APS Question Bank Flashcards

Question

What is the routing for a UMBUR2S STAR?

Answer 1

UMBUR-OCK-NUBRI-PEPIS-SAM

Answer 2

COWLY-PEPIS-SAM

Answer 3

ELDAX-NOTGI-EVEXU-GIVUN-RUDMO-MIVLA-SAM

Answer 4

THRED-NEDUL

Answer 5

Only if co-ordinated

Answer 6

Onto the localiser only, they are not permitted to tell a/c to descend on the GP

Answer 7

Released for descent abeam SAM - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockeise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH No left turns until passing Forest Gate

Answer 8

Released for descent abeam SAM - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockeise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH No left turns until passing Forest Gate

Answer 9

Released for descent abeam SAM - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockeise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH No left turns until passing Forest Gate

Answer 10

Released for descent abeam SAM - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockeise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH No left turns until passing Forest Gate

Answer 11

Released eastern edge of Q41 Contact eastern edge of Q41 Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading after MIVLA which will position a/c into area D No right turns until passing Forest Gate then a/c must remain west of Forest Gate

Answer 12

Released THRED -Transfer of comms may take place prior -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact THRED Descending to FL070 routing THRED-NEDUL then a Radar heading into area C, or on a Radar heading direct into Area C. No right turns until inside Area C

Answer 13

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH

Answer 14

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH

Answer 15

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH

Answer 16

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH

Answer 17

Released Forest Gate Contact eastern edge of Q41 Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading after MIVLA which will position a/c into HH delegated airspace

Answer 18

Released 15nm before THRED -Transfer of comms may take place prior -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact 15nm before THRED Descending to FL070 on a radar heading to NEDUL or on a Radar heading direct into Area C. Unless co-ordinated the a/c must be turned to the left into Area D by HH before abeam NEDUL and no right turns until within Area D

Answer 19

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH No left turns until passing Forest Gate

Answer 20

Released Forest Gate - Abeam SAM means RDL 180 clockwise to the RDL 290 -Transfer of comms may take place prior -May be turned to the right prior to the release point but no further than 360 degrees -Not permitted to subsequently climb a/c Contact abeam SAM Descending to 5000ft on a radar heading which will position a/c in airspace delegated to EGHH

Answer 21

4000ft unless otherwise co-ordinated

Answer 22

Right turn after dep on a radar heading to pass 5nm south of SAM Must pass eastern CTR boundary at 4000ft or above unless otherwise co-ordinated

Answer 23

on a radar heading to pass 5nm south of SAM Must pass eastern CTR boundary at 4000ft or above unless otherwise co-ordinated

Answer 24

right turn direct GWC Direct track must keep a/c within lateral boundaries of CAS Must pass eastern CTR boundary at 4000ft or above unless otherwise co-ordinated

Answer 25

direct GWC Direct track must keep a/c within lateral boundaries of CAS Must pass eastern CTR boundary at 4000ft or above unless otherwise co-ordinated

Answer 26

left turn direct THRED

Answer 27

right turn direct THRED

Answer 28

A/C to leave Solent CTA within airspace delegated to HH

Answer 29

Subject to release by Solent APS, a/c to be transferred within Solent CTA to a level previously co-ordinated with Solent. Must cross eastern boundary of HH CTR at 4000ft unless otherwise co-ordinated HH must pass current FPL info

Answer 30

During Western Radar opening times and climbing FL100

Answer 31

LAC S06 passing the flight details and estimate for DAWLY

Answer 32

LAC S23 passing the flight details and estimate for DAWLY

Answer 33

1000ft without ATC permission

Answer 34

within the final approach or climb out of runway 26 or 08 within 1.5nm either side of the extended centreline out to 5nm

Answer 35

+30 mins from specified time otherwise permission must be re-sought from ATC

Answer 36

-15/+30 mins from specified time otherwise permission must be re-sought from ATC

Answer 37

Plymouth Mil (78sqn Swanwick if outside opening hours of Ply Mil)

Answer 38

15,000ft amsl

Answer 39

ORCAM or HH allocated

Answer 40

Climb S/A to 0.6NM then right turn heading 270 degrees, turn O/T on reaching 3.1NM (also applies to CCTs)

Answer 41

For A/C departing tracking 260-360 degrees Climb S/A to 2DME, then left turn no lower than 1500ft (also applies to LH CCTS)

Answer 42

For A/C departing heading 001-079 degrees Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 5.6DME before commencing turn

Answer 43

For A/C heading between 080-259 degrees Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 4.1 DME before commencing any turn (also applies to RH CCTS)

Answer 44

From the North- establish on final no closer than 3.0DME From the South- establish on final no closer than 4.1DME

Answer 45

Establish on final no closer than 4DME

Answer 46

HI- bi-directional with omni-directional component HI white edge lighting (CAT I 08 so last 600m is yellow) HI white centreline lighting, last 300m is red 600m before that alternates red/white HI green wing bars and threshold lighting 900m HI white flush touchdown zone lighting LI turning circle lights on both thresholds LI stopway lighting

Answer 47

914m HI white centreline lighting 5 bar crossbars 300m LI red inner supplementary lighting

Answer 48

510m HI white centreline 3 crossbars (2 crossbars and Centreline lights are flush fitted into the runway extension)

Answer 49

VFR jets VFR given a level above 2A All IFR All SVFR When Radar have asked for one

Answer 50

GIBSO DAWLY DIKAS BRIBO BCN

Answer 51

Continue climb 3A initially on track 251 degrees, on passing 4DME (or 1500ft if no DME) left turn to BIA Hold

Answer 52

Continuous climb 3A, initially heading 080 degrees to 4 DME (or 2000ft QNH if no DME)then right turn to BIA hold

Answer 53

A7 A8 under remission A9 with 24hrs notice

Answer 54

NDB ILS (CAT I 08, CAT III 26) RNAV5

Answer 55

SFC to 2000ft AMSL

Answer 56

Below 3000ft- Flight vis-5km, 1500m from cloud laterally and 1000ft vertically If less than 140KIAS then Flight Vis- 5km, COCSIS Helicopters if less than 140KIAS then flight vis 1500m, COCSIS If night then 140KIAS exceptions no longer apply

Answer 57

ATC permission required to enter IFR & VFR Permitted IFR separated from IFR IFR and SVFR TX info on VFR VFR TX info on IFR and other VFRs

Answer 58

Fixed- Ground Vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C. less than 600ft When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).

Answer 59

3.4.2.4.1 A flight experiencing communications failure in IMC during an approach directed by radar shall: Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C. Continue either visually, or by means of promulgated Initial Approach Procedures and an appropriate approved final approach aid, to land. If this is not practical, carry out the missed approach procedure and continue to a holding facility appropriate to the airfield of intended landing for which an instrument approach is notified and then carry out that procedure. 3.4.2.4.2 Except where communications failure occurs during an approach directed by radar, a flight experiencing communication failure in IMC shall: Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C. Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure. If failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher. Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points. If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, without a specified limit, continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for three minutes only and then proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude. Comply with the loss of communications procedures notified for the destination aerodrome in the AD 2 section of the UK AIP. Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent sections of the flight. Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude taking account of en-route terrain clearance requirements. If following a notified Standard Arrival Route (STAR), after the seven minute period detailed in paragraph (b) (i) has been completed, pilots should arrange descent as close as possible to the published descent planning profile. If no descent profile is published, pilots should arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the appropriate designated Initial Approach fix. On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in (e) (i), above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute. If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield. Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by visual signals from the ground.

Answer 60

VFR aircraft should select squawk 7600 as soon as R/T failure detected. When outside CAS- the pilot shall route to either the Northern Zone Boundary or Hengistbury Head VRP, dependant on where they had been operating. Once there they may enter the CTR, direct to base leg of the duty runway, not above altitude 2000ft QNH. The pilot should maintain a good lookout for other A/C in the CTR and on the FAT. ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. Once on base leg pilot is to look out for ALDI lamp signals from the VCR. Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the A/C enters the CTR from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

Answer 61

Helis should select code 7600 If operating outside CAS the heli should position to either the Northern Zone Boundary of Hengistbury Head VRP and the enter the CTR direct to the Northern/Southern airfield boundary not above alititude 2000ft VFR. Pilots should maintain a good look out for other A/C operating within the CTR . ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. If the helicopter is inbound from the North, they shall remain North of Runway 08/26 at all times, and land on the grass between Taxiway Tango and Whiskey. If the helicopter is based, they may then reposition to their company, maintaining a good lookout for other aircraft and vehicles moving around the taxiway network. If they are not based, they should wait on the grass until assistance arrives. If the helicopter is inbound from the South, they shall remain South of Runway 08/26 at all times. On passing the airfield boundary, they should position onto the grass, West of Romeo. Based Helicopters should look out for light signals from the VCR for approval to cross Runway 08/26 and land at their company. If the helicopter is not based, they should wait for assistance. It should be noted that helicopters inbound from the North will be given light signals from the VCR but are unlikely to see them. Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the helicopter enters the Control Zone from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

Answer 62

2200-0630 local Establish on final no closer than 8 DME and not below 2,500ft

Answer 63

Dudmoor Farm is a farm strip located 2.5nm south of the airfield. An Autogyro operates from here and the pilot has agreed to squawk 7377 and has Mode S. If he wishes to depart he must call ATC to bookout and request permission to get airborne, details are passed by the TWR ATSA to RDR ATSA who will then verbally pass any approval granted. The a/c must be airborne within 15 mins. Operations are not permitted when Met Vis is below 1500m and/or the c.c. is below 600ft.

Answer 64

3 Matchams and North End House- require to call and request permission before lifting and on cessation. Oldfield- Only need to inform us when they start/finish as theya re outside the FRZ.

Answer 65

Standard ATZ and Runway Protection Zones (RPZ- the rectangles extending from the threshold to 5km that are 500m either side of centreline, from sfc to 2000ft AGL)

Answer 66

VFR arrivals must conform to the agreed Noise Abatement Procedures and the Controller can safely facilitate their approach within the arrival sequence. At times when this is not possible, the Controller must consider vectoring the aircraft onto the ILS or for visual positioning onto final. Controllers should note, where traffic information is being given, that the visibility from the FA20 cockpit is restricted, especially during the turn. Runway 26 Operations * VFR Join Left-hand Aircraft will approach along the coast (feet wet) at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4.1 DME. This is termed as a “Standard Noise Join”. In the event that the pilot requests, or ATC require the aircraft to make a short approach inside 4.1 DME, they will join directly onto Base or route along the coast, not below 1500ft and turn inbound at HGS. This is termed as a “Standard HGS Join”. The Standard HGS Join should only be used for safety or optimum sequencing purposes. Permitting such an approach might have to be subsequently justified by the Controller. This approach is permitted for singletons and formations, provided it can be applied to all aircraft in the formation. * VFR Join Right-hand Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 3 DME. Runway 08 Operations * VFR Join Right-hand Aircraft will execute standard SBX join, not below 1500ft, descending onto Final no closer than 4 DME. In the event that they approach from the SE and elect to transit the coast, they will follow the “Standard Noise Join” as for Runway 26 - ie at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME. * VFR Join Left-hand Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.

Answer 67

For a/c on an air test and those inbound/outbound cruising at or requesting above FL100

Answer 68

Objectives of ATS * To prevent collisions between aircraft * To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area * To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic * To provide information and advice useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight * Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required. Aerodrome Controller To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve and safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of; * Preventing collisions between; Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ Aircraft landing and taking off from the aerodrome Aircraft, vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area * Assisting in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron

Answer 69

Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.

Answer 70

Aircraft in emergency Aircraft which have declared a police emergency Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.

Answer 71

Police flights under normal operational priority Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights

Answer 72

Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement

Answer 73

Flights carrying the; 1) Prime Minister 2) Chancellor of the Exchequer 3) Home secretary 4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA

Answer 74

Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties Other flights authorised by the CAA

Answer 75

Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests

Answer 76

Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A Cat B- Normal operational priority Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc

Answer 77

Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved. They can operate as; Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks Cat E when positioning for its duties Cat Z when training, testing etc.

Answer 78

HLE- "Helimed" Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.

Answer 79

A7 A8 under remission A9 with 24hrs notice By calling the fire station

Answer 80

A precision approach includes vertical profile whereas a non-precision does not

Answer 81

Yes but only during the day, at night it cannot.

Answer 82

At night if the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight: (1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority; (2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

Answer 83

3NM, this must be increased to 5NM if the A/C are not on the same frequency

Answer 84

Traffic holding at the BIA up to FL60 are separated from EGHI arriving and holding traffic SVFR flights within EGHH CTR are separated against SVFR flights within EGHI CTR

Answer 85

When the Met Visibility is below 5000m and or the C.C is below 1500ft

Answer 86

The standard one that would exist for IFR A/C. Use of Reduced Sep visually is not permissible as contact between the A/C may be lost before the CTR boundary.

Answer 87

The VRPs unless there is no other traffic to affect.

Answer 88

Met vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C less than 600ft for fixed wing A/C Met vis less than 800m and/or C.C less than 600ft for Helicopters

Answer 89

Police Helimed Rescue Pipeline Powerline Rail track inspections

Answer 90

Class D CTR sfc- 2000ft CTA 2000ft to 5000ft Gap then to airway at FL95 Roughly 4 miles south, 5 miles north and 10 miles west and east

Answer 91

S and L= 4NM LM and L= 5NM H and L= 7NM

Answer 92

4 NM AH64 is a S

Answer 93

5NM (CH47 is a S)

Answer 94

Apache a/c

Answer 95

Dornier 328

Answer 96

Pilatus PC24 Jet

Answer 97

252 degrees

Answer 98

West of Portsmouth

Answer 99

Southampton

Answer 100

Boscombe Down

Answer 101

Middle Wallop

Answer 102

Compton Abbas

Answer 103

Henstridge

Answer 104

5NM east of the aerodrome?

Answer 105

13nm East of the Aerodrome

Answer 106

300 provided that periods of duty do not exceed 200 hours

Answer 107

Any duty starting between 0530 and 0629. Max 8 hours

Answer 108

Starting between 0630 and 0759 Max 8.5 hours

Answer 109

A period wholly or partly within the period 0140-0529. Must conclude by 0730 Max 9.5 hours No more than 2 night duty periods should be worked in immediate succession

Answer 110

54 hours following a single or dual night duty shifts. This may be reduced to 48 hours for a single night duty leading into a day duty to cover short notice staffing difficulties.

Answer 111

Cannot work more than 6 consecutive days or a period of duty totalling 50 hours within 6 days, whichever is achieved earlier

Answer 112

12 hours, this may be reduced to 11 hours with the approval of the ATCO concerned and no more than once in a period of 720 consecutive hours (30 days)

Answer 113

15 mins for every hour

Answer 114

2 hours During low traffic periods it can be 4 hours Early start duty periods this cannot exceed 1.5 houra

Answer 115

110.500MHz (GP 329.600MHz)

Answer 116

110.500MHz Channel 42X

Answer 117

113.350MHz (SAM)

Answer 118

329.600MHz

Answer 119

Radar calibration

Answer 120

Para dropping

Answer 121

Military fixed wing low level and climb out

Answer 122

Danger Areas General

Answer 123

Red Arrows displays/transit

Answer 124

Aerobatics and display

Answer 125

High energy manoeuvres

Answer 126

Autonomous ops within TRA/TRA(G)

Answer 127

1000ft per 10NM

Answer 128

FL120 and within 50NM

Answer 129

Heli- Ground Vis less than 800m and/or C.C. less than 600ft When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).

Answer 130

No, just need visual reference to the surface

Answer 131

An ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. This may include; 1) Weather information 2) Changes of serviceability of facilities 3) Conditions at aerodromes 4) General airspace activity information 5) Any other info likely to affect safety

Answer 132

A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic. ATCOs may provide headings and/or levels for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the ATCO is not required to achieve deconfliction minima and the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance

Answer 133

A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information and headings and/or levels aimed at achieving defined deconfliction minima or for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the avoidance of other traffic is ultimately the pilot's responsibility

Answer 134

An ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a basic service, the ATCO provides restrictions, instructions and approach clearances, which, if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other a/c participating in the procedural service. Neither traffic info nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic

Answer 135

Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)

Answer 136

<91kts IAS

Answer 137

91kts-120kts IAS

Answer 138

121kts- 140kts IAS

Answer 139

141kts- 165kts IAS

Answer 140

166kts-210kts IAS

Answer 141

Overhead a VOR Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME Overhead an NDB An intersection of VOR radials An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME

Answer 142

The a/c's Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight

Answer 143

When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"

Answer 144

1. Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt 2. Notification of the a/c's discrete SSR code or a/c address 3. Notification that the a/c is SSR Mode S/ ADS-B equipped with an a/c ident feature. 4. Direct designation (pointing at it) of the position indication when two screens are adjacent or a conference type of display is used 5. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known 6. Instructing an a/c to change SSR codes by the transferring controller and the accepting controller seeing the change 7. Issuance of an instruction to the a/c by the transferring controller to 'squawk ident' and observation of this response by the accepting controller

Answer 145

The turn method Departing a/c method Position report method Transfer of identification

Answer 146

Primary return

Answer 147

That he has been identified and his position

Answer 148

Terrain PSR coverage Other surveillance returns Rules of the Air Proximity of airspace

Answer 149

1) Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; which are; 2) Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME (no more than 30nm) 3) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.

Answer 150

when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt

Answer 151

Outside CAS- for all methods of ident Inside CAS- only required when using the turn method

Answer 152

(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code; (2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity; (3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.

Answer 153

Validation and verification

Answer 154

1. Arrival 2. Initial (IAF IF) 3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP) 4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt) 5. Missed Approach

Answer 155

A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway

Answer 156

DH no less than 200ft

Answer 157

Ops with DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft

Answer 158

Ops either; 1. DH <100ft, or, no DH and RVR not less than 175m 2. DH <50ft, or, no DH and RVR less than 175m but greater than 50m 3. No DH and no RVR limitations

Answer 159

FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches) FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)

Answer 160

Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC

Answer 161

RVSM airspace: +/-200ft Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft

Answer 162

a) The level at or below which an a/c's vertical position is controlled with reference to altitude b) The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude c) The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition Level

Answer 163

Class G, they would be deemed to be outside CAS

Answer 164

Localiser- 10 degrees either side to 25nm, 35 degrees either side to 17nm Glide-path- 8 degress either side to 10nm

Answer 165

250kts above FL60 220kts on descent from FL60 180kts when late downwind or base leg 160kts to 4 DME

Answer 166

250kts IAS below FL100

Answer 167

for exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;

Answer 168

a) Raises the FL as an altitude b) Lowers the FL as an altitude

Answer 169

"no traffic delay expected"

Answer 170

"Delay not determined, (x) a/c holding for weather improvement"

Answer 171

Designated Operational Coverage Term defining the coverage boundary of the station

Answer 172

Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan

Answer 173

Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.

Answer 174

Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum

Answer 175

Yes but only non-precision approaches are permitted

Answer 176

Timed legs

Answer 177

None, there are no GP only approaches

Answer 178

SIGMET/AIRMET info Information on Volcanic Activity Information on release of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals Info on the changes of availabilty of radio nav aids Info on changes in conditions of aerodromes and facilities Info on unmanned free balloons Info on space weather Any other info likely to affect safety

Answer 179

IFR or VFR

Answer 180

When ATCO's cannot continue to provide info (and minima for DS) due to; surveillance coverage times of high workload Areas of high traffic density Degraded surveillance performance Where PSR is unavailable and SSR alone is used to provide an ATS

Answer 181

1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA; 2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred; 3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.

Answer 182

1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control 2) The average time interval between successive approaches 3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more; 4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more 5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated; 6) Departure times of A/C 7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C

Answer 183

1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land. 2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points 3) A/C routing through the traffic cct

Answer 184

1) Departing IFR flights 2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)

Answer 185

Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility

Answer 186

IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances; 1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final apprach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C; 2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct 3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place. nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all clod, or for horizontal separation to be provided.

Answer 187

Must be transferred in sufficient time for Aerodrome Control to pass additional information in respect of local tx.

Answer 188

Police Helimed Rescue Electricity Grid Powerline Pipeline SAR training flights (in accordance with MATS 2) Rail track inspection flights

Answer 189

No however they should report any occurence which they consider has endangered an A/C or person

Answer 190

Pilot reports that they are visual with the surface and; 1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segement; or 2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished. Controllers SHALL not clear an A/C for a visual approach when the RVR (TD) is less than 800m. If a pilot requests one in this circumstance than the pilot is to be informed that a visual approach is unavailable and what their intentions are.

Answer 191

The standard separations as A/C making a Visual Approach still count as IFR and as making an Instrument Approach

Answer 192

Yes Responsbility for the provision of deconfliction advice and tx info continues in accordance with the service being issued and is subject to the following; 1) Procedural Service- no requirement for controllers to change the level of service provided 2) DS- when flights carrying out visual approaches descen below the unit's terrain safe level, controllers shall no provide a DS and should instead provide a TS 3) TS- subject to maintenance of surveillance identity, there is no requirement to change the level of service. 4) BS- no requirement to change the level of service provided.

Answer 193

1) on initial contact; a) "This is the approach procedure for (aid) for Category (cat) A/C. Final approach track (degrees)" b) Arrival level (if necessary) c) Type of reversal manoeuvre including outbound track, length in time or distance, level instructions and direction of procedure turn where applicable. 2) When A/C commences final reversal; a) Intermediate and final approach track b) Intermediate and final approach fixes together with level instructions c) stepdown fixes and OCH 3) Missed approach point and missed approach procedure (when required) n.b. items 1 b and 1 c may be ommitted for straight in approaches the whole procedure may be passed at once if the pilot is copying down the information

Answer 194

Yes, standard sep against other IFR A/C is to be maintained unless the pilot cancels their IFR flight plan

Answer 195

Release Subject Your Discretion Where an Approach Controller accepts responsibility for the provision of separation between an outbound A/C and the conflicting inbound or overflying A/C. Used in situations where the Approach Control procedures offer a more expeditious resolution to the confliction.

Answer 196

Within the DOC of the loc

Answer 197

a) Clear them for the approach if they have been given descent to the procedure alt/hgt published on the charts or b) Issue a conditional clearance to descend on the ILS glidepath once established on the localiser (eg on reaching 10DME descend on the glidepath) c) When it is necessary to ensure that an a/c joining the ILS does not commence descent until specifically cleared, solely instruct the pilot to report established on/ the localiser and to maintain the previously assigned level- subsequently clearing them for the approach or to descend on the GP

Answer 198

The transfer of responsibility for an aircraft from one controller to another may be effected provided that: (1) satisfactory two-way speech communication is available between them; (2) the identity has been transferred to, or has been established by, the accepting controller; and (3) the accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the aircraft at the stage of transfer. If the route of the aircraft is not known the offering controller is to pass the observed track or reported aircraft heading to the accepting controller.

Answer 199

Control of arriving aircraft may be transferred to Approach Radar Control, when other aircraft would otherwise delay the released aircraft’s progress, in accordance with the following conditions: (1) The transfer of control message is prefixed “radar release”; (2) Details of all conflicting aircraft are passed to the approach radar controller; (3) Conflicting aircraft are either transferred to Approach Radar Control or identified according to the accepting controller’s decision; and (4) Neither the track nor the level of the conflicting aircraft is altered without co-ordination.

Answer 200

To act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment

Answer 201

SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments

Answer 202

...non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment

Answer 203

...ground-controlled precision approaches with the use of precision approach radar equipment to aircraft on the final approach to the runway;

Answer 204

Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt Notification of the aircrafts discrete SSR code or aircraft address Notification that the a/c is Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an ident feature when coverage is available Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both ATCO's Not more than 30nm from the VOR/DME facility Instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the and accepting controller observes this Issuing an instruction to squawk IDENT and accepting controller observes this

Answer 205

Upon identification, except when identification is established: Based on pilots report of aircraft position or within 1nm of the runway on departure By use of ADS-B/Mode S ident or assigned discrete SSR code By transfer of identification When pilot requests this information When pilots estimated position differs significantly from controllers estimate based on observed position When pilot instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring If current instructions had deviated from assigned route Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service if a/c observed to deviate from intended route

Answer 206

Reference to a well-known geographical position Magnetic track and distance to significant point, an en-route aid or approach aid Direction (using compass point) and distance from known position Distance to touchdown when on final approach Distance & direction from centre line of ATS route

Answer 207

Instruct a/c to squawk assigned code and observe that the correct numbers appear on the situation display Instructing the a/c to squawk ident and simultaneously checking that the code numbers are associated with the radar return Matching a previously identified radar return with the assigned code for the flight

Answer 208

Instruct pilot to reset assigned code If error persists instruct pilot to select A0000 If it still persists instruct pilot to switch off transponder- a corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if the Mode C is verified but adjacent ATSUs must be informed

Answer 209

When the code set can be recognised by the code assignment plan to have been assigned by a unit deemed capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as corrupt.

Answer 210

By simultaneous comparison of the displayed data with the information received from the a/c via R/T. Reading to be +/- 200ft in RVSM airspace

Answer 211

Pilot should be advised and requested to check the pressure setting and confirm the a/c's level

Answer 212

Request the pilot to switch off Mode C provided this does not interrupt the operation of Mode A and notify the next ATSUs of the action taken Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and request Mode C operation continue in order to prevent loss of position and identity information on the a/c, notify the next ATSUs

Answer 213

When 3 consecutive sweeps (or 15 seconds whichever is greater) show that the Mode C is +/- 200ft of the assigned level

Answer 214

When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more through that level and continuing in the anticipated direction

Answer 215

When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more from that level and continuing in the anticipated direction

Answer 216

Transfer of responsibility for the control of an a/c between two controllers using radar, following identification by both controllers.

Answer 217

1. Satisfactory two-way comms is available between controllers 2. The identity has been transferred to the accepting controller, or has been established by him; and 3. The accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the a/c at the stage of transfer

Answer 218

When requested and agreed by the pilots of both a/c In Class D and E airspace Pilots maintain their own sep Below 10000ft During the day In VMC

Answer 219

Direction of flight Type and W/T Cat of a/c Cruising level of a/c concerned and; a) Estimated time over the reporting point closest to where the level will be crossed, or; b) Relative bearing of the a/c concerned in terms of the 12-hour clock as well as distance from conflicting traffic, or; c) Actual or estimated position of the a/c concerned

Answer 220

"Bigjet 347, essential traffic information, a westbound B737 maintaining FL80 estimating KTN at 50"

Answer 221

By the establishment of CAS-T

Answer 222

Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required

Answer 223

15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA

Answer 224

Royal Low Level Corridors 5nm either side of the a/c's track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c's max operating level

Answer 225

To IFR a/c in Class A-E Airspace To VFR a/c in Class C-D Airspace To SVFR a/c

Answer 226

a) A/C operating close to; the edge of situation display, radar overhead, weather clutter or PEs b) A/c is operating in area of high traffic density c) Operating close to limits of solid radar cover d) Services is provided by using SSR only (when approved) e) A/c is operating in known areas of poor surveillance performance/PEs/weather clutter f) ATCO suspects the ATS surveillance system is degraded

Answer 227

1) Notify a/c under your control 2) Establish a procedural sep 3) Reduced vertical sep of (500ft) may be used temporarily 4) Pass ETI if necessary

Answer 228

Magnetic heading to a station

Answer 229

Magnetic bearing from a station

Answer 230

True track to a station

Answer 231

True bearing from a station

Answer 232

The situation displays must be adjacent or a conference type Ensure position returns correlate

Answer 233

May be a nav facility or a geographical position Must be situated on both displays Position indication must be within 3nm of the position stated Distance between a/c and ref point must not exceed 30nm (using mag tracks, radials and bearings) or 15nm (when using cardinal directions)

Answer 234

Both units must have SSR Only to be conducted in accordance with MATS part 2 and local agreements

Answer 235

Pilot reports he can maintain visual ref to the surface and; 1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment, or; 2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing an approach procedure that the vis will permit a visual approach and landing and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Answer 236

When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions

Answer 237

No unless surveillance info indicates that a/c is leaving CAS

Answer 238

3nm or 1000ft

Answer 239

5nm or 3000ft, surveillance returns should also not merge unless Mode A data indicates that the Mode C is verified

Answer 240

They will be reminded that they are responsible for terrain sep and service downgraded to a TS

Answer 241

When the flight profile indicates it will pass within 3nm or 3000ft of the a/c receiving the service. Info should be passed prior to the a/c being with 5nm

Answer 242

Only above the terrain safe level

Answer 243

IFR flights shall be given avoidance advice and traffic info passed SVFR and VFR flights shall be given traffic info and (if requested by the pilot) avoidance advice

Answer 244

Transponder Mandatory Zone Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of a pressure altitude reporting transponder is mandatory

Answer 245

Radio Mandatory Zone Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory

Answer 246

a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit. b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries

Answer 247

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

Answer 248

Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is at least 1000 FT (300 M) above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft.

Answer 249

Regional Pressure Setting Lowest forecast QNH in the region

Answer 250

Altimeter Setting Region

Answer 251

Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area Area in which obstacle clearance has been considered for a/c manoeuvring visually before landing. Determined by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining these arcs with tangent lines

Answer 252

ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal. Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning. Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.

Answer 253

Any with a MTOW in excess of 5700kg or capable of carrying more than 19 pax

Answer 254

Mode A and Mode C or S

Answer 255

Typically 45 seconds

Answer 256

30 Seconds

Answer 257

When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"

Answer 258

Pass appropriate pressure setting

Answer 259

Transponders of both a/c will communicate with one another and agree on a course of action.

Answer 260

Terrain Awareness Warning System Generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a CFIT

Answer 261

All turbine engined a/c with a MTWO of greater than 5700kgs or capable of carrying more than 9 pax

Answer 262

The direction it is pointing

Answer 263

The direction an a/c is travelling in

Answer 264

The angular difference between heading and track

Answer 265

Speed a/c is travelling through the air

Answer 266

The speed the a/c is travelling over the ground, under the influence of wind velocity

Answer 267

The speed shown to the pilots on the ASI

Answer 268

Reduces the radius of turn

Answer 269

Increases angle of climb. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm

Answer 270

Increase angle of descent. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm

Answer 271

Wind veers and increases in speed as you ascend vertically

Answer 272

A/c heading is ascertained and then a position indication is correlated with; 1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30 degrees 2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as instructed by another controller 3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as reported by the pilot

Answer 273

Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart

Answer 274

Initial Approach 1000ft (same as initial approach segment) FAVA 500ft (same as intermediate approach segment)

Answer 275

The a/c must either be established on the final approach track or on an intercept of 40 degrees or less

Answer 276

Flights in Class A and B Airspace IFR flights in Class C airspace For exempted VFR flights in Class C airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2 For exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2 Test flights in accordance with specified conditions A/c taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA A/c subject to written permission granted by the CAA State a/c such as mil

Answer 277

Info indicates that there is aerial activity in a particular location that may affect a flight A definite risk of collision exists

Answer 278

The ATC units terrain safe level

Answer 279

If a pilot receiving a TS requests a heading from the ATCO whilst operating below the ATC terrain safe level, this may be provided as long as the ATCO reminds the pilot that they remain responsible for terrain clearance. For example "G-CD taking your own terrain clearance, suggest right heading 120 degrees"

Answer 280

If a pilot requests descent below ATC unit terrain safe levels, ATCOs shall no longer provide a DS but should instead, subject to surveillance and RTF coverage, apply a TS.

Answer 281

20 minutes

Answer 282

the altitude/height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established.

Answer 283

the altitude/height in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual reference.

Answer 284

Minimum Sector Altitude The lowest safe altitude for instrument flight within sectors of an aid, facility or aerodrome which is published in the appropriate approach chart.

Answer 285

Missed Approach Point The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.

Answer 286

The minimum levels as specified in the procedure approved by the CAA.

Answer 287

The minimum level as published on the SMAC.

Answer 288

Defined area in the vicinity of an aerodrome, depicted on a Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (SMAC), in which the minimum safe levels allocated by a controller vectoring IFR flights with Primary and/or Secondary Radar equipment have been predetermined.

Answer 289

Within 30nm of the radar antenna; 1000ft above any fixed obstacle within: a) 5 nm of the Aircraft and b) 15 nm ahead and 20deg either side of track. Aircraft within 15nm of antenna and provided a SMAC or approved procedure notified, 5 and 15 nm are reduced to 3 and 10nm respectivly Outside 30nm; 1000ft above any fixed obstacle; a) within 15nm of the centreline of the ATS route; or b) within 30nm of the a/c

Answer 290

When an aircraft intends to land on a runway for which no instrument approach procedure exists, it may descend on the instrument approach to another runway and, provided the required visual references are established at the VM(C) Minimum Descent Altitude/Height, it may manoeuvre in a circling pattern visually for landing on the desired runway.

Answer 291

If, for reasons other than weather (for example an obstruction on the runway), the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”.

Answer 292

An RNP approach utilises GNSS augmented by either ABAS (e.g. RAIM) or SBAS to provide lateral only, or lateral and vertical guidance. The accuracy required is 0.3 NM unless it is a hazardous approach, requiring RNP (AR) in which case its 0.1 NM.

Answer 293

The aircraft is to be provided with a descent profile to enable a crossing of the FAF at the published procedure altitude/height.

Answer 294

Magnetic bearing from a station

Answer 295

True track to a station

Answer 296

1. Arrival 2. Initial 3. Intermediate 4. Final 5. Missed

Answer 297

From the en-route phase to the approach phase, ends at the IAF

Answer 298

Begins at IAF and ends at the IF takes a/c to the intermediate segment

Answer 299

From IF to the FAF/FAP Speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach Obstacle clearance reduces from 1000ft to 500ft

Answer 300

From FAP/FAF to the MAPt Alignment and descent for landing are made. May be to a runway for a straight in landing or to an aerodrome for a visual manoeuvre

Answer 301

Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach

Answer 302

1) Arriving A/C are released by Area Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control 2) A/C approaching from outside CAS place themselves under the control of Approach Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control 3) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until; a) they are transferred to Area Control; or b) they are clear of CAS 4) Overflying A/C are within the relevant CAS

Answer 303

1) Arriving A/C place themselves under the contol of Approach Control until control is transferred to Aerodrome Control 2) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no longer wish a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the Aerodrome whichever is sooner. 3) Overflying A/C place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the Approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.

Answer 304

1) At an agreed reporting point 2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary 3) At or passing an agreed level 4) While an a/c is climbing to an agreed level providing separation will exist for the rest of the climb

Answer 305

1) OCAS 2) Entering CAS 3) Changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa within class E airspace 4) VFR entering class B-D airspace from class E or vice versa 5) Leaving CAS unless pilots are provided with advanced notice (5-10nm or 3000ft-6000ft prior)

Answer 306

No Not unlessv you want him to fly a specific level or heading

Answer 307

Separation using time or distance so that the spacing between the estimated positions of a/c is never less than a prescribed minima

Answer 308

Be requiring an a/c to; Depart at a specified time Lose or gain time to arrive over a geographical location at a specifed time Hold over a geographic location until a specified time

Answer 309

1) All flights in Class A Airspace 2) IFR flights in Class C, D and E Airspace 3) IFR and VFR flights in Class C 4) IFR and SVFR flights 5) SVFR except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA

Answer 310

1) When requested by Pilot 2) When ATCO considers it necessary 3) Directed by CAA

Answer 311

2 mins- provided 2 mins dep sep has been applied 3 mins- When specifically authorised by the CAA and both a/c are; 1) equipped with functioning transponders; and 2) continously monitored by ATS surveillance systems and the actual distance between them is never less than 20NM 5 mins- Provided the preceding a/c has filed an airspeed of 20 kts or more faster than the following a/c 5 mins- When specifically authorised by the CAA and both a/c are; 1) equipped with functioning transponders; and 2) continously monitored by ATS surveillance systems and the actual distance between them is never less than 30NM 10 mins

Answer 312

5 mins at time levels are crossed- Provided that the level change is commenced within 10 mins of the time the second a/c has reported over the same ERP 10 mins

Answer 313

10 mins before and after estimated passing time- Vertical sep shall be provided for at least 10 mins both prior to and after the estimated time of passing unless it is confirmed that the a/c have actually passed each other by; -ATS surveillance info -A visual sighting report from both a/c (day only) - A/c position reports over the same ERP, provided vertical separation is maintained for sufficient time to take into account possible nav errors

Answer 314

**1 min-** If the a/c are flying on different tracks separated by at least 45°. *Minima may be reduced if using lateral runways which do not cross, procedure must be approved and lateral separation must be effected immediately after take off.* **2 min-** For tracks not separated by 45° provided that the preceding a/c is 40kts or more faster and neither aircraft is cleared to execute a manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 min separation between them. **5 min-** Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft. **5 min-** Provided that 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the a/c will be subesequently separated either; 1) Vertically 2) by Tracks which divert by 30° or more; or 3) by radar * Only to be used at locations approved by CAA* **10 min**

Answer 315

10 mins 5 mins- provided; En-route a/c has a filed TAS 20kts or more faster En-route a/c has reported over an ERP where departing a/c joins route and the departing a/c has been instructed to arrive at that point 5 mins behind the en-route a/c

Answer 316

**_Recipricol Tracks_** **40nm** unless both a/c have been established as having crossed each other and are at least **10nm** apart, if within 100nm of a DME/TACAN this may be further reduced to **5nm**

Answer 317

• Positive position reports over different geographical locations - specified as being separated (MATS Pt2).

Answer 318

**_Climbing or descending on the same track_** **15nm** at the time that the levels are crossed

Answer 319

**_Same level;_** **15nm** When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster and both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN **20nm** When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster **20nm** when both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN **25nm otherwise**

Answer 320

45 degrees

Answer 321

Within 15nm due slant range, therefore any a/c within 15 miles is considered to be at 15 nm for separation (eg if you need 30nm and one is at 2nm you would need 45nm for the other as the nearest one would count as at 15nm)

Answer 322

1) Manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E or G airspace at or below FL100 2) It is during daylight hours 3) The a/c are in VMC 4) The pilot of the a/c climbing or descending agrees to maintain his own separation from other a/c and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other a/c; and 5) ETI is given

Answer 323

The operational control of a/c on 119.480 Issue of clearances and releases of all outbound IFR and SVFR a/c Ensuring inbound a/c have the current HH wx details and any significant airfield info 8nm checks to tower VRP/CTR boundary checks to tower Full runway change in the event an instrument arrival is to be accomodated on the out of duty runway. Provision of LARS during notified hours Ensuring that operational data displays in APS room are up to date

Answer 324

IFR outbounds Arrivals from airways IFR inbounds from OCAS VFR outbounds VFR inbounds LARS tx SVFR flights Traffic in BIA hold

Answer 325

IFR outbounds Arrivals from airways VFR outbounds SVFR flights Traffic in BIA hold

Answer 326

0800-2000 (L)

Answer 327

out to 30nm up to FL100 Area defined by a line joining western edge of Lulworth inner to HA, and from HA to the Romsey VRP

Answer 328

Must have details pre-noted and a Radar Handover effected

Answer 329

Must have details pre-noted transfer of control does not require a formal handover

Answer 330

Require neither pre-note or formal handover

Answer 331

If clear of the yeovilton AIAA then Ply Radar responsible If not than DY

Answer 332

The CTR departure clearance and/or release instructions to all outbound IFR/SVFR a/c The order in which arriving a/c will make their approaches For IFR a/c pass checks when a/c is at 8NM For VFR/visual approaches when the a/c is at the VRP or CTR boundary Pertinent tx info to be passed to VFR jet deps prior to their dep Over-flying a/c likely to penetrate the visual cct or affect departing tx GMC (if open) Initial and/or airways routings and levels to be transmitted to departing IFR and SVFR a/c before take-off

Answer 333

At the CTR boundary with the field in sight

Answer 334

RC within CTR RC within Solent CTA when delegated by Solent DS OCAS TS OCAS

Answer 335

within 42nm and below FL120

Answer 336

Try to use 2500ft but offically; 1900 NE 2200 NW 2000 SW 2300 SE

Answer 337

1500ft Those established on Final Approach or within the area and on a closing heading of no more than 40 degrees

Answer 338

4000ft QNH

Answer 339

Left hand turn racetrack

Answer 340

"C/S on reaching the BIA, proceed outbound for the ILS/NDB approach runway 08/26, report beacon outbound, maintain altitude xxxxft until advised"

Answer 341

No as the outbound and inbound legs cannot be timed due to risk of false GP captures

Answer 342

By giving range checks

Answer 343

A/c routing to join CAS routing EXMOR-EGFF or MULIT-ATWELL-EX

Answer 344

A dep message is to be sent to EGFF ASAP to give Radar the details Pre note DY with the deets and transfer to them if they are open, otherwise pre-note and hand directly to FF

Answer 345

Whether silent handovers are in force or suspended Any unserviceabilites which may affect the conduct of flights or co-ordination within the CTA Any tx planned to enter the Solent CTA/CTR whether transiting or inbound to HI Traffic transiting close to the HI airspace which may affect their operation Changes of runway in use at HH

Answer 346

All IFR deps to be suspended and arrivinf a/c are to be delayed until the unknown a/c is clear of the CTA region

Answer 347

Solent will co-ordinate tx currently under their control. HH APS will assume control of all HI arrivals and these a/c are to be transferred to HH APS. RAD 2 should be brought into operation as soon as practicable The Solent CTA will remain in place byt the HH CTR will be neutralised for the duration All HH deps will be co-ordinated directly with Hurn Sector 21 (for southerly departures) or LTC Southwest (for eastbound or northbound deps) HH Radar ATSA is to obtain outbound SSR codes directly from LAC/LTC

Answer 348

7350-7376 (+ 7377 conspicuity squawk)

Answer 349

3660-3665 and 3667-3677

Answer 350

4320-4327 and 4370-4377

Answer 351

2601-2645 and 2651-2657

Answer 352

Fleetlands

Answer 353

Summer 0445-0830 & 1630-2030 Winter 0630-0930 & 1730-2130

Answer 354

25nm from the ARP

Answer 355

380ft alt (349ft hgt)

Answer 356

630ft alt (599ft hgt)

Answer 357

600ft (562ft hgt) for cat A and B a/c 1000ft (962ft hgt) for cat C and D a/c

Answer 358

410ft alt (379ft hgt)

Answer 359

630ft alt (599ft hgt)

Answer 360

600ft alt (562ft hgt) for CAT A and B 1000ft alt (962ft) for CAT C and D

Answer 361

470ft alt (432ft hgt)

Answer 362

670ft alt (632ft hgt)

Answer 363

600ft alt (562ft hgt) Cat A and B 1000ft alt (962ft hgt) Cat C and D

Answer 364

380ft alt (342ft hgt)

Answer 365

670ft alt (632ft hgt)

Answer 366

600ft alt (562 ft hgt) for Cat A and B 1000ft alt (962ft) for Cat C and D

Answer 367

177ft alt (139ft hgt)

Answer 368

187ft alt (149ft hgt)

Answer 369

198ft alt (160ft hgt)

Answer 370

212ft alt (174ft hgt)

Answer 371

600ft alt (562ft hgt) for Cat A and B 1000ft alt (962ft hgt) for Cat C and D

Answer 372

195ft alt (164ft)

Answer 373

202ft alt (171ft hgt)

Answer 374

210ft alt (179ft hgt)

Answer 375

220ft alt (189ft hgt)

Answer 376

90ft alt (59ft hgt)

Answer 377

101ft alt (70ft hgt)

Answer 378

112ft alt (81ft hgt)

Answer 379

125ft alt (94ft hgt)

Answer 380

600ft alt (562ft hgt) Cat A and B 1000ft alt (962ft hgt) Cat C and D

Answer 381

SFC-15000ft (ocassionally 20000ft)

Answer 382

SFC-15000ft

Answer 383

D036-D038 SFC to 10000ft (occassionally 55000ft)

APS Question Bank Flashcards

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