1
Q
If asked to draw a red, lt. blue, blood cultures, and lavender, which is last?
A
Lavender
2
Q
what is the recommended disinfectant to clean up blood, or other bodily fluid contamination?
A
Sodium Hypochlorite
3
Q
Informed consent is required for what?
A
Invasive surgery and biopsy
4
Q
Red top would be used for what tests?
A
Blood pregnancy and hepatic panel.
5
Q
Which vein is the first choice choice for a routine venipuncture?
A
median cubital vein
6
Q
Tiger top is used for?
A
thyroid panel
7
Q
after the needle is withdrawn from the vein, what is the next step?
A
activate the needle safety device
8
Q
is it okay to use 70% isopropyl alcohol for cleansing the site when drawing blood for ethanol testing?
A
no
9
Q
what is the first thing you will do in case of an accidental needle stick?
A
wash the site for 30/60 seconds with soap and water
10
Q
when drawing from a patient who has had a mastectomy where is the appropriate place to draw?
A
opposite side in the hand
11
Q
what is the best side for a dermal puncture on an adult?
A
middle finger
12
Q
if the processing lab is backed up on resulting, what will you do with your samples?
A
send them anyway
13
Q
when drawing from an HIV patient, what extra precautions do you need to take?
A
none, always wear gloves
14
Q
what would be a reason for lt. blue top to be rejected for processing?
A
QNS (Quantity Not Sufficient)
15
Q
what is the proper blood to additive ratio for a lt. blue top tube?
A
9:1
16
Q
when does a phlebotomist was their hands?
A
before and after the draw
17
Q
what PPE is required when drawing blood and handling blood products?
A
gloves
18
Q
what is the additive in a dark green tube?
A
sodium heparin
19
Q
how do you explain a phlebotomy procedure to a young child?
A
in simple terms
20
Q
what uses heat, steam, and chemicals?
A
sterilization
21
Q
what can be caused by leaving the tourniquet on for too long?
A
hemoconcentration
22
Q
what are the special handling requirements for an ammonia sample?
A
place on ice
23
Q
if a hematoma starts to form and the patient says it hurts what should the phlebotomist do?
A
stop the draw, apply pressure, reassess
24
Q
what BBP can remain on surfaces up to 7 days if not properly disinfected?
A
HBV (hepatitis B)
25
if a doctor orders a CMP, CBC, PT and blood cultures what is the correct order of draw?
blood cultures, lt. blue, SST (gold) and lavender
26
where is the proper place for the tourniquet to be placed during a venipuncture?
3-4 inches above the site
27
what is the appropriate equipment used for a hand draw?
23-gauge butterfly
28
what does warming the site do?
increases localized blood flow
29
what is the proper needle angle for a routine ETS blood draw?
15-30 degrees
30
where does FDP (fibrin degradation products) go for processing?
coagulation
31
what is the purpose of checking the arm band on an in-patient who has lab orders?
avoiding patient identification errors
32
if a patient extends his or her arm, this is an example of what type of consent?
implied consent
33
what is the #1 way to prevent cross contamination of micro-organisms from one patient to another?
hand washing (decontamination)
34
how long should a specimen drawn in an SST tube be allowed to sit and clot before centrifugation?
30 to 60 minutes
35
according to CLSI standards, what is the maximum time a specimen (plasma or serum) should be left at room temp before centrifugation?
2 hours
36
what is it that states that a patient has the right to refuse medical procedures and be informed in all consequences in doing so?
Patient bill of rights
37
if a patient is on blood thinners or on aspirin regimen what should be used after the draw?
coban wrap
38
out of red, green, lt. blue, and lavender top tubes, which will produce serum?
red
39
what agency is responsible for the health and safety of workers?
OSHA
40
once the draw is complete, what is the next step?
dispose of the needle into a puncture resistant container (sharps container)
41
why is it important to ask for feedback when communicating with a patient?
to make sure they understand what is being said
42
what type of isolation requires special handling and ventilation?
airborne isolation
43
if a specimen is lipemic, what can this be an indication of?
patient not fasting
44
what is used to collect DNA samples by swabbing the inside of the cheek?
buccal swab
45
what is the purpose of patient ID numbers being on the tube labels?
avoiding confusing patients with the same first and last name
46
when drawing multiple tubes, when would the tourniquet be released?
as soon as blood flow is established
47
what department is responsible for sterile supplies?
central supply
48
what is the most important part of blood culture collection?
aseptic procedure (cleansing the site)
49
if you have an order to collect a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms, where would you draw?
the hand
50
at what age and weight will you no longer perform a heel puncture?
older than 12 months and more than 21 pounds
51
what can happen if you draw an EDTA tube before a serum tube?
cross contamination resulting in high potassium levels, and false low calcium levels
52
what does the term hematoma mean?
blood leaking from the vessel under the skin
53
what are the special handling requirements for a vitamin B12?
protect from light
54
when performing a bleeding timed test, how high should the blood pressure cuff be inflated to?
40mm Hg
55
Sweating, looking pale, and complaining of blurred vision can be signs of what?
vasovagal syncope
56
which coagulation tests can be performed at bedside using a point of care instrument?
PTT and INR
57
what tube is a CBC collected in?
lavender
58
what tube is an erythrocyte sedimentation rate draw in?
lavender
59
according to OSHA why do we activate the safety feature on a needle?
to prevent accidental needle sticks
60
what does FBS stand for?
fasting blood sugar
61
what is the normal range for a fasting glucose for an adult?
anything under 100
62
what two analytes are included in an electrolyte panel?
sodium and potassium
63
if you draw blood from a patient without his or her consent, what can the phlebotomist be charged with?
battery
64
what is the substance at the bottom of a serum separator tube (SST)?
thixotropic gel
65
what color top will an aluminum be drawn in?
royal blue
66
how many tubes are needed for a 3 hour GTT (gray top tube)?
4 tubes
67
when do you change out the sharps container?
3/4 full
68
what color tubes are used for hemoglobin A1C, and a PT/PTT drawn in, and what is the correct order of draw?
1 lt. blue, 2. lavender
69
what is the special handling required for paternity testing?
chain of custody
70
what would be the appropriate equipment to use for drawing from a patient with small, thin, fragile veins?
butterfly with syringe
71
how much urine would an adult female patient need to produce for STD testing?
20/30 mL
72
if patient is being drawn for a PT/INR test, what medication are they on?
warfarin
73
if a patient comes in asking for results, what should you do?
advise them to make an appt with their doctor
74
when instructing a patient to collect a stool sample, make sure that you instruct the patient to?
not mix stool and urine
75
when drawing blood from a hemophiliac patient, instruct them to?
hold pressure on the site for 2 mins
76
how often does a centrifuge need to be calibrated?
every 6 months
77
what test do you draw for without a tourniquet?
lactic acid
78
if a patient faints during a blood draw, what is the vital sign that has to be checked before you let them leave?
pulse
79
how long can plasma sit at room temp?
8 hours
80
how long do you rotate a NP swab in each nostril when collecting a covid screening test?
15 secs
81
how do you collect a POC glucose test?
strip and a drop of blood
82
if a patient presents to the lab for a fasting glucose blood draw but indicates he or she is NOT fasting, what should the phlebotomist do?
draw anyway and document "non-fasting"
83
if you suspect child or elder abuse or neglect, what should you do?
notify your supervisor
84
what step is no longer recommended for a patient who is passing out?
ammonia inhalants
85
how long should a patient fast for a fasting blood sugar?
8 hours
86
what contains documentation of chemical safety and precautions?
SDS log
87
what equipment is needed for a urine C&S?
sterile cup and alcohol wipe (towelette)
88
what kind of checks need to be performed on POC equipment in a dr.'s office?
quality control checks
89
what agency mandates a written exposure plan?
OSHA
90
what is the normal BP for an adult?
120/80
91
what is outside of the normal range for BP on an adult?
134/94 (high)
92
if a coworker comes back late from lunch and asks you to cover for him or her, what will you do?
tell them you cannot cover for them
93
what test will you collect in an amber colored tube?
bilirubin
94
what is the best vein to draw from in the antecubtial area?
median cubital vein
95
what would be the proper compression rate for a single adult CPR?
30 compressions, 2 breaths
96
what would be the proper cleansing solution to use when performing a blood alcohol test?
betadine
97
injecting a TB antigen just under the skin is the most common way of administering of the TP test?
true
98
what could happen if blood is drawn from the patient's arm too quickly?
it could cause the vein to collapse
99
in a standard serum separator tube (SST) how long should the blood be allowed to clot?
30 mins
100
Hepatitis B (HBV) can remain on surfaces when not properly disinfected?
true
101
If a doctor orders a CBC (Lavender Top), Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (SST), PT (Light Blue Top), and a set of blood cultures (BC), the order of draw would be what?
blood cultures, lt. blue, SST, lavender
102
tourniquet should be applied at least _______ inches about the venipuncture site?
3-4
103
23 gauged winged infusion set (butterfly) would be the best appropriate size for a hand draw?
true
104
if a patient has cold hands or arms, what should the phlebotomist do for better blood flow?
place a warm compress on the draw site
105
What is the appropriate angle for a needle insertion?
45 degrees
106
A sample for Fibrinogen degradation products (FDP) testing would be sent to the?
Coagulations Department of the lab
107
Aseptic sterile techniques must be done for blood culture collection?
true
108
A patient who tends to faint during blood draws should be?
placed lying down on an exam table or in a reclining chair
109
If a EDTA tube is used before a serum tube, it could cause cross-contamination and could result in?
falsely low calcium and falsely high potassium levels
110
What must be written on the specimen tube after collection?
Patient's complete name, date of birth, identification number, date and time of draw, and the collector's initials
111
When doing a bleeding time test on a patient, the blood pressure cuff is inflated to?
40mm Hg
112
Biopsy tissue would be sent to?
anatomical pathology
113
A CBC is collected into a lavender tube as a?
Whole blood specimen
114
Arteries carry blood ______
away from the heart
115
What is the legislation that sets the standards for electronic healthcare transactions?
HIPPA
116
A CBC test would be performed in which department of the lab?
hematology
117
Sodium and potassium are included in electrolyte testing?
true
118
Coagulation testing requires blood to be collected in what color tube?
light blue
119
What is the standard length of time for a sample to stand before it is loaded into a centrifuge?
30 mins
120
If you receive an order to draw a hemoglobin A1C (HA1C), and a PT/PTT test, what would be the order of draw?
light blue, lavender
121
When would a chain of custody protocol be required?
if a paternity is ordered
122
During a venipuncture, a patient complains of a sharp, shooting pain. What should you do?
Stop the procedure and notify the incident to the physician immediately
123
When may a puncture site require additional pressure to stop bleeding?
If the patient is on an aspirin regimen
124
What item is donned first when wearing full PPE?
gown
125
Which antiseptic is used for performing a heel stick on a two-month-old patient?
70% isopropyl alcohol
126
In accordance with CLSI guidelines, how many unsuccessful attempts can be done before calling another phlebotomist to assist?
2
127
During which phase of blood collection should a phlebotomist obtain consent from their patient?
pre-analytical
128
The patient in the hospital or nursing home should be placed in this position which includes laying on their back with their head and torso raised between 15-45 degrees.
Semi-fowler's
129
A patient on blood thinners or warfarin therapy would never require PT/INR blood draws?
false
130
A sputum sample is designed to collect secretions expelled from the _______ tract
Respiratory
131
Stool samples can sit out for up to 6 hours before being sent for processing?
false
132
Which government agency regulates the quality of gloves worn during phlebotomy procedures?
FDA
133
The correct way to transport a cryofibrinogen sample to the lab is to?
placed in an incubated tube keeping it at body temperature (37degrees Celsius)
134
Using a heating pad can increase blood flow up to _____ times on a patient. The heating pad should only stay on the site for up to _____ minutes.
7, 4
135
Is it appropriate to give test results to the parent or guardian of an adult child?
no
136
Threatening or feeling threatened either verbally or physically is considered _____. The act of causing physical harm to an individual is considered ____.
assault, battery
137
If the wrong tube was drawn, the phlebotomist should notify the supervisor and recollect the draw, if possible?
true
138
As a phlebotomist, you should always identify yourself before identifying the patient?
true
139
QNS:
Quantity Not Sufficient
140
FBS:
Fasting Blood Sugar
141
Urine is more concentrated when collected?
First thing in the morning
142
Vasovagal syncope is another term for?
fainting
143
FDP stands for _____. This specimen is processed in the ______ department.
fibrinogen degradation products, coagulation
144
In a standard serum separator tube (SST) the blood should be allowed to clot for at least _____ minutes, no longer than _____ hours.
30 minutes, 2 hours
phlebotomy
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