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anesthesia Flashcards

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1
Q

The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed through which preanesthetic screening test?

A. asparate aminotransferase
B. hemoglobin
C. total solids
D. Alanine aminotransferase

A

Hemoglobin

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2
Q

During a splenectomy of a 10 year old rottweiler, the veterinary technician places a pulse oximeter on the patients tongue. After 2 minutes, the SpO2 level is consistently reading 82%. How should the veterinary technician respond?

A. Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen
B. inform the doctor, turn off the anesthetic gas and oxygen until the SpO2 levels rise
C. inform the doctor that the SpO2 levels are low, but not concerning
D. leave the anesthetic gas level intact and wait 5-10min before alerting the doctor

A

Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen

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3
Q

Which sign indicates that a patient is at risk for developing colic as a treatment with morphine or other opioids?

A. decreased fecal production
B. decreased activity level
C. increased appetite
D. increased urine production

A

Decreased fecal production

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4
Q

Which anesthetic agent should be avoided in an animal with a body condition score of 5?

A. guaifenesin
B. propofol
C. thiopental
D. xylazine

A

Thiopental

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5
Q

Which common inhalant anesthetic agent is irritating to mucous membranes and causes patients to hold their breath?

A. sevofluorane
B halothane
C. nitrous oxide
D. isofluorane

A

Isoflurane

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6
Q

The medical gas supply company requests notification when the E cylinder tank reaches half capacity. How many pounds per square inch (PSI) will the pressure gauge read if it half full?

A. 700
B. 1100
C. 350
D. 2200

A

1100

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7
Q

What is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7 kg?

A

Non-rebreather

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8
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the patients suffering from hypovolemic shock?

A. fluxin megumine
B. acepromazine
C. butorphanol
D. diazepam

A

Acepromazine

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9
Q

Which type of anesthetic is vaporized in oxygen?

A. topical
B. inhalant
C. oral
D. injecatble

A

Inhalant

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10
Q

Which species is commonly catheterized in the dorsal metatarsal or facial arteries to monitor direct arterial blood pressure and to obtain arterial blood samples?

A. dogs
B. cats
C. goats
D, horses

A

Horses

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11
Q

According to OSHA what is the exposure limit in parts per million (ppm) for halogenated anesthetic gases?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

A

2

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12
Q

For which patient is it safe administer acepromazine as a preanesthetic?

A. 10y labradore retriever with moderate liver disease prior to lumpectomy
B. 6 month old poodle having an ovariohysterectomy
C. 6y stalion having teeth floating
D. 2y English Bulldog undergoing allergy testing

A

6 month old poodle having an ovariohysterectomy

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13
Q

The veterinarian prescribes an anesthetic combination of Rompun, acepromazine, and torbugesic, but the office does not carry the brand name Rompun. What generic drug should be used instead?

A. tiletamine
B. xylazine
C. butorphanol
D. ketamine

A

xylazine

(ketamine = ketaset)
(Telazol = Tiletamine)
(torbugesic = butorphanol)

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14
Q

According to criteria established by the american society of anesthesiologists, a patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life belongs in which physical status category?

A. class ll
B. class lll
C. class lV
D. class V

A

class IV

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15
Q

Which is a component of a bain non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit?

A. oxygen flush valve
B. carbon dioxide absorber
C. unidirectional valves
D. resevoir bag

A

Reservoir bag

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16
Q

What is the best explanation for a dog anesthesia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute?

A. The patient is too light a plane of anesthesia
B. the patient is in too deep of anesthesia
C. the patient is hypothermic
D. this is normal

A

The patient is too light a plane of anesthesia

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17
Q

What type of equipment is used to induce anesthesia in fractious, vicious animals that can not otherwise be restrained?

A. chambers
B. ETT
C. muzzels
D. masks

A

Chambers

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18
Q

Which local anesthetic has the longest lasting analgesic effects?

A. lidocaine
B. bupivicaine
C. mepivicaine
D. tetracaine

A

Bupivacaine

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19
Q

Which agent causes miosis?

A. alpha 2-adrenergic
B. opioids
C. phenothiazines
D. benzodiazepines

A

opioids

(benzodiazepines cause sedation and muscle relaxation)
(phenothiazines reduce anxiety)
(a2a cause sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation)

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20
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic agent was once very popular popular in veterinary medicine but is no longer available in the united states?

A. methoxyfluorane
B. enflurane
C. halothane
D. desflurane

A

Halothane

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21
Q

Between which two vertebrae is the epidural needle placed for a great dane undergoing a tail amputation procedure?

A. L6 and S1
B. L6 and L7
C. L7 and S1
D. S1 and S2

22
Q

Which agent is classified as an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic, and antitussive effects?

A. morphine
B. butorphanol
C. hydromorphine
D. fentanyl

23
Q

Which intravenous anesthetic agent is extremely short-acting and known to cause apnea if administered too quickly?

A. domitor
B. propofol
C. ketamine
D. thiopental

24
Q

The pet owner is reviewing the anesthesia plan pertaining to a dental prophylaxsis. The owner is concerned that anesthesia may negatively affect the pet, which suffers from epilepsy. Which anesthetic agent will help prevent an adverse reaction?

A. atropine
B. glycopyrolate
C. diazepam
D. doxopram

25
A 1 year old boxer is scheduled for surgery to remove a corn cob that was ingested and now has caused an intestinal obstruction. Which medication will cause an adverse reaction in this particular case? A. Nitrous oxide B. isofluorane C. sevofluorane D. propofol
Nitrous oxide
26
Which items is used in conjunction with an inhalant or injectable anesthesia? A. endotracheal tube B. intravenous catheter C. urinary catheter D. intravenous fluids
Endotracheal tube
27
Which agent is considered an anticholinergic? A. morphine B. midazolam C. acepromazine D. atropine
Atropine
28
Which task will increase the staff's exposure to waste-gas? A. leaving patients attached to the scavenger system as long as possible to remove expired gases B. using mask or chambers only when absolutely necessary C. filling the vaporizers when needed D. pouring the anesthetic carfully to avoid spills
Filling the vaporizer when needed
29
How often should physiologic parameters be assessed during anesthetic procedures? A. everey 5 min B. every 10 min C. every 15 min D. every 20 min
Every 5 minutes
30
Which anesthetic agents are commonly used for patients with severe heart disease or shock? A. etomidate B. ketamine C. pentobarbital D. thiopental
Etomidate
31
In which breed of canine if fasting prior to surgery contraindicated? A. labrador retriever B. boxer C. pug D. chihuahua
Chihuahua
32
A 0.1 mL dose of 2% lidocaine is sufficient to prevent laryngospasm during intubation of what species? A. goats B. sheep C. cats D. pigs
Cats
32
Which species is most susceptible to hyperpyrexia and malignant hyperthermia from intravenous (IV) drugs such as ketamine and inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane? A. cats B. rabbits C. dogs D. pigs
pigs
33
A 6 year old thoroughbred is undergoing an orthopedic procedure to correct a fractured stifle. How many hours does this horse need to be without food before the procedure? A. 6h B. 10h C. 12h D. 24h
6 hours
34
Which species is intubated by digital palpation? A. cattle B. equine C. canine D. feline
cattle (horses are intubated blindly)
35
Which agent is both a muscle relaxant and sedative for large animals? A. phentobarbital B. propofol C. guaifenesin D. ketamine
Guaifenesin (ketamine = SA as an immobilizer) (propofol = SA in short procedures)
36
Which is a common complication when intubating felines? A. vomiting B. laryngospasm C. cyanosis D. coughing
Laryngospasm
37
Which oxygen saturation level is considered a medical emergency? A. 85% B. 95% C. 93% D. 90%
85%
38
What is the antagonist for opioids? A. antiseden B. yohimbine C. atipamezole D. naloxone
Naloxone
39
A 10 year old canine exhibits a pulse rate of 80 and a respiratory rate of 8. the pupils are centrally positioned, jaw tone is slack, and reflexes are absent. This presentation is most consistent with which stage and plane of anesthesia? A. stage lll, plane 2 B. stage lll, plae 3 C. stage lll, plane 4 D. stage lV, plane 1
Stage III, plane 3
40
what effect does atropine at normal doses have on the heart rate? A. decreases B. no effect C. prevents a decrease D. increases
Prevents a decrease
41
what are anesthetic reversal agents called? A. agonist B. antagonist C. mixed agonist D. partial agonist
Antagonists
42
What is the usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane? A. 0.25-1% B. 0.5-2% C. 1-3% D. 3-4%
3% to 4% (halothane = 0.5-2%) (isofluorane = 1-3%)
43
what is the proper length of time neonatal patients should be fasted prior to surgery? A. 2 hours B. 0 hours C. 6 hours D. 4 hours
0 hours
44
What is the first step for preparing an inhaled anesthetic agent prior to surgery? A. set the pop off valve B. check the level of carrier gas C. prepare the scavenger D. prepare the breathing system
Check the level of carrier gas
45
Because a Cole endotracheal tube has a tapered end and no inflatable cuff, it is recommended for the use which species? A. horses B. dogs C. cats D. birds
Birds
46
An 8 year old golden retriever undergoing surgery for a mast cell tumor resection. The veterinarian prescribes diphenhydramine preoperatively. Which adverse effect should be discussed with the owner? A. polyphagia B. constipation C. polyuria D. sedation
Sedation
47
Which size rebreathing bag should be selected for a 10 kg canine ? A. 2L B. 0.5L C. 3L D. 1L
1L
48
which type of anesthetic agent causes central NS depression, respiratory depression, and muscle relaxation, but has not analgesic effects? A. opioids B. tranquilizers C. sedatives D. halogenated
halogenated
49
which potential complication may be avoided by placing an arterial catheter in a horse's peripheral artery during maintenance of inhalant anesthesia? A. hypertension B. hyperventilation C. epistaxis D. hypoxemia
hypoxemia
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