is **FDE**?
Full Disk Encryption ## Footnote FDE encrypts everything on the drive to protect data at rest.
41
What is the role of **constant monitoring** in security?
Log all information ## Footnote Monitoring can be done through built-in sensors, separate devices, or integrated systems.
42
What is **least privilege**?
A principle that limits user access to only what is necessary ## Footnote This minimizes potential damage from compromised accounts.
43
What is **system hardening**?
Updates, user accounts, limit network access, monitoring with antivirus/anti-malware ## Footnote Hardening techniques are essential for securing systems.
44
What does **HIPS** stand for?
Host Intrusion Prevention System ## Footnote HIPS recognizes and blocks known attacks.
45
What is **data at rest**?
Data stored on a storage device ## Footnote Protecting data at rest involves encryption and access permissions.
46
What is **data in transit**?
Data transmitted over a network ## Footnote Protection during transit can include firewalls and transport encryption.
47
What is **data in use**?
Data actively being processed ## Footnote This data is typically decrypted while being processed.
48
What is **tokenization**?
Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive placeholders ## Footnote Tokenization is used to protect sensitive information during transactions.
49
What are **secure baselines**?
Foundation baselines for securing applications ## Footnote They include firewall settings, patch levels, and OS file versions.
50
What is **media sanitization**?
Removing data so no usable info remains ## Footnote This is crucial for disposal or decommissioning of storage devices.
51
What is the purpose of **vulnerability scanning**?
Minimally invasive testing to identify open/closed ports ## Footnote Tools like Nessus and Nmap are commonly used for this purpose.
52
What is a **penetration test**?
Simulates an attack to exploit vulnerabilities ## Footnote This helps organizations understand their security posture.
53
What does **CVSS** stand for?
Common Vulnerability Scoring System ## Footnote CVSS is used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities.
54
What is the **AAA Framework**?
Authentication, Authorization, Accounting ## Footnote This framework is essential for managing user access and resources.
55
What is **WPA3**?
Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 ## Footnote WPA3 provides enhanced security for wireless networks.
56
What is **input validation**?
Checking and correcting all input methods ## Footnote This is crucial for preventing injection attacks.
57
What is **sandboxing**?
Isolating applications to limit their resource access ## Footnote This can be used during development or runtime.
58
What are the **key components** of **remote access** security monitoring?
* Authentications * Server monitoring * Applications * Infrastructure ## Footnote These components help ensure the security of remote access systems.
59
What is the purpose of **log aggregation** in security monitoring?
* Centralized reporting * Correlation between diverse systems * Tracking application access * Measuring data transfers ## Footnote Log aggregation is typically done through a SIEM.
60
What does **SCAP** stand for in security protocols?
Security Content Automation Protocol ## Footnote SCAP is part of NIST and standardizes vulnerability communication across tools.
61
True or false: An **agent** in security monitoring needs to be installed and maintained.
TRUE ## Footnote An agent is always on and running, providing continuous monitoring.
62
What are the **functions** of a **SIEM**?
* Log collection of security alerts * Log aggregation and long-term storage * Data correlation * Forensic analysis ## Footnote SIEMs are central databases for security information and event management.
63
What is the **incident response lifecycle** according to NIST SP800-61?
* Preparation * Detection * Analysis * Containment * Eradication * Recovery * Lessons Learned ## Footnote This lifecycle outlines the steps to effectively respond to security incidents.
64
What is the purpose of **digital forensics** in incident response?
* Acquisition * Analysis * Reporting * Preservation ## Footnote Digital forensics involves collecting and protecting information related to an intrusion.
65
What types of logs are important for **investigating security incidents**?
* Firewall Logs * Application Logs * Endpoint Logs * IDS/IPS Logs * Network Logs ## Footnote These logs provide detailed security-related information for analysis.
66
What are the **elements of effective security governance**?
* Security Policies * Governance structures * External considerations * Data roles and responsibilities ## Footnote Effective governance ensures compliance and security within an organization.
67
What is the purpose of a **Business Continuity Plan**?
To continue operations if something goes wrong ## Footnote This plan must be documented and tested to ensure effectiveness.
68
What does **SLA** stand for in vendor agreements?
Service Level Agreement ## Footnote SLA outlines minimum terms for services provided between customers and service providers.
69
What are the **consequences of non-compliance** with security regulations?
* Fines * Loss of employment * Reputational damage * Contractual impacts ## Footnote Non-compliance can have serious legal and financial repercussions.
70
What is the purpose of **phishing campaigns** in security awareness training?
To help employees recognize phishing attempts ## Footnote These campaigns simulate phishing attacks to improve awareness.
71
What are the **key roles** in data management?
* Data Owner * Data Controller * Data Processor * Data Custodian/Steward ## Footnote Each role has specific responsibilities regarding data security and compliance.
72
Fill in the blank: **________** is a legal technique to preserve relevant information for litigation.
Legal Hold ## Footnote Legal holds ensure that data is not modified or tampered with during legal proceedings.
73
What is the **function** of **alert tuning** in security monitoring?
To improve alert accuracy ## Footnote Alert tuning helps reduce false positives and ensures relevant alerts are prioritized.
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