1
Q
- The following describe the lateral meniscus, except:
a. There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia
b. Has considerably less mobility than medial meniscus and by its shape and contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle
c. May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does
d. The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial
e. Because of its shape, it is much more of movement by the lateral femoral condyle over the lateral plateau of the tibia
A
b. Has considerably less mobility than medial meniscus and by its shape and contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle
2
Q
The first to seventh ribs attach to the sternum, the 8th to 10th are joined by cartilage; the 11th and 12th ribs have free ends.
a. The first statement is false
b. The second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true
A
d. Both statements are true
3
Q
- Which one of the following statements regarding collagen is true?
a. Tropo-collagen is present in collagen
b. Type II collagen is present in reticular fibers
c. Mast cells synthesize most of the collagen
d. Type IV collagen is present in elastic fibers
e. Type II collagen is most common in connective tissue proper.
A
a. Tropo-collagen is present in collagen
4
Q
What is the term for the ability of a muscle to lengthen under tension, allowing for controlled, smooth movement in activities such as stretching or eccentric muscle contractions?
a. Isometric contraction
b. Flexibility
c. Endurance
d. Isotonic contraction
A
b. Flexibility
5
Q
- The following are true of the acromioclavicular joint, except:
a. The joint has three axes and two degrees of freedom
b. No loss of scapular rotation was apparent with AC joint fixation
c. ROM of the scapula is equal to the sum of SC and AC ranges of motion
A
c. ROM of the scapula is equal to the sum of SC and AC ranges of motion
6
Q
- Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicate a positive overreaction test?
a. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis
b. Marked improvement of straight leg raising of distraction as compared with formal testing
c. Take the form of disproportionate verbalization, facial expressions, muscle tremor and tremor, collapsing, or sweating
d. Back pain reported with the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands
A
c. Take the form of disproportionate verbalization, facial expressions, muscle tremor and tremor, collapsing, or sweating
7
Q
- Which type of muscle contractions are closely related to delayed onset muscle soreness as cross-bridging stay attached to the active sites while the resistance lowers, resulting in “tearing” away of cross-bridges when lowering against heavy resistance
a. Concentric muscle contraction
b. Eccentric muscle contraction
c. Isometric muscle contraction
d. Isotonic muscle contraction
A
b. Eccentric muscle contraction
8
Q
- Weakness of this muscle would result to bending of the thumb when trying to keep a paper from being pulled away
a. Flexor Pollicis Longus
b. Adductor pollicis
c. Flexor pollicis brevis
d. Abductor pollicis longus
A
b. Adductor pollicis
9
Q
- A young patient who works in a meat shop suffered a traumatic zone III tendon tear requiring repair. Now in the post-op phase, you want to promote early controlled motion while keeping the wrist and hand in an orthosis on other days. Which set of static positions would you use?
a. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal flexion with PIP, DIP flexion
b. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal flexion with PIP, DIP extension
c. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal extension with PIP, DIP flexion
d. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal neutral with PIP, DIP extension
A
b. Wrist and metacarpophalangeal flexion with PIP, DIP extension
10
Q
- Which of the following statements apply to the Scapulo-Humeral Mechanism?
a. The scapula rotates to further elevate the arm above the head
b. At about 120 degrees of arm abduction, the greater tuberosity of the humerus comes into contact with the lateral edge of the acromion process
c. All of these
d. For every three degrees of arm abduction, two-degrees of abduction occurs in the shoulder joint and one degree of abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula.
A
c. All of these
11
Q
- Which one of the following neurotransmitters functions to increase cardiac output?
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Norepinephrine
d. Glutamate
e. GABA
A
c. Norepinephrine
12
Q
- The following are true of the Biceps Brachii muscle, except:
a. It is the chief elbow flexor
b. It is the chief forearm supinator
c. None of the above
d. Its supination action is stronger when the elbow is flexed
A
b. It is the chief forearm supinator
13
Q
- Which of the following statements about IgG is true?
a. It is located in the serum and on the membrane of B cells.
b. It can cross the placental barrier.
c. It is involved in allergic reactions.
d. It exists as a pentamer.
e. It binds to antigens on the body surface and in the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract.
A
b. It can cross the placental barrier.
14
Q
The movement of the rib cage is a combination of complex geometrics that are governed by the types and angles of the articulations, the movement of the manubriosternum and the elasticity of the costal cartilages. The following are true of the ribs and manubriosternum EXCEPT:
a. The costovertebral and costotransverse joints are mechanically linked with a single axis of motion for elevation and depression
b. The axes of rotation for the upper limbs lie closest to the frontal plane, allowing the motion of those ribs to occur predominantly in the sagittal plane
c. The axes of rotation for the lower ribs move toward the sagittal plane, allowing the motion of those ribs to be closer to the frontal plane
d. The axes of rotation for the ribs 11 and 12 pass through the costovertebral joint only, because there is no costotransverse joint present.
e. None of the above
A
b. The axes of rotation for the upper limbs lie closest to the frontal plane, allowing the motion of those ribs to occur predominantly in the sagittal plane
15
Q
- Which of the following statements is true in forefoot adduction correction test?
a. If forefoot can only be partially corrected to neutral or less, foot will still correct itself and cast correction is not necessary
b. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot greater than the neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
c. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
d. If forefoot can be fully corrected to neutral or greater, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is not necessary
e. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot beyond neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
A
c. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
16
Q
- Which order of carpal bones ossify last to first?
I. Lunate
II. Hamate
III. Scaphoid
IV. Pisiform
a. I, II, III, IV
b. IV, III, II, I
c. II, I, III, IV
d. IV, III, I, II
A
d. IV, III, I, II
17
Q
- Medial winging of the scapula, except:
a. Sliding door paralysis
b. Serratus Anterior weakness
c. Radical Mastectomy
d. Racksack palsy
A
a. Sliding door paralysis
18
Q
What cranial nerve is affected if the patient c/o diplopia upon looking to the L and down?
a. L trochlear nerve
b. R trochlear nerve
c. L abducens nerve
d. R abducens nerve
A
b. R trochlear nerve
19
Q
- Testosterone is produced by
a. interstitial cells of Leydig
b. Sertoli cells
c. Spermatogonia
d. Spermatids
e. Spermatocytes
A
a. interstitial cells of Leydig
20
Q
In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forceable blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position:
a. Anterior lateral rotatory instability
b. Combined rotatory instability
c. Anterior medial rotator instability
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
A
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
21
Q
- Muscles for elevating the jaw, except:
a. External pterygoid
b. Temporalis
c. Masseter
d. Internal pterygoid
A
a. External pterygoid
22
Q
- Colostrum contains which of the following antibodies?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
A
a. IgA
23
Q
- To distinguish between intrinsic muscle tightness and joint capsule contractures, the involved finger is flexed a few degrees at the metacarpophalangeal joint and moving the PIP into flexion. If the joint is now capable of full flexion:
a. There is probably proximal joint capsule contracture
b. The intrinsic are probably tight
c. There is no contracture at the proximal joint capsule
d. None of these applies
e. The intrinsic are probably loose
A
b. The intrinsic are probably tight
24
Q
- Depending on patient size and transfer method, condition and mobility potential, the following are preferred features in wheelchair selection for arthritis patients, EXCEPT:
a. Fixed or removable arm rests
b. Special type with lever brakes
c. Toggle breaks and fixed back
d. Standard type and standard hand rims
e. Foot and leg rests are swing detachable with heel loops
A
b. Special type with lever brakes
25
25. Ipsilateral tracheal shift may be due to the following, except:
a. Compressive atelectasis
b. Obstructive atelectasis
c. Pneumonectomy
d. Lobectomy
a. Compressive atelectasis
26
26. Cardiac muscle is a smooth muscle which differ from skeletal muscles. Which of the following is true for cardiac muscle?
a. Z disk have T Tubules
b. T Tubules of the skeletal muscle have larger diameter
c. There is no Troponin in cardiac muscles
d. Oxytocin triggers contraction
a. Z disk have T Tubules
27
27. The following procedures describe the Apley’s scratch test which facilities range
of motion evaluation, EXCEPT:
a. To test abduction and external rotation, the patient reaches behind his head and touches the superior medial angle of the opposite scapula
b. To test internal rotation and adduction, the patient reaches behind his back to touch the inferior angle of the opposite scapula.
c. To determine range of internal rotation and adduction, the patient reaches in front of his head and touch the opposite acromion.
d. To test abduction and external rotation, place both hands behind the back as high as possible.
d. To test abduction and external rotation, place both hands behind the back as high as possible.
28
28. In its most basic form, the sarcomere length-tension relationship illustrates that
a. At very long and very short lengths, muscle generate tensions, whereas at optimal lengths, muscles generate higher tensions
b. Muscle relative titanic tensions is plotted as a function of sarcomere length
c. As muscle length decreased, overlap between actin and myosin was not possible, and the amount of tension generated by the muscle increased as sarcomere length decreased.
d. Tension generated in skeletal muscles is a direct function of the magnitude of overlap between the actin and myosin filaments
d. Tension generated in skeletal muscles is a direct function of the magnitude of overlap between the actin and myosin filaments
29
29. Normal range for DIP extension
a. 0 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees
d. 20 degrees
30
30. A person diagnosed with Anterior Spinal Cord Injury would still have:
a. Pain sensation
b. Temperature sensation
c. Motor function
d. Proprioception
d. Proprioception
31
31. Which of the following is true about stratified squamous epithelium?
a. The surface layer of cells is always keratinized.
b. The most superficial layer of the cells is flattened.
c. Its basal cells rest on an elastic lamina.
d. The linings of the ducts of sweat glands are squamous epithelia
b. The most superficial layer of the cells is flattened.
32
32. This muscle is innervated by the two branches of the femoral nerve, and performs hip flexion and extension. The tendon of origin may be palpated in the V-shaped area between the Sartorius and the TFL when the hip is flexed:
a. Vastus intermedius
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus medialis
d. Vastus lateralis
b. Rectus femoris
33
33. The following statements describe the lateral compartment of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Although the anterior cruciate ligament is an important stabilizer of the knee, whether to repair it after injury is controversial
b. The anterior third of the lateral capsule provides little dynamic support
c. The tension on the bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament is altered as the knee moves from flexion to extension
d. Muscular support is provided by the iliotibial band and iliotibial tract
e. The insertion of the popliteus muscle reinforces the posterior third of the lateral capsular ligament
b. The anterior third of the lateral capsule provides little dynamic support
34
34. Functional joint of the shoulder complex
a. SC joint
b. AC joint
c. ST joint
d. GH joint
c. ST joint
35
35. The following statements describe the foot’s medial aspect, EXCEPT:
a. The sustentaculum tali supports the talus and serves as an as an attachment for the spring ligament; problems within this anatomic alignment may lead to pes planus
b. The first cuneiform bone projects distally nearly half an inch further than the other cuneiform bones and articulates laterally with the cuboid bone
c. The medial tubercle of the talus is the point of insertion for the ankle’s medial
collateral ligament
d. The first metatarsal flares slightly at its base to meet the first cuneiform, articulating in a simple plane joint, providing gliding movement
e. The navicular articulates proximally with the talar head and distally with the three cuneiforms
b. The first cuneiform bone projects distally nearly half an inch further than the other cuneiform bones and articulates laterally with the cuboid bone
36
36. The following statements are true of herniated disc, except:
a. The most common areas of disc herniation are the L4 to L5 and L5 to S1 interfaces
b. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed nerve root
c. Only about 5% of disc herniation occur in the cervical area
d. It is caused by strain, degenerative joint disease, or trauma which may force all of part of the nucleus pulposus through the disc’s weakened of torn outer ring
e. Symptoms include low back pain, sometimes accompanied by muscle spasms which may radiate to the buttocks, legs and feet
b. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed nerve root
37
37. Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet?
a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is absent and present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
37
38. This consists of scavenger cells that resemble tissue macrophages
a. Macroglia
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Astrocytes
d. Protoplasmic astrocytes
e. None of these
e. None of these
38
39. Muscle tested as an elbow flexor with forearm pronated:
a. Brachioradialis
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Coracobrachialis
c. Brachialis
39
40. What kind of herniation causes axial spinal discomfort, either with or without radicular symptoms. This causes myelopathy if the spinal cord is compromised and possibly multi-root involvement if the cauda equina is affected.
a. Central
b. Lateral
c. Foraminal
d. Posterolateral
a. Central
40
41. Gait in the hemiplegic is described as follows, except:
a. Hip hiking is related to ipsilateral trunk leaning and adduction of the contralateral hip
b. Forward momentum of the thigh results in backward movement of the pelvis
c. The rectus femoris assists in knee flexion in the swing phase
d. The hip and knee flexes to clear the foot which the ankle is plantar flexed through the swing phase
c. The rectus femoris assists in knee flexion in the swing phase
41
42. Which of the following structures in the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the detection of angular acceleration?
a. Statoconia
b. Utricle
c. Semicircular canals
d. Saccule
e. Cochlea
c. Semicircular canals
42
43. Forceful abduction of the tibia causes a tear of this ligament either at its femoral or tibial attachment
a. Lateral collateral ligament
b. Anterior cruciate ligament
c. Posterior cruciate ligament
d. Medial collateral ligament
d. Medial collateral ligament
43
44. In radial nerve paralysis, the following happens, except:
a. Inability to straighten the arm in using crutches
b. Sensory changes in the volar aspect of the hand, including the thumb, index, middle and part of the ring finger
c. Wrist drop deformity
d. None of these
b. Sensory changes in the volar aspect of the hand, including the thumb, index,
44
45. Study of the amount and direction of movement, speed, acceleration and determination of joint angles is called .
a. None of these
b. Dynamics
c. Kinematics
d. Biomechanics
e. Arthrokinematics
c. Kinematics
45
46. Afferent component of muscle stretch reflex that provide CNS information about the length and rate of change in length of striated muscles:
a. Extrafusal fiber
b. Intrafusal fiber
c. Muscle spindle
d. Golgi tendon organ
c. Muscle spindle
46
47. Arthroplasty of the glenohumeral joint falls into several categories, the most common of which are total shoulder replacement arthroplasty and hemi-replacement arthroplasty. The following are true about the total shoulder arthroplasty except:
a. An unconstrained total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated when the rotator cuff mechanisms is intact or can be repaired to provide dynamic stability to the GH joint.
b. In a Reversed Ball and Socket type, small humeral socket slide on a large ball- shaped component.
c. Constrained design is rarely used today owing to high rate of loosening or failure of the components.
d. Reversed ball and socket design does not couple some degree of stability with mobility for rotator cuff-deficient shoulders that cannot be repaired.
e. None of the above
d. Reversed ball and socket design does not couple some degree of stability with mobility for rotator cuff-deficient shoulders that cannot be repaired
47
48. In the human musculoskeletal system, the deltoid muscle plays a crucial role in shoulder movement. It consists of three distinct muscle heads. Which is responsible for raising the arm forward?
a. Lateral head
b. Middle head
c. Anterior head
d. Posterior head
c. Anterior head
48
49. The following values indicate that you would not resume rehab on a patient, except
a. White blood cell count is 3,000/mm3
b. Hematocrit level is 20%
c. Hemoglobin reading is 10 g/dL
d. Platelet count is 19,000/mm3
c. Hemoglobin reading is 10 g/dL
49
50. In terms of force production, which type of contraction produce the greatest force
a. Eccentric
b. Isometric
c. Concentric
d. Isotonic
a. Eccentric
50
51. An ABG analysis indicates the following values. Based on these, what can be
concluded about the patient’s acid-base status?
I. Ph: 7.50
II. PaCO2: 30 mmHg
III. HCO3: 24 mEq/L
IV. PaO2: 80 mmHg
a. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
b. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
c. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
d. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
c. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
51
52. Characteristics of eccrine sweat gland:
a. absent in thick skin
b. The eccrine glands are holocrine glands
c. The eccrine glands have a narrow duct lined by a stratified cuboidal epithelium
d. The eccrine glands excrete sebum which is an oily matter
c. The eccrine glands have a narrow duct lined by a stratified cuboidal epithelium
52
53. A 40-year-old individual is aiming to exercise within their target heart rate zone to maximize cardiovascular benefits. Their resting heart rate is 70 beats per minute, and they want to work at 70% of their maximum heart rate. The target heart rate would be:
a. 128 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 160 bpm
d. 180 bpm
c. 160 bpm
53
54. The following are the response of the parasympathetic nervous system, except:
a. Constipation
b. Increased pancreatic activity
c. Miosis
d. Increased urine output
a. Constipation
54
55. The following are manifestations of a R sided CVA, except:
a. L sided weakness
b. Tongue deviation to the L
c. Uvula deviation to the L
c. Uvula deviation to the L
55
56. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:
a. Scalenes, levator scapula, and splenius
b. Splenius capitis, sternohyoid, and clavicle
c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of trapezius, clavicle
d. None of these
c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of trapezius, clavicle
56
57. The sacroiliac joint is an example of:
a. Synarthrodial joint
b. Symphysis joint
c. Synchondrosis joint
d. Diarthrodial joint
c. Synchondrosis joint
57
58. Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if:
a. There is maintained exertion
b. Stroke volume increases
c. Cardiac output decreases
d. Calcium channel blockers are administered
b. Stroke volume increases
58
59. A scientist spent a summer in a remote region of Africa, where he studied exotic plants. On returning to the Philippines, he developed a cough and fever that would not go away. Laboratory tests revealed that he had contracted a roundworm, Ascaris lumbricoides. Which of the following cells would be expected to be significantly elevated in a differential count of his blood?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils
e. Neutrophils
d. Eosinophils
59
60. Which is true about ductus epididymis?
a. It starts at the rete testis
b. It is lined by a pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
c. It secretes a huge volume of fluid into its lumen
d. It possesses motile cilia
e. It capacitates spermatozoa
b. It is lined by a pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
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APK SET D MOCK BOARDS
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Decks in class (1)
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