Prognostic factors and patient selection for ART
Measures of ovarian reserve
AFC and relationship to ovarian reserve
AMH and relationship to ovarian reserve
FSH and relationship to ovarian reserve
> 8.9 predicts a low response to gonadotropin stim
Assessment and screening before undergoing fertility rx
General health and dietary advice for couples trying to conceive or undergoing fertility rx
A 27-year-old fit and healthy woman suffers from secondary amenorrhea (one period every 6 months). What is the single most useful hormone measurement you would ask for?
Random FSH
FSH can help differentiate between hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (at the level of the hypothalamus/pituitary), ovarian dysfunction (PCOS) or ovarian failure (primary ovarian insufficiency). Waiting for a period to perform a Day 3 FSH is impractical in her case, since she only has one period every 6 months. LH is not as useful as FSH for investigating the level of dysfunction. Estradiol cannot differentiate between hypothalamic/pituitary causes and ovarian failure (in both cases, estrogen is low). Estradiol levels may also fluctuate substantially. Thyroid imbalance is a rather uncommon cause of menstrual disturbance. In most cases, the woman has overt symptoms or signs of thyroid imbalance.
A 25 years old woman is coming to see you in clinic with secondary amenorrhea of 12 months. Her weight progressively increased from 65kg (BMI 23) to 85kg (BMI 31).
What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea?
Significant weight gain can disrupt the hormonal balance and lead to menstrual irregularities, including amenorrhea. Research shows that a weight loss of approximately 5-10% of the initial body weight is often sufficient to restore normal menstruation in cases where amenorrhea is linked to weight gain. This is because excessive adipose tissue can interfere with the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, leading to menstrual disturbances
A 25-year-old woman presents with acne, hirsutism, and irregular menstrual cycles. Initial blood tests show elevated total and free testosterone levels.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation?
Measure serum DHEA and DHEA-s
In cases of clinical hyperandrogenism with elevated total and free testosterone levels, it is important to assess adrenal androgens to help determine whether the source of excess androgens is adrenal or ovarian. This can aid in diagnosing conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia or androgen-secreting tumors.
A 25-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, weight gain, and increased facial hair. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated insulin levels and a diagnosis of insulin resistance. Further testing shows elevated androgen levels and decreased levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG).
What is the most likely mechanism by which insulin resistance contributes to the development of PCOS symptoms?
Decreased hepatic production of SHBG. In women with PCOS, insulin resistance leads to hyperinsulinemia, which decreases hepatic production of SHBG. This reduction in SHBG increases free circulating androgens, contributing to symptoms such as hirsutism, acne, and menstrual irregularities. Additionally, insulin resistance amplifies ovarian androgen production, further exacerbating hyperandrogenism and disrupting normal ovulatory cycles.
A 26-year-old woman with polycystic ovary syndrome presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and acne. She is not interested in becoming pregnant at this time.
What is the most appropriate initial management for her symptoms?
COCP =first-line to regulate menstrual cycles, reduce androgen levels, and improve symptoms of hirsutism and acne. Provides both cycle control and anti-androgenic effects, making it an effective management option for PCOS symptoms. Other options, like metformin and spironolactone, may be added if symptoms persist
Hormone levels in PCOS vs adrenal pathology
If testosterone levels are not elevated, it is likely PCOS (70% of PCOS women have normal serum testosterone levels). If testosterone levels are significantly elevated (more than twice the upper normal limit), consider adrenal pathology (tumours, Cushing, adrenal hyperplasia). Elevated LH levels (with normal FSH levels) are common in PCOS, but can occur with any condition that manifests with hyper-androgenaemia.
A 19-year-old woman with secondary amenorrhea, hirsutism and substantially elevated testosterone levels. The most appropriate diagnosis is
The substantially elevated testosterone levels suggest an adrenal cause. Young women (<30 years) with this presentation need to be investigated for late-onset adrenal hyperplasia. The 17-OH-progesterone test is the simplest screening test for this condition.
Risk factors for OHSS pre-trigger
An IVF cycle
Risks of undergoing ovarian stimulation?
Risks of undergoing egg collection?
Reducing the risk of OHSS
Step 1: Use an appropriate dose of FSH to stimulate the ovaries (low ovarian reserve = can safely use high dose FSH stimulation. High ovarian reserve - requires decreased dose)
Step 2: Use an appropriate trigger medication
- Used to mimic the LH surge that occurs in the normal menstruation -> induces oocyte maturation and ovulation.
- LH not used because of short half life
- 2 options: hCG trigger or GnRH agonist trigger
- hCG has long half-life (stays in the bloodstream for approx 10 days) & the dual presence of hyperstimulated ovaries and hCG can result in OHSS
- GnRH agonist: (REMEMBER: FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary requires pulsatile release of GnRH from the hypothalamus) if GnRH antagonist is used to suppress ovulation during an IVF cycle, then GnRH agonist can be used as a trigger -> GnRH agonist has an initial flare effect: anterior pit releases LH and FSH, then there is a suppressive effect. Flare effect can be used to trigger oocyte maturation. And since the flare effect is short-lived, and LH has a short half-life, OHSS is avoided.
**Can’t use GnRH agonist trigger if GnRH agonist being used to suppress ovulation.
** Small risk of “trigger failure” in this regimen (e.g. if there is functional hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) - no oocyte maturation -> failed egg collection
Bleeding risk with egg collection (pathological basis and mitigation of risk)
Mitigation of bleeding risk:
- Haem review prior to commencement of IVF cycle
- Thrombocytopenia -> platelet infusion immediately prior to egg collection
- Haemophilia (less common and milder in females) -> clotting factor replacement
- vWD -> consider desmopressin (DDAVP), clotting factor replacement, clot stabilizing meds, e.g. tXA
- In all situations, avoid meds/supplements that are known to increase bleeding risk, e.g. aspirin, fish oil
- If patient has high VTE risk, start clexane at time of FSH injections, then cease at time of trigger (always administered 36h prior to egg collection). Recommence 12-24h after egg collection.
Mitigating infection risk in egg collection in immunosuppressed patients
What about IVF when there is concern for elevated serum oestrogen levels? e.g. oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer
PIGD