1
Q
Who leads the first wave to the breakers?
A
Boat Wave Commander
2
Q
Who forms up the amphibious vehicles and guides them to position seaward of the LOD?
A
Wave Guide Officer
3
Q
Who is the touchdown report sent to?
A
Central Control Officer
4
Q
Where is the wave forming circles located?
A
Close to the bow
5
Q
What is the beach boat control net?
A
Channel Alpha
6
Q
Who directs MEDEVAC helicopters to CRTSs?
A
HDC
7
Q
Who has overall control of all aircraft?
A
TACC
8
Q
Who has helicopter control when passed ashore?
A
DASC
9
Q
Until called alongside for loading, in what area should landing craft be assigned?
A
Landing Craft Assembly Area
10
Q
What craft has no bow ramp capability and makes it?
A
LCPL
11
Q
What helo is used for emergency defense of the Amphibious Task Force (EDATF), and can carry 20mm gun, 2.75 or 5 inch Zuni rockets, AIM-9 Sidewinders, TOW or HELLFIRE missiles, ALE-39 chaff dispenser?
A
AH-1W Sea Cobra
12
Q
Helicopter approach and retirement routes normally designated by.
A
Name of U.S. States
13
Q
Boat lanes extend seaward from the landing beach to the____?
A
Line of Departure
14
Q
The factor that has the most influence on the number of beach boat control nets used during an amphibious operation is?
A
Number of colored beaches used
15
Q
While enroute from the rendezvous area to the beach, when should the boat wave commander be informed of his grid positions?
A
Each minute until 200yds from the beach
16
Q
What is the interval of lateral “distance to go” lines on an amphibious grid reference system boat control grid?
A
200yds
17
Q
What factor is used to determine the width of the center section of a boat lane?
A
20% of the width of the total width of the boat lane
18
Q
What scale is the grid chart constructed on?
A
200yds per inch
19
Q
Where is the Flycatcher plan found?
A
Appendix of OPORDER
20
Q
What is the closest boat to the beach?
A
Salvage Boat
21
Q
What is the definition of amphib operation?
A
An attack launched from the sea by naval and
landing forces embarked in ships or craft involving a landing on a hostile shore.
22
Q
What are the two terms which best describe the advantages of an amphibious operation?
A
Mobility (land wherever chosen) and Flexibility (select time - and method).
23
Q
What are the two terms which best describe the advantages of an amphibious operation?
A
Mobility (land wherever chosen) and Flexibility (select time - and method).
24
Q
What is the major disadvantage of an amphib operation?
A
Great vulnerability during early phase of assault. Combat power ashore starts from zero capacity.
25
What are the three purposes of an amphib operation?
To prosecute further combat operations, to obtain a site for an advanced base, to deny use of the area and its facilities to the enemy.
26
What is the mission of an amphib assault?
To establish a landing force on a hostile shore
27
How would you describe a temporary landing which is always followed by a planned withdrawal?
Raid
28
What are the three characteristics of supporting operations?
Ordered by a higher authority. Uses forces other than those assigned to CATF. Usually outside area of CATF responsibility.
29
What are the three ATF forces which should be superior to enemy forces before an amphibious operation can be undertaken?
Surface and submarine forces, air forces, and landing forces over enemy forces ashore.
30
What is required before an amphib operation can be undertaken if the enemy forces are superior to the landing force of the ATF?
The total force available must be superior in strength to the enemy forces.
31
What are two circumstances which would make it undesirable to launch an amphib operation?
Insufficient logistic support available to ATF.Enemy reserve forces outside the objective area can be used to support the enemy ashore.
32
During what phase is the adequacy of the plan determined?
Rehearsal phase.
33
What phase begins when the major assault forces arrive in their assigned positions in the objective area?
Assault phase.
34
What net is the touchdown report made on?
Bravo net.
35
What are the three missions of the advance force?
Destroy all enemy installations that could oppose the landing. Support mine clearing and UDT operations. Prepare the way for landing operations.
36
Which class(es) of amphibious ship(s) is best suited for designation as a major casualty receiving and treatment unit?
LHA, LHD or LPD.
37
Which class(es) of amphibious ship(s) is best suited for designation as a major casualty receiving and treatment unit?
LHA, LHD or LPD.
38
Which class of landing craft is used for control purposes or to support clandestine SEAL operations?
LCPL.
39
What radar feature is used to discriminate between close-in landing craft and sea return?
STC.
40
What is the basic organizational unit of landing craft?
Boat groups, organized to support each battalion landing team designated beach.
41
For assault purposes, how are boat waves numbered?
Shoreward to seaward (first wave, second wave, etc.
42
What is the command relationship between the supporting force commander and CATF?
Direct coordination during operations, CATF coordinates planning as planning authority, CATF is the supported commander.
43
Who coordinates LST employment and waterborne ship to shore movement on two or more beaches via the respective PCOs?
Central Control Officer.
44
When weather and/or surf conditions indicate, who recommends termination of boat operations to CATF?
Primary Control Officer.
45
Which control element is normally associated with landing a battalion landing team over a numbered beach, and is prepared to assume PCO duties in an emergency?
Secondary Control Ship.
46
What does the ZERO flag over a colored flag on an LCPLrepresent?
Boat Group Commander for a colored beach.
47
Where is assault waves dispatched from?
LOD.
48
What does the assault area include?
Beach, boat lanes, landing ship areas, transport areas and fire support areas. An assault area diagram containing these details is prepared as an overlay for a suitably scaled chart.
49
What display is a large scale grid chart of the landing beaches, extending from the beaches to 300-500 yards beyond the LOD?
Beach approach diagram.
50
What weapons may be carried by the AH-1W Sea Cobra for Emergency Defense of the Amphibious Task Force?
20mm gun, Zuni rockets, AIM-9 Sidewinders, Tow or Hellfire missiles, chaff.
51
What is the purpose of the Boat Bravo net? Beach boat operations net, used for administrative control of boats and touchdown reports.
52
What planning factors determine the size of sea echelon areas?
Adequate dispersal of ships, considering the threat and available defenses.
53
How are positions outside the boat control grid reference system indicated?
Double letters (i.e. RR for outside right lane.
54
What is the reference basis for constructing boat lanes using a grid reference system?
Distance from LOD to beach.
55
When may "Battle speed" be deferred?
Only to prevent Wave One from landing early.
56
When is the PCS usually required to report to the
CCO?
For Wave One: when dispatched, at the 1200 and 500 yard mark, and touchdown. For subsequent waves: when dispatched from LOD and at touchdown.
57
What is the primary mission of the CH-46 Sea
Knight?
Primary troop/cargo lift.
58
Which USMC helo has the largest cargo capacity?
CH-53E Sea Stallion.
59
Which USMC helo has a primary escort and close air support role?
AH-1W Cobra.
60
What are the two primary helo roles during amphibious assaults?
Troop carrier and logistics vehicle.
61
What are the recommended weather minimums for amphibious helo operations?
5,000 feet ceiling and 3nm visibility.
62
Boat lanes are separated from approach lanes by
What area?
LOD
63
Which RT net is used by NGFS units in direct support of forces ashore?
NGFS Control Net.
64
What reports are used to report NGFS readiness and ammunition status?
Ready to fire report and Ammunition Summary.
65
What frequency bands are usually used for NGFS
control net?
HF & VHF.
66
Who determines landing force requirements for
NGFS?
CLF.
67
The mission of NGFS is to destroy or neutralize which three general categories of targets?
* Targets that oppose initial operations of the ATF. * Defenses that may oppose landing operations. Defenses that may oppose post-landing operations.
68
What report is made by an NGFS unit to the SACC as soon as possible after firing an unscheduled mission at a target of opportunity?
Candy.
69
What type of charge is used in defilade fire?
Reduced charge.
70
What sea areas are allocated to NGFS ships?
Fire Support Areas.
71
What are the principal classification categories of naval gunfire?
Effect sought, tactical uses, types, and delivery technique.
72
What is counter mechanized fire?
A tactical use of naval gunfire delivered against active enemy mechanized units.
73
What are the limitations on opportunity fire?
Firing on targets of opportunity within landing force boundaries must be cleared with the landing force; deep support missions must be within the assigned zone of fire.
74
What characteristic of naval gunfire makes it less effective for defilade or reverse-slope fire?
Flat trajectory of high velocity naval projectiles.
75
Which RT net is used to request and assign NGFS ships?
NGFS Control net.
76
How would a contour line appear at a shear cliff?
Contour lines would merge.
77
What commander promulgates general policy for afloat supporting arms coordination and priority of naval supporting arms targets?
CATF.
78
Who is net control station for the NGS Control Net?
CATF or SACC (until control is phased ashore).
79
Which CIC NGFS watch station maintains the grid - spot converter?
Assistant Gunfire Liaison Officer.
80
Which RT net is used for direct comms between the
NGLO, the spotting team, and direct support NGFS ships?
NGFS Ground Spot Net.
81
What is used to determine target course and speed during a slow-speed NGFS run?
Reciprocal of own ship's course and speed made good.
82
What is the scale of the magenta-colored Transverse
Mercator projection squares on a shore bombardment chart?
1,000 meter squares.
83
Which plotter locates and marks "no fire" lines and applies offsets for a "danger close" mission?
Target Plotter.
84
Who is responsible for immediately advising the RT talker of any errors in communication or procedure so that corrections can be made in a timely manner without compromising safety?
RT Recorder.
85
What term is synonymous with "GUN TARGET LINE" for illumination missions?
"Line of Fire".
86
How are 1,000 meter squares designated on a shore bombardment chart?
With a four-digit number.
87
What is the accuracy of target grid 40080850?
Plus or minus 5 meters.
88
What method is used to quickly designate a target within plus or minus 200 meters?
Four digit grid template, with the letter "K" indicating target position.
89
What value is used to designate a circular-area target?
Center point, area diameter and height in yards or meters.
90
What are two methods of designating a rectangular area target?
Two grid positions for the respective centerline and width of the area, one grid position for the center point of the area with respective length and width of the area expressed in yards or meters, oriented on target azimuth.
91
Which indirect fire method reports targets offset from a fixed landmark through which the ship will pass?
Point Oscar scan method.
92
What are the two elements of the call for fire mission firing alert?
Spotter ID, followed by a warning order (Fire mission) and target number.
93
When are full call signs omitted during a fire mission?
After the firing alert.
94
Unless otherwise stated, what is the OTL measured in?
Mils grid.
95
What does an odd number of digits in a grid position indicate?
An error. Grid numbers always have an even number of digits. Most target locations are six digits
96
What fuse order is specified if the spotter desires the round to explode on impact?
Fuse Quick.
97
What method of control is used when neither the spotter nor the ship can adjust the firing?
Cannot Observe.
98
When are "At My Command" procedures used?
When the spotter wants to control what time each round is fired; always used by an airborne spotter.
99
When must GUN TARGET LINE and time of flight be updated?
If GTL changes by 200 mils/10 degrees, or if time of flight changes by 5 secs.
100
What proword is used when the spotter wants the ship to fire the same number of guns and salvos on the same target?
REPEAT.
101
During a fire mission, what abbreviated call for fire method is used to designate a higher priority target?
FRESH TARGET shift.
102
What does SPREADING FIRE mean?
A large spot is being sent because the target is now mobile or because of the size of the target.
103
Which illumination method is used by the spotter to adjust fires?
Coordinated.
104
Who can cancel CHECK FIRE?
The spotter who originally ordered CHECK FIRING to temporarily interrupt firing.
105
What term is used by the NGFS RT talker to indicate that the ship's last salvo was fired with incorrect settings?
NEGLECT.
106
What fire control system is associated with the 5"54 cal Mk 45 LWG during NGFS?
Over 25,000 yards at 47 degrees elevation.
107
Where may special instructions relating to NGFS comms be found?
COMM Annex to operation orders or Optask Comms.
108
What type of data does CIC supply to Weapons Plot during Direct Fire mission?
Advisory data such as elevation of target and terrain, coaching director onto designated targets, relaying spotter information, etc.
109
On the grid spotter converter, what is the reference line for converting spots to north/south, east/west?
TheY axis, or black line oriented 000-180.
110
Why must the GTL marked on the grid spot converter be checked frequently during an air spotter mission?
The gun target line may change with each salvo, depending on the relative motion of the aircraft.
111
112.What proword is used to indicate an error noted during read back on supporting arms coordination nets?
WRONG, followed by the correction to the error. The talker making the error then reads back WRONG and the corrected information.
112
113. Which supporting arms coordination report keeps CATF informed of the status of NGFS ammunition stocks?
Ammunition Summary.
113
What report is used to inform SACC of each unscheduled mission fired at a target of opportunity?
Opportunity Mission Report.
114
Who maintains a comprehensive geographic plot of own ship, surface contacts, and assigned targets during NGFS?
DDRT plotter.
115
Who assists the DDRT plotter during NGFS?
Target plotter.
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