1
Q
List the order of meningeal layers surrounding spinal cord from most superficial
A
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid
Pia mater
2
Q
How much Barium is used to fill the large intestine
A
1000-2000 mL
3
Q
Effective dose is used to calculate ____
A
Risk of cancer
4
Q
what is the equation for EfD
A
EfD = D x Wr x Wt
5
Q
Comparing biological damage is calculated by ___
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
A
B
6
Q
Which method of radiation measurement consider radiation and tissue types
a. effective dose
b. equivalent dose
A
A
7
Q
MCP & MTP joints are what type of articulation?
a. synovial, ellipsoidal
b. synovial, gliding
A
A
8
Q
Intervertebral articulations and pubic symphysis are considered what type of joint?
a. diarthoidial
b. symphysis
c. synovial
A
B
9
Q
___ projection is used to rule out transverse fx
A
lateral
10
Q
3 types of movements for ellipsoidal joint
A
flex/extend
abduct/adduct
circumduct
11
Q
decrease in beam intensity
1 HVL = ___
2 HVL = ____
A
50%
75%
12
Q
Pain relief =
A
analgesics
13
Q
Constipation =
A
cathartic/laxative
14
Q
nausea/vomitting =
A
antiemetics
15
Q
what 3 bones articulate with temporal bone
A
- parietal
- occipital
- sphenoid
16
Q
dorsum sellae is seen in which projection ?
A
AP Axial Skull (Town method)
17
Q
what happens to IR exposure when a grid is use
A
decreased IR exposure bc of a decrease in # photons striking the IR
18
Q
what is the most superior part of the uterus?
A
fundus
19
Q
which position will show pisiform free of superimposition
A
AP oblique wrist ( not on arrt
20
Q
(UGI) LPO position will demonstrate which structures
A
duodenal bulb & C-loop
21
Q
(UGI) RAO position will demonstrate which structure
A
duodenum
22
Q
duodenum is best seen on which position
A
RAO/LPO
23
Q
Fold of peritoneum surround the loops of small intestine is called __
A
mesentery
24
Q
What 3 structures should be visible on AP humerus
A
greater tubercle in profile
parallel humeral epicondyle
olecranon process superimpose trochlea
25
X-axis on histrogram represents
specific exposure values captured by IR
26
Y-axis on histogram represents
frequency of specific exposure values
27
Histogram quantization is
measuring signal intensities and convert the to digital values
28
ROI or VOI represent patient anatomy on a histogram
VOI
29
Rescaling compensate for ___
underexposure & overexposure
30
if mAs is lower than expected, which digital process will fix display proper exposure
rescaling
31
LUT ensure___
ideal brightness and contrast
32
mucosal lining of stomach is __-
rugae
33
mucosal lining of large intestine is __
haustrae
34
Primary barrier is ___
wall behind upright bucky (7Ft)
35
secondary protective barrier extend to the ceiling with ____ overlap
1/2"
36
secondary protective barrier are__
lead apron
control booth
37
____ mm lead eq for lead window by control booth
1.5
38
Beclere and Holmblad method visualize ___
intercondylar fossa
39
Settegast & Merchant method visualize ___
patellofemoral joint
40
increased diagnostic filtration results in (3)
decrease patient dose, contrast, IR exposure.
41
Atelectasis is ___
total or partial collapse of lung
42
Empyema is ____
pus in body cavity
43
what are the side effects of iodine contrast media
flushing
warm feeling
metallic taste
44
Anaphylactic reactions are ___ (3)
flusing
hives
nausea
45
Cardiovascular reactions are ___
hypotension
tachycardia
cardiac arrest
46
Early indicators anaphylaxis shock ___ (3)
bronchospasm
chest tightness
itching (palms/soles)
47
what is the angle used for axiolateral projection of TMJ
25-30 caudad
48
Hypovolemic shock caused by ___
caused by large amount of blood loss
49
Septic shock caused by ___
caused by toxins produced during infection
50
which 2 bones form the flat bony partition between sides of nasal cavity
ethmoid & vomer
51
for BE, RAO will show ___
hepatic flexure, ascending colon, sigmoid colon
52
relationship between beam quality and attenuation
inverse - if quality of beam increase, then attenuation decrease bc beam can penetrate matter without being absorbed
53
which structure is just distal to tubercles of humerus
surgical neck
54
PA skull will show petrous ridge
filling orbits
55
PA caldwell will show petrous ridge
lying in lower 1/3 of orbit
56
Water will show petrous ridge _____
inferior to maxillary sinus
57
Early somatic effect of radiation (3)
ARS (acute radiation syndrome)
1. hematopoietic
2. GI
3. CNS
58
ARS is considered
a. threshold, stochastic
b. threshold, deterministic
c. nonthreshold, stochastic
d. nonthreshold, deterministic
B
59
threshold dose for 3 organs system response under ARS
1
10
50Gy
60
Besides ARS, other early somatic effects are __ (3)
cataract
erythema
epilation
61
double-walled membrane that lined the abdominal cavity is ___
peritoneum
62
which condition cause pulmonary alveoli to lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated
Emphysema
63
Thick Barium ____ internal organs
Thin Barium ____ internal organs
coats
fills
64
Chole-
bile
65
Cysto-
sac/bladder
66
-lith
stone
67
Function of
1.Liver
2. Gallbladder
1. produce bile
2. store bile
68
L & R hepatic duct joined to form ___
Common hepatic duct
69
what duct connected to the gallbladder
cystic duct
70
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct formed __
common bile duct
71
___ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall
mesentery
72
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that extends from lesser curvature of stomach to portions of liver
lesser omentum
73
____ is a double-folded of peritoneum that connects transverse colon to greater curvature of stomach
greater omentum
74
[UGI] AP scout - CR?
sthenic: ___
hypersthenic: _____
asthenic: ____
1. L1
2. 2" above L1
3. 2" below L1
75
L or R kidney is lower
R
76
This reaction is a nonallergic reaction
Mild
77
Which reaction does not require drug intervention
MILD
78
what are the 2 most common mild reaction
metallic taste and flushed sensation
79
An anaphylactic reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
Moderate reaction
80
Vasovagal reaction is considered ___
a. moderate
b. severe
B
81
Severe reaction results when contrast iodine causes ___
the blood pressure and heart rate to drop.
82
Extravasation is caused by ___ (2)
1. loss of vein access
2. needle is improperly placed
83
Following extravasation, inflammatory response peaks ___ hours
24-48
84
WIthin 6hrs following extravasation, ___ & ___ occur
ulceration & tissue necrosis
85
What to do if extravasation is observed? (4 steps)
1. notify department
2. elevate affected extremity above heart
3. use cold compress followed by warm
4. document
86
What is Phlebitis
vein inflammation
87
Phlebitis happens because ___
administration of IV contrast or vein access
88
What to do if Phlebitis is observed?
1. discontinue
2. locate an alternative site above the affected area or opposite side
89
Radiographer's response to MILD reaction of contrast
comfort, reassure, and monitor patient
90
Radiographer's response to MODERATE reaction of contrast
call for medical assistance & monitor patient
91
Radiographer's response to SEVERE reaction of contrast
call a code & notify physician
92
To reduce the severity of contrast reaction, what kind of premedication is given to patient
antihistamine (benadryl) and prednisone over a period of 12h+
93
who may be candidate for premedication
pt who has fever, asthma, food allergy
94
For venipuncture, what kind of consent form is needed
informed
95
Ideal veins for venipuncture are (3)
median cubital, cephalic, basilic veins
96
[Venipuncture] Tourniquet is placed ___
3-4" proximal to site
97
[Pt scheduling] which study should be scheduled last?
Barium studies
98
[Pt scheduling] put in order sequence of examination from first to last
Endoscopy
UGI
Biliary system -
CT studies -
lower GI -
99
[contrast media] Properties of positive contrast media (3)
1. high atomic number
2. high attentuation
3. provide low density on radiograph
100
[contrast media] what is the water temperature for BE ?
100F
101
Barium escape into peritoneal cavity can cause ___
peritonitis
102
Iodinated compounds can cause ____
dehydration
103
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will increase blood plasma osmolality ?
ionic - because cation will ionize and create 2 separate particles in blood
104
[Non ionic vs ionic] Which contrast agent will provide a lower incidence of contrast reaction
non ionic
105
[Non ionic vs ionic] what is the difference between these?
nonionic doesnt have cation and stay intact when injected, whereas ionic has cation and anion which will ionize and separate into 2 particles
106
FOR GI studies, what lab values are important - and its values (3)
BUN : 7-21 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.7-1.5
eGFR: 90-120
107
what is the chain of infection (6)
pathogen
reservoir
portal of exit
mode of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host
108
Reservoir for infection includes: (3)
human, animals, environment
109
[indirect contact] fomite
object
110
[indirect contact] vector
organism
111
How long to rinse off chemicals If they got in contact with
eye: ____
skin: ___
15min
5min w cool water
112
Gloves must be used when ___ (3)
handle needles.syringes
handle bandages & dressing
assist patient with urinals/bedpans
113
difference between medical and surgical asepsis
medical is reduce number of pathogens but surgical is complete destruction of pathogens on instruments/ equipment
114
Esophagus originate at ___
inferior border of cricoid cartilage (C6)
115
Epiphyseal plate is found between ____
metaphysis & epiphysis
116
The primary center of ossification is ___
diaphysis
117
____ of ossification appear after birth
secondary centers
118
Intramembranous ossification occurs in ____
bones of skull
119
Endochondral ossification occurs in ____
long bone
120
____ centers of ossification are mainly cartilaginous and not visible until calcification occurs
secondary
121
____ center of ossification occur after birth
secondary
122
Natural curve of T spine is ____
Kyphotic (convex)
123
Optic foramina located on which bone
sphenoid bone
124
what parts of gloves are considered sterile
palmar surface and under-folded cuff
125
which position is the patient placed in after contrast injection for myelogram
Trendelenburg
126
grid = ____ IR exposure
decrease
127
CR angle for AP Towne Skull
30 caudad to OML
37 caudad to IOML
128
Endogenous infection -
nosocomial infection occured as result of overgrowth of normal flora
129
Exogenous infection -
diseases caused by external sources
130
Iatrogenic infection -
caused by medical treatment or healthcare prof
131
WHy would GI system require to be done with iodinated contrast
possible perforation, leakage
132
Fail to dorsiflex foot for AP oblique ankle will result in ___
superimposition of lateral malleolus and calcaneus
133
Cavity between lungs is termed
mediastinum
134
The enema bag should be hung on IV at a distance of __
24" above tabletop
135
Enema tip should be inserted no more than __
3-4"
136
another name for radiation tissue rection
determistic
137
Skeletal survery performed because ___ (3)
1. child abuse
2. metabolic bone disease
3. OI
138
CR for PA UGI on sthenic patient
MSP between L1 & L2
139
3 functions of skeletal system
produce blood cells
store calcium
interact w muscles
140
in which projection of ankle should malleoli be equidistant
AP oblique 15 medial rotation (plane thru malleoli parallel to IR)
141
What are the cons of fixed kVp system? (2)
provide more scatter
lower contrast
142
What type of joint is SC ?
Synovial, gliding
143
Which duct joins common bile duct as it enters small bowel
Pancreatic duct
144
How far posterior is the sacrum in relation to ASIS?
3.5”
145
What type of joint is costovertebral joint
Synovial, Gliding
146
What type of joint is radioulnar
Synovial, piVOT
147
which kVp system will produce higher-contrast images and increases resolution
variable kVp
148
What is the pro of variable kVp system
allow small changes in exposure to compensate for variations in body part thickness
149
What is anatomically programmed radiography system
combine AEC system with exposure factors that correspond to specific anatomical procedures
150
[AEC] what happened to exposure when appropriate voltage for a diagnostic-quality exposure is reached?
operational amplifier terminate the exposure
151
[AEC] tight collimation near the chamber location results in ____
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
A - because the chamber will think that the tissue is extremely dense, thus increasing the exposure time
152
[AEC] no collimation will result in ___
a. overexposed image
b. underexposed image
B - because scatter occurs causing AEC to terminate early
153
[AEC] what part of AEC establish maximum exposure time to prevent overexposure & overheating of xray tube
backup timer
154
[AEC] Backup timer should be ____% of anticipated manual exposure time
150
155
[AEC] What happens to the image if the backup timer is too short
underexposed images
156
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
157
Which part of digital radiography control grayscale/contrast?
LUT
158
Which part of digital radiography control brightness/density?
Rescaling
159
Which part of digital radiography control magnification?
Matrix size or FOV
160
increase spatial resolution = ___ pixel pitch
decrease
161
Which part of digital radiography control shape distortion ?
part alignment
162
high kVp = ____ contrast
low
163
Large-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
low
low
164
Small-size object will have:
___ spatial frequency
____ spatial resolution
high
high
165
what is modulation transfer function (MTF)
ability to display contrast of anatomic objects in different sizes
166
MTF =1
This is easily achieved with __-sized objects w ___ spatial frequency
large
Low
167
MTF = 0, meaning?
no difference in brightness level
168
Ideally, do we want high or low MTF
HIGH
169
what is DQE
how efficient IR convert xray exposure to quality image
170
high DQE = ___ exposure required = ___ patient dose
low
low
171
DQE is affected by ___
type of material used in image receptor
172
Grid is used when:
part thickness is ___
more than ___kVp is used
10cm
60kvp
173
why can grid reduce IR exposure
it absorbs scatter as well as some of the transmitted radiation
174
when grid is used, what must be adjusted to maintain exposure
mAs
175
Grid ratio to GCF
no grid: ___
5:1: ___
6:1: ____
8:1:____
12:1:___
16:1___
1-6
176
If a grid is used but no changes in mAs, it could result in ?
quantum noise or excessive patient exposure
177
what is fog
unwanted exposure that reaches IR & decreases image quality
178
which type of grid pattern allow the angulation of x-ray tube
linear
179
which grid is primarily used in fluoro
parallel
180
what is grid focus
orientation of lead lines
181
which type of grid matches the beam divergence of xray
focused grid
182
GCF equation
mAs with grid/ mAs without grid
183
high grid ratio = ___ grid cutoff
more
184
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure along the outer edge of the image (3)
1.upside down
2. off-focus
3. off-angulation
185
which type of grid errors result in decrease exposure across the image (2)
off-level
off-center
186
which type of grid cutoff results when the tube or grid being angled
off-level
187
another name for lateral decentering is
off-center grid cutoff
188
off-center grid cutoff occurs when ___
Xray beam is not aligned or centered to one side of a focused grid
189
Off-focus grid cutoff occurs when __
SID is out of focal range
190
A stationary grid can result in which artifact
Moire effect
191
How to fix Moire effect
higher grid frequency & moving grid
192
Increase in AEC response time = ___ (3)
1. decrease in kVp
2. increase part thickness
3. increase SID
193
flow rate of drip infusion
10-20
194
kVp ONLY has effect on ____ (2)
IR & contrast
195
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in congenital abnormalities
10d-6w ( organogenesis)
196
Exposure of embryo to radiation from ____ result in microcephaly or decrease in IQ
6w-birth (fetal period)
197
25-gauge needle is best used for ___ injection
subcutaneous
198
Which route of administration involve needle and syringe
parenteral
199
___ route produce more rapid onset of reaction than __ route
parenteral
oral
200
which route of administration is through spinal canal?
a. intrathecal
b. parenteral
c. antegrade
A
201
single-phase generators have ___% ripple factor
100
202
100% ripple factor means ____
voltage drops to 0 during xray exposure
203
bit depth related to ____
a. contrast resolution
b. spatial resolution
A
204
a response is known to occur during ___
a. stochastic effect
b. deterministic effect
b
205
___ affect subject contrast
a. filtration
b. grid
c. mAs
d. OID
e. all of the above
Filtration
206
___ affect image contrast
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
B D F G H K
207
Air-gap technique can be used in place of a grid due to ____
beam divergence
208
which bones comprise of the orbit (7)
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, lacrimal, maxilla, zygoma, palatine
209
most cell damage from ionizing radiation occurs when x-ray interact with __
water molecules
210
Which component can substitute for Vidicon camera
CCD
211
[Inverse square law] If the distance is doubled, then exposure ___
decreased to 1/4 of original value
212
[Inverse square law] If distance is reduced by half, then intensity___
quadruples
213
The purpose of mA selector (Rheostat)
adjust filament temperature
214
To double exposure, ___
increase kVp by 15%
215
[15% rule] TO maintain IR exposure, increase kVp by 15% = ____
reduce mAs by half
216
Factors affect quantity (4)
mAs
kVp
distance
filtration
217
factors affect quality (2)
kVp
filtration
218
subcutaneous site for drug injection: (4)
abdomen, back & outer thigh & upper arm
219
sampling frequency related to ___
pixel size or spatial resolution
220
increase pixel size = ___ sampling frequency
decrease
221
Evaluation criteria for no tilt on PA chest
T4 superimposed manubrium
222
Evaluation criteria for no rotation on PA chest
Sternal ends of clavicles are equidistant
223
Subject contrast is determined by (3)
1. energy of xray beam
2. amount of irradiated material
3. type of irradiated material
224
increase in quantum mottle = ___ field size
decrease because collimation reduce the amount of x-ray photon reaching the IR
225
AP axial of Cspine must demonstrate
C3-T2
226
High LET = ____ RBE
high
227
What are the types of personnel dosi? (4)
1. OSL
2. Film badges
3. TLDs
4. Pocket ionization chambers
228
which type of dosi is the most common type
OSL
229
OSL contains what kind of detector film
aluminum oxide
230
OSL dosi needed to be changed every ___
1-3months
231
OSL is scanned by ____ for read out
laser
232
what are the advantages of OSL (3)
1. lightweight
2. easy to carry
3. not affected by heat, moisture, pressure
233
Film Badge record _____
whole body exposure accumulated at low dose
234
difference between the filters inside OSL & Film badge
OSL: allow for different degrees of attenuation
Film badge: allow for measurement of energy of radiation
235
which dosi can determine if exposure is from scatter or primary beam
film badge
236
TLD contains _____ as the sensing material
crystalline form of lithium fluoride
237
Energy in TLD is released by ____ and release ___ to indicate dose
heat
visible light
238
which dosimeter only got read once and cant be affected by external factors
TLD
239
which dosimeter need to be read everyday for accuracy
pocket ionization chamber
240
Eq dose limit for fetus ___ per ___
0.5 mSv/ month
241
Eq dose limit for student
1 mSv
242
[NCRP] Xray tube = ____
0.25mm Al eq
243
[NCRP] Bucky slot cover = ____
0.25 Ld eq
244
[NCRP]gloves= ____
0.25 Ld eq
245
[NCRP]gonads= ____
0.25 Ld eq
246
[NCRP] curtain = ____
0.25 Ld eq
247
[NCRP] thyroid = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
248
[NCRP] Fluoro apron = __
0.5 mm Ld eq
249
[NCRP] window barrier = __
1.5 mm Ld eq
250
[NCRP] glasses = __
0.35 mm Ld eq
251
[NCRP] medical XR tube = ___
2.5 mm Al eq filtration
252
what is annual effective dose for occupational and student > 18years old?
50 mSv
253
what is the dose for public frequent vs infrequent
fre: 1 mSv
inf: 5 mSv
254
___ effect is directly related to dose
deterministic
255
____ effect is randomly occurring in which the chance of effect is proportional to dose received
Stochastic
256
Purposes of primary beam restriction (collimation) (4)
1. decrease patient dose
2. decrease scatter
3. increase contrast
4. increase quantum noise IF no adjustment in mAs
257
Collimator misalignment should be less than ___ of SID used
2%
258
Maximum air kerma rate for fluoro is ____ R/min
10R/min
259
DAP (Dose-area product) measure ___
exposure in air, followed by estimated absorbed dose)
260
Brightness gain is ___
an expression of image intensifier tube conver x-ray into light
261
FLux gain is expressed as ___
photon @ output/ photon @input
262
Purpose of input phosphor? which material is used?
convert xray into visible light
cesium iodide
263
Purpose of photocathode and material used
convert light into electron
cesium antimony
264
Purpose of output phosphor & material used
convert electron to light
zinc cadmium sulfide
265
what part of the image intensifier keep the electron stream narrowed
focusing lenses
266
Disinfectants vs antiseptics which one used to eliminate the growth of microorganisms
antiseptics
267
1 disadvantage of PACS through a web-based network
if internet is slow, images take longer to access
268
oblique projection of 2nd toe, foot should be rotated ___
30-45 medially
269
[Waters] if petrous ridge superimpose maxillary sinus, what must be done to correct the positioning
raise the chin to make OML 37 degree with IR
270
[quality control test] adjacent mA stations should be within ___ of one another
10%
271
[quality control test] when exposure reproducibility is tested, variation in radiation intensity should not ___
be more than 5%
272
[quality control test] to ensure collimator is providing appropriate safety, it must be within ___
2% of SID
273
[quality control test] penetrating ability, must be within ___
5%
274
{fluoro} this feature automatically adjust kVp & mAs during fluoro
automatic gain control
275
ionization is the removal of:
a. electron from the nucleus
b. electron from the atom's orbit
B
276
the distance from peak to peak of sine waves is _
wavelength
277
max height of a wave is ___
amplitude
278
step-down transformer is used to ____ (2)
decrease voltage
increase current
279
what is the primary purpose of filtering x-ray beam
safety
280
full-wave rectification produces ___
pulsating DC
281
Line focus principle states that ____ actual focal spot
____ effective focal spot
large
small
282
[xray tube] purpose of vacuum
prevent electrons from colliding with atoms of gas
283
[xray tube] purpose of tube housing
restrict leakage radiation and provide electrical insulation
284
Synarthroses (aka ____) is ____
fibrous joint - generally immovable
285
Amphiarthroses (aka ____) is ____
cartilaginous joint - slightly movable
286
Diathroses(aka ____) is ___
synovial - freely movable
287
example of synarthroses
skull suture
288
examples of amphiarthroses
intervertebral disk
pubic symphysis
289
[JOINT] Hand, wrist, forearm, elbow, ankle are ____
synovial, diarthroses
290
[type of joint movement] IP joints are ___
ginglymus (hinge)
291
[type of joint movement] MCP/ MTP joints are ___
ellipsoidal (condyloid)
292
[type of joint movement] CMC / TMT joints are ___
plane (gliding)
293
acetabulum is formed by which bones
ilium, ischium, pubic
294
tubercle of ribs articulate with ____
costal facets of transverse process
295
head of ribs articulate with ___
demi-facet of vertebral body
296
Lateral L spine demonstrate _____(3)
IVF
spinous process
disc spaces
297
Oblique L spine desmontrate
articular facets (Z- joint)
298
os coxae (aka___) are found in ____
innominate bone
pelvis
299
[quality control test] ESE dose is __
100 mGya/min
300
[quality control test] CR plate must be erased at least every ___
48hours
301
[quality control test] CR reader is calibrated ___
annually
302
which spine is Lordotic (concave curvature)
C & L spine
303
___ & ___ has convex curvature
T & sacrum
304
cathode side should be placed over which part of spine
a. thoracolumbar
b. cervical
A
305
purpose of expiration for t-spine
reduce air volume in thorax for a more uniform brightness and density
306
orthostatic breathing requires ___
min of 2-3s of exposure time with low mA setting
307
[t-spine] patient with wide hip will require support ___
under waist to prevent sag
308
[t-spine] patient with broad shoulder will require___
10-15 cephalic CR angle
309
the ability to produce quality radiograph using wide range of technical factors
exposure latitude (radiographer)
310
the range of exposure captured by detector is ___
dynamic range
311
___used for contrast enhancement
histogram equalization
312
leakage radiation is limited to ____
a. 10mGy/hr at 1m
b. 1mGy/hr at 1m
1mGy/hr at 1m
313
MODERATE rxns to contrast (3)
1. erythema
2. hives
3. bronchospams
314
double distance = ____ intensity
1/4 of original intensity
315
the source of electrons is
filament
316
the source of xray radiation is
actual focal spot
317
gross overexposure error results in __
data drop - missing data points
318
data drop can lead to ____
saturation
319
Scintillator is used to ___
convert xray photons to light
320
CCD and photodiode are used to __
collect light and convert them to electrical signal
321
TFT is used to ____
release electrical signal to ADC
322
DEL is ___ that collect____. It has 2 components which are ___
detector element that collect electrical charges. it has TFT and storage area
323
[AEC] how to increase IR exposure
increase density control
324
increase grid ratio = ___ & ___
Increase patient dose
Decrease IR exposure
Because high grid ratio requires increase in mAs to compensate
Because high grid ratio absorbs some of the primary radiation
325
direct square law formula
mas1/mas2 = D1^2/ D2^2
326
decrease target angle = ___ size of effective focal spot & actual focal spot
decrease
327
decrease effective focal spot = ____ spatial res
increase spatial resolution
328
decrease anode angle = ___ anode heel effect
increase
329
increase field size = ____ anode heel effect
increase
330
decrease SID = ____ anode heel effect
increase
331
off-focus radiation is caused by ___
failure of histogram analysis
332
RPO show ___ Z-joint
R
333
[tube loading] heat formula
kVp x mAs x s x W
334
[tube loading]
single phase = ____
3phase - 6 pulses= ____
3phase - 12 pulses = __
high frequency = ____
1
1.35
1.41
1.45
335
layers of esophagus from internal to external
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
fibrous
336
Dose of contrast media for peds
1.5-2.0 mL/kg
337
Dose-response curve for cataractogenesis
Nonlinear-threshold
338
Dose-response model for genetic effects
Linear-nonthreshold
339
Which dose-response model estimate risk of cancer
LNT
340
Threshold = ____ effect
Deterministic
341
Nonthreshold = ___ effect
Stochastic
342
Leukemia threshold dose
5-7 Gy
343
Leukemia threshold dose
5-7 Gy
344
Decreased blood count threshold dose
150 mGy
345
Erythema threshold dose
2000 mGy
346
Epilation threshold dose
3000 mGy
347
In CR imaging plate, the initial response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photon is to release __
a. latent image
b. light photons
B
348
3 common digital artifacts
Phantom/ghost
Fog from bg radiation
Dropout
349
Histogram analysis error caused by: (3)
improper collimation, technique, beam alignment
350
Phatom/ghost artifact caused by ___
incomplete plate erasure
351
Which artifact is due to photons with extreme energy striking a digital detector?
Saturation
352
UGI - barium
AP:___
PA:____
Fundus
Body
353
UGI - which position best demonstrates fundus filled barium
LPO
354
The energy of the bremsstrahlung photon is __
Equal to difference between entering and exiting KE of incident electron
355
The spine of the scapula ends in a flattened triangular process termed the:
Glenoid process
Coracoid process
Coronoid process
Acromion process
Acromion process
356
Which of the following pathologic conditions may require a decrease in technical factors?
Atelectasis
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pneumoconiosis
C
357
Which of the following photon interactions with matter results in the production of a recoil electron?
Pair production
Coherent scatter
Compton's interaction
Photoelectric interaction
Compton
358
A small concave depression on the lateral surface of the proximal ulna that provides for articulation with the radial head is the:
Radial notch
Semilunar notch
Bicipital groove
Ulnar notch
A
359
Filtration built in the x-ray tube will:
Improve the radiographic quality of the image
Remove short wavelength photons
Reduce hardening of the beam
Reduce exposure to the patient's skin
D
360
Improved demonstration of a diaphragmatic hernia during a stomach exam could be accomplished by placing the patient in which position?
Prone
Supine
Right anterior oblique (RAO)
Trendelenburg
D
361
An intravenous urogram (IVU) examination demonstrates hydronephrosis with failure to fill the ureter. To increase the possibility of filling the ureter, the patient should:
Be in prone
362
The structures that attach the muscle to bone in the forearm are:
Tendon
363
The normal image intensifier tube is a glass envelope that has been:
Gas-filled
Air-filled
Gas-evacuated
Liquid-filled
Gas-evacuated
364
3 functions of collimator shutter
Reduce penumbra, off-focus radiation, infinite number of light field
365
3 factors affect DQE
IR material
energy of xray beam
SNR
366
Injection of a contrast media just proximal to the aortic valve would demonstrate the:
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Carotid arteries
Coronary arteries
Coronary arteries
367
4 common vital signs
Pulse (60-100bpm) (infant: 100-150]
BP (sys/di)
Respiratory rate
Temperature (98.6)
368
Feathery appearance of sbs
Jejunum
369
The styloid process is a structure of the:
Temporal
370
(BE) Which position show hepatic flexure
Lpo/ RAO
371
Minimum lead eq required for thyroid shield
0.5
372
Purpose of myelogram
study of spinal cord
373
[myelogram] where is the contrast injected
subarachnoid space
374
clinical indication for myelogram (3)
1. ** herniated nucleus pulposus
2. benign tumor/cyst
3. multiple lesions
375
contraindication to myelogram (4)
1. blood in CSF
2 .arachnoiditis
3. increase intracranial pressure
4. recent LP
376
[myelogram] ideal positioning (2)
prone
left lateral
377
[myelogram] how to verify location of needle?
backflow of CSF
378
The end of spinal cord is also called ___
conus medullaris
379
Purpose of IVU
visualize urinary system with contrast medium
380
IVU is a functional or structural test
functional
381
[IVU} what is the purpose of compression paddle
enhance filling of pelvicalyceal system & proximal ureters
382
[IVU] what is the alternative to compression paddle
putting patient in Trendelenburg position
383
most contrast reactions will occur within ____
5minutes
384
when does the nephrogram phase occur
immediately after injection
385
[Cystogram] CR angle+position for AP
15 CAUDAL
2" above pubic symphysis
386
Diaphoresis = __
sweating
387
Y view demonstrate ____ & ___ dislocation
anterior & posterior
388
obliquity for SI joint
25-30
389
RPO of acetabulum = ____ &___
posterior rim of left acetabulum
left anterior iliopubic column
390
Wr - ___
different ionizing radiation to determine effect on tissue
391
____ is antegrade flow of contrast thru superficial vein of arm
IVU
392
____ retrograde injection through ureteral catheter by a urologist as a surgical procedure
retrograde urography
393
____ retrograde flow into bladder thru urethral catheter driven by gravity ONLY
retrograde cystography
394
____ retrograde flow into bladder thru catheter, followed by withdrawal of catheter for voiding image
VCUG
395
Routine for IVU (3)
Scout & series
RPO & LPO
Post-void
396
[IVU] AP must include ___ without cutting ___
symphysis pubis w//o cutting upper kidneys
397
[IVU] CR for nephrogram
between xiphoid process and iliac crest
398
[IVU] prior to contrast injection, patient must ____
empty the bladder so contrast is not diluted
399
[IVU] RPO/LPO show trauma or obstruction of ____ ureter
downside
400
[IVU] RPO will show =___ kidney & ___ ureter
left
right
401
[Cystography] routine? (4)
AP
LPO & RPO
Lateral
AP Axial
402
[cystography] obliquity
45-60 degrrees
403
[cystography] CR for AP Axial
2 superior to symphysis pubis
10-15 caudal
404
[cystography] what angle would project symphysis pubis inferior to bladder
10-15 caudal
405
[cystography] to demonstrate urinary reflux CR ___
iliac crest
406
[cystography] CR for RPO & LPO
2" superior to symphysis pubis & 2" medial to ASIS
407
[VCUG] AP voiding - __
RPO voiding - ___
female
male
408
[VCUG] male urethra is demonstrated
superimpose soft tissue of right thigh
409
[VCUG] female urethra is demonstrated ___
inferior to symphysis pubis
410
uterus is bordered posteriorly by ____ and anteriorly by ___
rectosigmoid colon
urinary bladder
411
name the parts of uterus from superior to inferior (4)
1. fundus
2. corpus (body)
3. isthmus
4. cervix
412
name the 3 layers of uterus from outer to inner
serosa
myometrium
endometrium
413
name the 4 structures of the fallopian tubes from proximal to distal
1. isthmus
2. ampulla
3. infundibulum
4 fimbrae
414
[HSG] what is the contraindication
pregnancy (main )
others: pelvis inflammatory & acute uterine bleeding
415
[HSG] what time period when HSG is allowed to be performed
7-10 days after onset of menstruation
416
[L-spine] obliquity for anterior and posterior oblique
45 degree
417
[L-spine]
50 degree oblique = ___
30 degree oblique = ____
L1-2 Z-joint
L5-S1
418
[L-spine] CR for LPO /RPO
L3 @ level of lower costal margin
(1-2" above iliac crest & 2" medial to upside ASIS
419
[L-spine] which position do you visualize pedicle and Z-joint
Anterior or Posterior oblique
420
[L-spine] how to indicate the following for oblique position
1. over rotation: ___
2. under rotation :___
1. pedicle closer to midline & less of pedicle is seen
2. pedicle look lateral on vertebral body border with more lamina
421
[L-spine] name the body part for scotty dog
nose:
ear:
leg:
eye:
body:
neck:
transverse process
superior articular process
inferior articular process
pedicle
lamina
pars interaticularis
422
[L-spine] what position show: intervertebral disc, IVF, and spinous process
Lateral
423
[L-spine] patient with a wider pelvis and narrow thorax may require a ____ CR angle for lateral position
5-8
424
[L-spine] how to position patient for scoliosis
place the convexity of spine down to open intervertebral spaces
425
another name for articular facets of L-spine
Z-joints
426
[L-spine] CR for L5-S1 spot
5-8 caudal
1.5 " inferior to crest & 2" posterior to ASIS
427
[L-spine] L5-S1 projection - CR must parallel to ___
interiliac line
428
[L-spine] AP Axial L5/S1- CR
female : 30 cephalad
male: 35 cephalad
direct to ASIS
429
[Scoliosis ] AP R/L beind - what is used as a fulcrum during changes in position
pelvis
430
____ move torso posteriorly as fas as possible
hyperextension
431
[Sacrum] CR AP AXIAL
15 cephalad
2" superior to pubic symphysis
432
whose sacrum is generally shorter and wider
female
433
CR to include both sacrum and coccyx in 1 image
3-4" posterior to ASIS
434
indication for retrograde urography
renal insufficency
435
3 signs of patient going into shock
1. pallor
2. increase heart rate
3. diaphroresis
436
[SI joint] patient obliquity
25-30
437
Atropine is used for ____
hypotension
438
hypotension w tachycardia, diffuse erythema, and bronchospasm will require the administration of ____
epinephrine
439
decreased respiratory rate is called ___
bradypnea
440
spontaneous respiration is called
apnea
441
difficulty breathing is called
dyspnea
442
difficulty breathing if lying down
orthopnea
443
Systolic BP is when
highest point reached during contraction of left ventricle
444
during BP, the first pulse sound heard is ___, the last pulse sound heard is ____
systolic
diastolic
445
severe indicator of impending anaphylactic shock
falling BP (rapid onset of hypotension)
446
3 vessels used to palate patient's pulse
1. axillary artery
2. common carotid artery
3. brachial artery
447
purpose of PICC line (2)
deliver medication thru vein
collect blood
448
where is PICC line usually inserted
into basilic vein or cephalic vein in distal humerus
449
how is Benadryl administered
intravenously (IV)
450
6 rights of medication administration
patient, medication, dose, route, time, documentation
451
[ ROA ] which route will make the drug absorb within GI tract
a. enteral
b. parenteral
A
452
Medical asepsis is defined as ___
reduction in number of pathogenic miroorganism in the env.
453
primary site of drug metabolism
liver
454
what is fidelity
obligation to be loyal or faithful
455
what is veracity
obligation to tell the truth
456
what is autonomy
respect independence of others
457
nonmaleficence
do no harm
458
3 requirements for infection to survived or transmitted
1. pathogen
2. favorable env
3. exogenous & endogenous transmission
459
tip of hickman catheter located in ___
SVC
460
average rate of respiration for
adult___
children__
12-20 breaths perminute
30-60 min
461
____ used to treat nausea & vomiting
antiemetics
462
pyrexia means
fever
463
bid =
twice a day
464
antiseptic & examples
impede growth of microorganism
alcohol, peroxide, H2O2
465
Which 3 projections demonstrate patellofemoral joint
Lateral
Axial projection (Settegast)
Axial projection (Merchant)
466
High kVp = ____ PE
low
467
High kVp = ____ PE
low
468
Best position to demonstrate pleural effusion in ap chest
Lateral decub w affected side down
469
CR for urethra during voiding
At pubic symphysis
470
Purpose of cumulative timer in fluorosystem
Record total time fluoro beam is activated
471
What affect image signal strength? Kvp or mas
Mas
472
What determine the biological impact of radiation on tissues
A. Type of tissue
B. Dose rate
B
473
CR for lateral coccyx
3.5” posterior and 2” inferior to ASIS
474
For lower GI study, which position show polyps on lateral side of descending colon
Right lat decub
475
1024 x 1024 means ____
Number of pixels in matrix
476
1024 x 1024 means ____
Number of pixels in matrix
477
CR for sinus SMV
3/4” anterior to EAM
478
Pneumothorax vs pneumonia
Air vs fluid
479
ARRT mission - goals of mission
Standard of Ethics
480
ARRT mission - guide for RT
Codes of Ethics
481
ARRT mission - mandatory standards
Rule of Ethics
482
Which somatic effect involves the probability of it happening, but unrelated to severity
Stochastic
483
Which somatic effect involves both severity and probability
deterministic
484
MSDS provide guidelines for ___ (3)
Handling precautions
Safe use
Clean up & disposal
485
Chemicals contact must be rinsed with ____
Skin: ____
Eye:___
Cool water
5min
15min
486
What is tort
Civil law
Personal injury & compensation
487
Imaging wrong pt or body part
Battery
488
Improperly expose pt’s body part
Invasion of privacy
489
What are considered manipulation of electronic data (3)
1. Wrong processing algorithm
2. Alter EI
3. Crop/mask postexposure
490
Gross negligence
Reckless act disregard of life or limb
491
Cough or sneeze is ___ contact
Direct
492
Standard precautions use barriers to prevent contact with _____ (4)
Blood
Body fluids
Nonintact skin
Mucous membranes
493
Most common route of infection for nosocomial infection
Urinary catheter
494
Normal adult body temperature
98-99F
495
Symptoms of shock include systolic pressure ___ mm Hg
<30
496
Which infection results in low BP
Septic shock
497
which detection device is sensitive to heat
film badge
498
varicella is ___ - require what type of precautions (3)
chickenpox
contact
airborn
standard precautions
499
vasodilator most likely used for _____
chest pain
500
most common vessel to measure BP
brachial artery
501
which medication administration routes are considered parenteral (2)
injection
topically
502
any method of medication administration route that bypass GI tract is considered ___
parenteral
503
Lyme disease is
ticks
504
Malaria is ___
mosquito
505
cerebral hypoxia developed in ___
less than 5minutes
506
Purpose of PEG tube
nutritional support
507
what is required for all pathogens to survive
host
508
most common method of sterillization
steam heat - AUTOCLAVE
509
Where does the tip of Swan ganz catheter go
pulmonary artery
510
tachycardia = ____
bradycardia = __
above 100
below 60
511
temperature
rectal __
oral ___
axillary ___
99.6F
98.6F
97.6F
512
circulation of blood thru heart
SVC/IVC --> R atrium --> tricuspid valve --> R ventricle --> pulmonary valve --> Pulmonary artery --> lungs -- > pulmonary veins --> L atrium --> bicuspid valve --> L ventricle --> aortic valve --> aorta
513
UGI will be done before or after BE
after
514
BUN measures ____
amount of urea nitrogen in blood
515
Creatinine measure ___
how well kidneys are performing their job of filtering waste from blood
516
GFR purpose
if low = kidney disease
517
BUN, creatinine, GFR measure ___ functionc
kidneys
518
mild, severe, moderate ?
vomiting
mild
519
mild, severe, moderate ?
excessive hive
moderate
520
mild, severe, moderate ?
laryngeal edema
moderate
521
mild, severe, moderate ?
hypotension w tachycardia
severe
522
medication for arrhythmia
xylocaine or lidocaine
523
medication for anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
epinephrine
524
medication for urticaria
antihistamine (benadryl)
525
angle for administration of injection
intramuscular__
subcutaneous ____
intravenous___
intradermal___
90
45
25
10-15
526
where is basilic vein
medial along ulnar
527
The number of times per second the electric and magnetic fields generate themselves is called __
frequency
528
Unit of frequency
Hz or cycle/s
529
the distance bw xray travel during one regeneration of electric and magnetic field is ___
wavelength (peak to peak)
530
INverse square law
intensity of radiation if inversely proportional to square of distance bw xray tube and IR
when distance x2 = intensity decrease by 4x
531
which is not a properties of xray
a. travel in waves
b. highly penetrate
c. electrically neutral
d. travel speed of light
A
532
which are the properties of xray
a. travel in waves
b. highly penetrate
c. electrically negative
d. travel speed of light
e. can be focused by a lens
f. cause fluorescence
g. narrow range of wavelength
B D F
533
[PE] the photoelectron has the energy ___
of the incident photon and binding energy of electron involved
534
rank subject density from least to most attenuated
Fat, water, air, muscle, bone
air
fat
water
muscle
bone
535
number of ionization in air is _
exposure
536
exposure is calculated in __
c/kg
537
enegry absorbed in matter per unit mass is __
absorbed dose
538
Equivalent dose is determined by __
D x Wr
539
Weight factor forr
xray, beta, gamma __
fast neutrons____
alpha___
1
10
20
540
which compare biological damage
equivalent dose
541
which compare different type of examinations and exposures
effective dose
542
rank organs from most to least radiosensitive
breast, thyroid, lungs, gonads, liver, colon, bone marrow
bone marrow
breast
colon
liver
lung
gonads
thyroid
543
what is primary radiation
xray beam prior to any interaction w patient, grid, IR
544
what is secondary radiation
leakage and scatter
545
least scatter is observed when radiographer is ____ from patient
90degree angle
546
which c-arm projection will give least exposure to operator
PA projection (tube underneath, ir on top)
547
C-arm, with horizontal beam, least exposure will be at___
IR
548
foot pedal for carm and fluoro is ____
dead-man type
549
occupational exposure records must be kept how long
life time
550
length of dose record keeping
3years
551
which component of the circuit is clled variable resistor
rheostat
552
Purpose of rheostat
regulate thermionic emission
553
purpose of step-up transformer
increase V to kV to produce Xray
554
purpose of step-down transformer
decrease voltage
increase A
555
purpose of rectifier
convert AC to DC
556
Voltage ripple
how mcuh it has to drop back down before coming up
557
voltage ripple %
single phase ___
3phase 6 pulse ___
3phase 12 pulse ___
high frequency
100%
14%
4%
1%
558
electrons interact with the anode at ___
actual focal spot
559
____ produced from rebounding electrons, outside of the anode focal spot
off-focus radiation
560
examples of inherent filtration
inside tube
glass envelope
insulating oil
561
compensating filters compensate for ____
difference in thickness and densities
562
histogram
x-axis;___
y-axis:___
amount of exposure
number of pixels for each exposure
563
digital contrast is controlled by ____
LUT
564
High S number = _____
underexposed
565
wrong celll = ____
underexposed
566
maximum mAs for backup timer
600mAs
567
[AEC] as kVp increases, AEC ___
decrease
568
mottle= not enough ___
mAs
569
scanning laser beam overlap with grid line structure will cause ____ artifact
moire effect
570
SSD for mobile fluoro (c-arm)
12" or 30cm
571
SSD for stationary fluoro
15" or 38cm
572
the site from which microorganisms leave host to enter another host is ___
portal of exit
573
ways to reduce presence of microorganisms (3)
1. disinfection
2. use antiseptic
3. hand hygiene
574
reservoirs include __ (5)
humans
animals
environment
insects
objects
575
where is fist placed for heimlich maneuver
below sternum
576
positive contrast appear radio-__
paque
577
orthostatic hypotension is caused by ____
decreased pulse rate
578
nitroglycerin is taken ___
sublingual
579
Swan-ganz catheter is used for ___ (3)
1. measure cardiac output
2. measure heart pressures
3. diagnose ventricular failure
580
isotopes have the same ____, different ___
atomic number (proton)
mass number
581
main advantag of high frequency generators
reduce pt dose by reducing exposure time
582
____ fluoroscopy reduce total exposure time
intermittent
583
21 CFR, how frequent radiation protection equipment is inspected
annually
584
the biological effectiveness of absorbed dose energy is called ___
RBE
585
____ cause atom to vibrate and re-emit photon with no energy loss
coherent scattering
586
symptoms of ARS (3)
headache
nausea
fever
587
j/kg & Gy measure ___
absorbed dose
588
1mrem = ___ mSv
0.01
589
higher grid ratio = ____ latitude of exposure setting
decrease
590
which dosi is capable of measuring doses from different types of radiation
TLD
591
cell sensitivity from least to most
blood cells
muscle
nerve
reproductive
GI
epithelial tissue
nerve
muscle
epithelial tissue
GI
reproductive cells
blood cell
592
OER increases = cell survival ___
cell survival decrease
593
cell cycle
PMAT
594
high LET = less ____, more___
penetrating
absorb
595
the ability of radiation to cause biologic damage is called
RBE
596
the rate at which radiation energy is deposited in matter is __
LET
597
RBE is affected by __ (3)
type of radiation
dose rate
tissue rate
598
dose that considered to increase chances of getting leukemia as dose goes up is
linear nonthreshold
599
___ means there is certain amount of dose required to initate the reponse
linear threshold
600
stochastic effect is based on which dose-response model
LNT
601
Tissue reaction effect is based on which dose response model
nonlinear threshold
602
dose determine the chance of getting the effect is ____
stochastic
603
dose determine the severity of effect is ___
deterministic
604
which dosi provide immediate result
pocket ionization chamber
605
dosi worn at collar measures radiation dose to __ (3)
head, neck, thyroid
606
effect of mAs on ESE
mAs x2 = exposure x2
607
how is ESE is calculated
minimum SOD
608
limit set by FDA for ESE
10 cGy/mib
609
when SOD increases, ESE __
decrease
610
which two interaction produce diagnostic xray?
Characteristic
Brems
PE
Pair production
A & B
611
lead lining thickness for
primary barrier: ___
secondary barrier: ____
1.6mm(1/16")
0.8mm (1/32”)
612
additional panel used to protect embryo/fetus in maternity aprons has
1mm lead equivalent (?)
613
how oxygen effect impact irradiated tissue?
a. react free radicals to produce peroxide compound
b. facilitate direct action and production of peroxide compounds
A
614
most efficient beam restricting device
a. aperture collimator
b. aperture diaphragm
A
615
xray and gamma rays are considered ___ radiation
a. particulate
b. electromagnetic
B
616
cellular effects of irradiation
instant death
reproductive death
apoptosis
mitotic death
mitotic delay
permanent/ temporary interference w function
chromosome breakage
617
cataractogenesis is --- effect
deterministic
618
cell survival curve describe ___
the relationship bw radiation dose and proportion of cells that survive
619
DAP meter is used to __
unit?
measure exposure in air followed by computation to estimate absorbed dose
Gyxcm^2
620
LD 50/30 for humans with minimal clinical support is in the range of ___
3-4Gy
621
which 2 factors is increased by ABC to maintain level of brightness during fluoro to compensate for part thickness change
kVp
mAs
622
LD in human usually specified as ___
a. LD 50/30
b. LD50/60
B
623
which position give highest ESE during fluoro
lateral
624
atomic number after gamma radiation is ___
remain the same
625
atomic number after alpha
decrease by 2
626
atomic number after beta minus
increase by 1
627
which 3 dose eq is included on dosi report
quarterly
year-to-date
lifetime
628
fluoroscopy rate must not exceed
10mGy/min
629
ABC on image intensifier checked to ensure radiation hitting ___ is constant
input phosphor
630
Plate erasure every ___ hours
48
631
CR reader is calibrated ___
annually
632
apron, thyroid shields must be checked -___
annually
633
quantization is ____
assign a value to pixel correspond to the gray shade
634
flat fielding is ___
preprocessing technique to make image uniform
635
___ technique chart usually result in high contrast
variable kvp
636
high kvp = ___ exposure latitude
wide
637
___ technique chart usually result in lowcontrast
fixed kvp
638
increasing FOV = ___ scatter
more
639
increase FOV = ____ pixel size
increse
640
decrease FOV =
____ magnification
_____ brightness
___ quality
increase
decresase
increase
641
which position demonstrates pneumoperitoneum
Right Lat decub
Upright
642
intertochanteric crest is on ____
intertrochanteric line is on _____
posterior
anterior
643
3 fat pads on lateral elbow
posterior
anterior
supinator
644
high fill factor = ___ spatial
high
645
misrepresentation of true size is
magnification
646
The purpose of image intensifier during fluoro (3)
Increase brightness
Reduce dose
Decrease procedure time by provide clear images faster
647
If pt has pneumothorax, AEC detectors sensitivity needed to be ____
Decrease
648
If pt has breast implant, AEC sensitivity needed to be ___
Decrease bc early termination results in underexposed
649
If pt has breast implant, AEC sensitivity needed to be ___
Decrease bc early termination results in underexposed
650
Decreased grid ratio = ____ IR exposure
Increase
651
Primary control for size distortion
OID
652
1” OID = ___ “ SID to compensate
7-8
653
Elongation distortion results from ____
Angling tube & IR
654
Foreshortening resulting from ____
Angling the part
655
DQE evaluate the effect of ____ on image
SNR
656
VOI is determined during ___
Histogram analysis
657
What compound is used to directly covert xray to electrical signal
a-Se
658
Isotropic nature of xray indicate that photons:
A. Have different intensities
B.travel in all directions
C. Travel in same directions
B
659
Which is used to release information stored in PSP
A. Laser light
B. White light
C. Infrared light
A
660
Hip & shoulder joints
Ball & socket (diathrotic)
661
Cmc joint
Saddle (diathrotic)
662
Cmc joint
Saddle
663
Elbow, knee, finger
Hinge
664
stator use ____ to
magnetic induction
665
____ convert electrical energy to mechanial energy
motor
666
trochlea articulate with ___
semilunar notch
667
distal row of carpals (lateral to medial)
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
668
scaphoid is on the ___ side
lateral
669
ipsilateral means
injuries on the same side
670
___ used to even out exposure levels across image and not part of radiographic unit.
a. compensating filter
b. inherent filter
A
671
___ used to absorb low-energy xray photons before they reach patient
a. compensating filter
b. inherent filter
B
672
Location of symphysis pubis in relation to ASIS
3-4” inferior to ASIS
673
Location of femoral neck
1-2” Medial and 3-4” inferior to Asis
674
Ossification pattern
0-3mo
Metacarpal, phalanges, radius, ulna
675
Ossification pattern
3-14mo
Capitate, hamate
676
Ossification pattern
14mo-3y
Epiphyses of
metacarpals, phalanges distal radius
677
Ossification pattern
3y-9y
Distal row of carpals
678
Ossification pattern
Epiphyseal fusion to metaphysis at ___
14 years +
679
energy of xray photon after compton interaction
decreases & changes direction
680
AP pelvis , what can be inferred if obturator foramen appears narrowed
rotated towards the side of narrowed foramen
681
AP KNEE LATERAL OBLIQUE will primarily show which anatomical structures (3)
fibular head
lateral femoral condyle
proximal tibia
682
CR angle and elbow positioning of coyle method to visualize radial head
45 cephalad (tw shoulder)
elbow flex 90
683
CR angle and elbow positioning of coyle method to visualize coronoid process
45 from shoulder (away from shoulder)
elbow flex 80
684
structure that control passage of food from small bowel into large bowel
ileocecal valve
685
structure that form
anterior border of pelvic inlet ____
posterior border of pelvic ____
lateral side of pelvic ___
Superior border ___
pubic symphysis
sacral promontory
Ischial tuberosity
Coccyx
686
if an image is under or over exposed, we adjust ____ not __
mas
kvp
687
COPD related to what 2 conditions
chronic emphysema
chronic bronchitis
688
which factor direcly influence SNR
a. exposure time
b, grid ratio
c detector material
A
689
function of DAP
measure and report dose
690
for patient w pneumothorax, increase AEC sensitivity will cause ____ of the lung field
a. underexposure
b. overexposure
A
691
tech's dosi should be read ____
monthly
692
which device collect light signal released by PSP in plate reader
PMT
693
AEC optimize __ without influencing ___
dose
image contrast and resolution.
694
decrease spatial resolution = ____ DEL size = ____ DEL pitch
increase
increase
695
during pre-processing, if exposure is outside of acceptable range, computer will correct image by ____
rescaling
696
Using a grid w higher grid ratio results in ___ image contrast
increased image contrast
697
(Ugi) which position will show barium in the body & air in fundus
RAO
Not LAO (not a position for ugi)
698
(Ugi) which position will show barium in the body & air in fundus
RAO
Not LAO (not a position for ugi)
699
Which carpal form the base of 1st metacarpal
Trapezium
700
Bone contains coronoid fossa
Humerus
701
CR angle for Settegast method - which structure is visualized?
15-20 from lower leg
Patella
702
CR angle for Merchant method
30 caudal from horizontal planes OR 30 to femur
703
Holmbald method
Patient kneeling w knee flex 60-70 debree
CR: perp to midpopliteal crease
704
Holmbald method
Patient kneeling w knee flex 60-70 debree
CR: perp to midpopliteal crease
705
Camp coventry method
Pt prone knee flex 40-50
CR: perp to lower leg OR 40-50 caudal
706
Beclere method
Supine
Knee flex 40-45
CR perp to lower leg
707
Proper lateral ankle xray will show fibula superimpose ____
Posterior half of tibia
708
Distance bw ASIS and table top is <19cm, CR: ____
5 caudal
709
Distance bw ASIS and table top is <19cm, CR: ____
5 caudal
710
Distance bw ASIS and table top is 19-24cm, CR: ____
perpendicular to IR
711
Distance bw ASIS and table top is 19-24cm, CR: ____
perpendicular to IR
712
Distance bw ASIS and table top is >24cm, CR: ____
5 cephalad
713
The end of spinal cord ends at /
L2
714
topical landmark located at junction of frontal and nasal bone is ____
a. glabella
b. nasion
B
715
in order to demonstrate glenoid cavity, the body of scapula should be ___
parallel w IR
716
___ show the relationship bw glenoid cavity and humeral head
inferosuperor axial - shoulder
CR: Perp to IR
717
origin of right common carotid artery
brachiocephalic artery
718
which carpal bone can be visualized in its entirety with Gaynor-Hart method
pisiform
719
gaynor-hart method
hyperextend wrist
dorsiflex hand 90
rotate hand 10 medially
cr: 1" distal to base of 3rd metacarpal
720
which structure separate EAM and the middle ear
tympanic membrane
721
3 bones of auditory ossicles (lateral to medial)
malleus
incus
stapes
722
which position will demonstrate right glenoid fossa
a. 45 LPO
b. 45 RPO
c. AP
B
723
ureter or urethra is retroperitoneal structure
ureter
724
CR for hand:
a. base of third metacarpal
b. 3rd metacarpal joint
B
725
PA Axial projection of intercondylar fossa has the CR __
a. perp to shaft of femur
b. perp to shalt of tibia
B
726
the process projecting superior and anterior from mandibular ramus is ____
a. coronoid process
b. corocoid process
c. condyloid process
A
727
longest segment of small intestine
ileum
728
function of ABC mechanism of fluoro
maintained a fixed exposure rate to image intensifier
729
Obliquity for ugi rao
40-70
730
Obliquity for ugi lpo
30-60
731
embryonic period
1-10days
preimplantation
732
embryonic period
10d-6w
organogenesis
733
embryonic period
6w - birth
fetal period
734
microcephaly and effect on CNS happen during _____
fetal period
735
congenital abnormalities is the effect during ____
oranogenesis
736
a diagnostic image is produced even though the patient dose is much higher than desired. this is because of ____
exposure latitude, should be N put dynamic range
737
increase filtration = _____ beam intensity
decrease
738
which position will demonstrate joint space bw first and second metatarsal bases and the joint space bw first & 2nd cuneiform
LATERAL OBLIQUE OF FOOT
739
Obliquity of lateral foot
30
740
CR for AP thumb
first metacarpophalangeal joint
741
what type of consent occur when patient undergo CXR
implied
742
unit for air kerma
Gy
743
unit for exposure
C/kg
744
_____measure occupational radiation exposure
unit?
EQUIVALENT DOSE
Sv
745
____ measure pt dose
unit?
absorbed dose
Gy
746
____ measure number of ionization
unit?
exposure
C/kg
747
____ measure Kinetic energy of ionization in air
unit?
AIR KERMA
J/kg or Gy
748
Gy = ____
A. J/kg
B. C/kg
J/kg
749
excessively high mAs can be identified through ____________
EI that outside of acceptable range
750
[image intensifier] the primary brightness gain occurs from ___ & ___
acceleration and focusing of electron beam
751
[image intensifier] ____ convert electrons into light available for viewing
output screen/ output phosphor
752
the ratio of # of light photons at output phosphor to the number of Xray at the input phosphor is _____
flux gain
753
____ occurs as the result of same number of electrons produce at large input screen being compressed into small output screen
minification gain
754
input screen or output screen smaller
output
755
___ is an increase in brightness or intensity
minification gain
756
___ is the ability of image intensifier to increase illumination level of image
total brightness gain
757
how is muti-focus image intensifier tube is designed to magnify image electronically
increase voltage on electrostatic lenses
758
increased voltage focus electrons at a point closer to ____
a. input screen
b. output screen
input screen
759
central portion of output phosphor possess greatest ____
a. brightness
b. spatial resolution
B
760
___ & ____ correct for slight underexposure or overexposure errors
LUT
rescaling
761
how often should AEC be tested to ensure consistent performance
monthly
762
obliquity for RAO (i couldnt remember for what exam, fk it) i did this card at 3am
35-40 from prone
763
AP town best visualize which cranial bone
occipital bone
764
purpose of reproducibility test
ensure uniform radiation output across exposures
765
which grid matched the divergence of beam
focused grid
766
what software used for digital documentation of patient health info
EMR
767
____ is used to display image as if it was exposed using proper technical factors
rescaling
768
"linearity" means____
consistency of radiation output relative to mA settings
769
770
CR for ap axial for toes
10-15 cephalad
771
purpose of performing daily quality control check
check system's ability to reproduce image contrast
772
purpose of adding phases and rectifiers
maintain high voltage
773
774
Its difficult to visualize ___ objects with ___ frequency
Small
High
775
___ affect receptor exposure (also which one is the main factor)
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
A B D F H J K
mAs
776
___ affect spatiaal resoultion
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
C D E I K L
777
___ affect distortion
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. OID
d. SID
e. focal spot size
f. grids
g. tube filtration
h. beam restriction
i. motion
j. anode heel
k. patient factors
l. angle
C D K L
778
purpose of GSDF
luminance reponse of display monitor and digital image values
779
AAPM recommend luminance response fall within ___ of GSDF standard
10%`
MRI
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