anticoagulation Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

what is vichows triad?

A

hypercoagulability, hemodynamic changes (stasis/turbulence), and endothelial injury/dysfunction

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2
Q

what condition results in venous stasis?

A

AF - atria isnt contracting in predictable manner, clots form and destalises and little fragments break off resulting in arterial thrombus which can lead to stroke

DVT - bed bound, long haul flights, impaired mobility

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3
Q

what are indications for anticoagulation?

A

venous and atrerial thrombotic disease
- AF
-DVT
- pulmonary embolism
- artificial heart valve replacment
- other joint replacements

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4
Q

how can hypercoagulability occur?

A
  • AT III, protein C and S deficiency
  • hyperhomocysteinemia
  • elevated factor VIII
  • dysfibrinolysis (saphenous vein with clot forming in the inner part of the wall)
  • malignancy
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5
Q

what is used in the phophalxis of DVT?

A

LWMH

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6
Q

what does compression socks encourage

A

graduated in terms of pressure, more compression at the ankles that encourages venous return

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7
Q

what is DVT a major problem in?

A

surgical procedures

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8
Q

what score is used to estimate DVT

A

2-level wells score
- DVT more likely more than 2 points
- PE more likely more than 4 points

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9
Q

what is the differential diagnosis to DVT?

A

cellulitis

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10
Q

what is the CHA2DS2Vasc score

A

C - chronic heart failure (1p)
H - hypertension (1p)
A - age > 75 (2p)
D - diabetes (1p)
S - stroke, TIA or systemic embolism (2p)
V - vascular disease (1p)
A - age 65-74 (1p)
Sc- sex category (1p if female)

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11
Q

when would you consider anti-coagulation?

A

when score is greater than 2

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12
Q

what is included in the orbit bleeding score

A
  • > 75 years old (1p)
  • reduced haemoglobin, heamatocrit or history of anaemia (2p)
  • bleeding history (2p)
  • insufficient kidey function eGFR < 60mg/dl (1p)
  • treatment with antiplatelet agent
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13
Q

what age range would you be cautious in anti-coagulating?

A

elderly - incresed risk of fall

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14
Q

what does HASBLED take into account?

A

if iNR is abnormal

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15
Q

what is the HAS-BLED

A

1 point each for:
Hypertension
Abnormal renal/liver function (1p for each)
Stroke
Bleeding history
Labile INR
Elderly (over 65)
Drugs/alcohol concomitantly

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16
Q

what is an advantage of using warfarin compared to a DOAC

A

if there is an interaction you can monitor INR and adjust dose

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17
Q

what are examples of herbal remedies interacting with warfarin?

A

glucosamine, st johns wart, cranberry juice

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18
Q

how does warfarin work on vitamin K dependant clotting factors?

A

doesnt act directly, it works on the liver and stops the liver from producing these factors

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19
Q

what is the onset of action of warfarin?

A

24-72hrs

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20
Q

what factor do DOACs work on?

21
Q

what is an examplel of an oral IIa inhibitor?

A

dabigatran (Pradaxa)

22
Q

when is dual anti-platelets used

23
Q

what are example of anticoagulant therapies?

A
  • unfractionated heparin
  • LMWH - dalteparin, enoxaparin, tinzaparin
  • warfarin
  • pentasaccharides - fondaparinux
  • dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixiban, enoxaban
24
Q

how does unfractionated heparin and LWMH exert their anti-coagulant effect?

A

activating antithrombin which accelerates the inactivation of coagulation enzyme thrombin

25
how is unfractionated heparin administered?
S/C or I/V
26
how is LWMH administered?
S/C
27
what are advantages of LWMH
- longer half life - once daily SC - greater bioavailability - predicable anticoagulant response - reduced haemorrhagic complications - no lab monitoring - no dose adjustment - outpatient treatment of DVT/PE
28
what is the mechanism of action of fondaparinux?
- binds to ATIII, changing its structure to neutralise factor Xa - inhibiton of factor Xa interupts the blood coagulation cascade - prevents formation of thrombin and thrombus - antithrombic treatment of ACS
29
what should vitamin K antagonists not be used as first line therapy?
cerebral artery thrombosis or peripheral artery occlusion
30
what is the dose of aspirin for secondary prevention of DVT/ PE (off label)
75mg or 150mg
31
what is diagnostic testing for blood clotting problems
D-dimer if negative - stop therapeutic anticoagution and think about alternative diagnosis increased D-dimer = break down of clot
32
how to calculate INR?
PT patient/ PTmeannormal
33
what are side effects with high INR?
brusing, gum bleeding, nose bleeds (might not stop)
34
what is the prothrombin time?
checks the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, often used to monitor warfarin therapy and assess vitamin K deficiency
35
what is partial thromboplastin time?
evaluates the intrinsic parthway of the clotting cascade
36
what is activated partial thromboplastic time?
a more sensitive version of the PTT test, often used to monitor therapy due to its faster clotting time with the added activator
37
what is the fennerty loading regimen?
loding dose schedule for warfarin
38
what is dabigatran an inhibitor off?
active thrombin site
39
what is dabigtran CI in?
Crcl<30ml/min (predominantly renal eliminination
40
what are interactions with dabigatran?
P-pg induces eg. rifampacin
41
what are interactions with DOACS
- avoid drugs that are both cyp3a4 and P-gp inhibitors or induces - ketoconazole and ritonavir - carbamazepine
42
what are doacs licensed for?
AF phophalaxis and treatment of thromboembolism
43
what are advantages of doacs
- no INR monitoring -no bridging required - surgical procedures - convienience - fewer interactions - potentially better efficacy and safety
44
whart mare diadvantages of doacs?
- compliance - missed doses - increased GI side effects - lack of monitoring
45
what blood tests would you do before commencing edoxaban?
liver function tests full blood countd renal function
46
why would warfarin be prescribed at 6pm
if bloods are done in the morning they can change the dose before the evening
47
what is the duration of anticoagulation for DVT?
3 months
48