Airbus 320 AZUL > ATPL > Flashcards

ATPL Flashcards

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1
Q

What does ACCELERATE STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE (ASDA) refer to?

A

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway, if provided

ASDA is crucial for determining the safety of take-off and landing distances.

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2
Q

Define ADS-B (BROADCAST).

A

A surveillance system where an aircraft broadcasts its GPS-derived position and other information over a data link

This information is received by ground-based transceivers for processing and display at air traffic control facilities.

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3
Q

What is ADS – C (CONTRACT)?

A

A means for exchanging terms of an ADS agreement between ground systems and aircraft

It specifies conditions for initiating ADS reports and the data contained in those reports.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the AERODROME REFERENCE CODE (ARC)?

A

To interrelate specifications concerning aerodrome characteristics for aircraft suitability

The code includes a number and letter indicating wingspan categories.

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5
Q

What does AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATION (AIP) contain?

A

Aeronautical information of lasting character essential to air navigation

It is issued by or with the authority of a State.

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6
Q

List the AIRCRAFT APPROACH CATEGORIES based on speed.

A
  • Category A: Speed less than 91KT
  • Category B: Speed 91KT or more but less than 121KT
  • Category C: Speed 121KT or more but less than 141KT
  • Category D: Speed 141KT or more but less than 166KT
  • Category E: Speed 166KT or more

These categories are based on Vref or VS0 at maximum certificated landing weight.

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7
Q

What is an AIRPORT REFERENCE POINT (ARP)?

A

A point on the airport designated as the official airport location

It serves as a reference for various airport operations.

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8
Q

What does the code word ALERFA designate?

A

An alert phase

It is used in aviation communication to indicate a situation requiring attention.

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9
Q

Define ALTERNATE AERODROME (ICAO).

A

An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it cannot land at the intended aerodrome

Includes Take-Off Alternate, En Route Alternate, Destination Alternate, and ETOPS En Route Alternate.

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10
Q

What is QFE in aviation?

A

The atmospheric pressure setting that causes the altimeter to read zero at the airfield reference datum

It is crucial for accurate altitude readings during takeoff and landing.

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11
Q

What does QNE refer to?

A

The constant atmospheric pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.25 hectopascals

It is used for expressing flight levels.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of QNH?

A

The atmospheric pressure setting that causes the altimeter to read altitudes referenced to mean sea level

It is essential for accurate altitude measurements during flight.

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13
Q

What is an APPROACH BAN?

A

An approach procedure continuation is prohibited beyond a specific point or height if visibility is below minimums

This ensures safety during landing operations.

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14
Q

Define AREA NAVIGATION/RNAV.

A

A method of navigation allowing aircraft operation on any desired flight path within navigation aids coverage

It can use both station-referenced and self-contained aids.

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15
Q

What is a BALKED LANDING?

A

A landing maneuver that is unexpectedly discontinued below DA(H)/MDA(H) or beyond MAP

This may occur due to various safety concerns during landing.

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16
Q

What does CEILING (ICAO) refer to?

A

The height of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky below 6000m

It is a critical factor in aviation weather assessments.

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17
Q

What are COMPULSORY REPORTING POINTS?

A

Reporting points that must be reported to ATC, designated on aeronautical charts

They are marked by solid triangles or filed in flight plans.

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18
Q

What is CONTINUOUS DESCENT FINAL APPROACH (CDFA)?

A

A technique for flying the final approach of a Non Precision Approach as a continuous descent

It supports a stabilized approach procedure without level-off.

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19
Q

Define DECISION ALTITUDE (DA) or DECISION HEIGHT (DH).

A

A specified altitude or height in precision approaches where a missed approach must be initiated if visual reference is not established

It is critical for safe landing operations.

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20
Q

What does DETRESFA designate?

A

A distress phase

It is used in aviation communication to indicate a serious emergency situation.

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21
Q

What is EXTENDED OPERATION (ETOPS)?

A

Any flight by an aircraft with two turbine power-units where flight time to an alternate aerodrome exceeds a threshold time

This is crucial for long-distance flights over water or remote areas.

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22
Q

What is the FINAL APPROACH FIX (FAF)?

A

The fix from which the final approach to an airport is executed

It identifies the beginning of the final approach segment.

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23
Q

What is the FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT (FAS)?

A

The segment of an instrument approach procedure where alignment and descent for landing are accomplished

It is essential for a successful landing.

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24
Q

What does GBAS-LANDING SYSTEM (GLS) utilize?

A

GNSS augmented by a Ground-Based Augmentation System for approach and landing operations

It serves as the primary navigational reference.

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25
Define **GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEMS (GNSS)**.
An umbrella term for independent satellite navigation systems used for onboard position determinations ## Footnote It is recognized by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
26
What is **GRID MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE ALTITUDE (Grid MORA)**?
An altitude providing terrain and man-made structure clearance within specified latitude and longitude lines ## Footnote It is derived by Jeppesen or provided by State Authorities.
27
List the **ILS CATEGORIES (ICAO)**.
* ILS Category I: Decision height not lower than 60m, visibility not less than 800m * ILS Category II: Decision height lower than 60m but not lower than 30m, visibility not less than 300m * ILS Category III: Decision height lower than 30m or no decision height, visibility not less than 175m ## Footnote Special authorization is required for Categories II and III.
28
What is the **MAXIMUM AUTHORIZED ALTITUDE (MAA)**?
A published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude for an airspace structure or route segment ## Footnote It ensures safe flight operations within controlled airspace.
29
What does **MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE (MCA)** refer to?
The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding towards a higher minimum enroute IFR altitude ## Footnote It is crucial for maintaining safe vertical separation.
30
Define **MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE (MDA)** or **MINIMUM DESCENT HEIGHT (MDH)**.
A specified altitude or height in a non-precision approach below which descent must not be made without visual reference ## Footnote It is essential for ensuring safe landings.
31
What is **MINIMUM ENROUTE IFR ALTITUDE (MEA)**?
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements ## Footnote It assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
32
What does **MINIMUM FUEL** indicate?
A situation where an aircraft’s fuel supply has reached a state where little or no delay can be accepted ## Footnote It is not an emergency but indicates a potential emergency situation.
33
What is **MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (MOCA)**?
The lowest published altitude meeting obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment ## Footnote In the USA, it assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22NM of a VOR.
34
Define **MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE ALTITUDE (MORA)**.
An altitude providing known obstruction clearance 10NM either side of the route centerline ## Footnote It includes terrain and man-made structure clearance.
35
What is **MINIMUM RECEPTION ALTITUDE (MRA)**?
The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined ## Footnote It is important for navigation accuracy.
36
What does **MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE (MSA)** provide?
A minimum clearance of 300m above all objects within a sector of a circle of 46km radius centered on a radio aid to navigation ## Footnote It is crucial for safety in mountainous areas.
37
Define **MOUNTAINOUS AREA (ICAO)**.
An area where terrain elevation changes exceed 900m within a distance of 10NM ## Footnote It poses unique challenges for navigation and flight safety.
38
What are **NEAR-PARALLEL RUNWAYS**?
Non-intersecting runways with an angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less ## Footnote This configuration is important for safe operations.
39
What is **OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (OCA)** or **OBSTACLE CLEARANCE HEIGHT (OCH)**?
The lowest altitude or height used to establish compliance with obstacle clearance criteria ## Footnote It is critical for ensuring safe flight operations.
40
What does **REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUMS (RVSM)** entail?
A reduction in vertical separation between FL290 – FL410 from 2000ft to 1000ft ## Footnote This allows for more efficient use of airspace.
41
What are **RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS (ICAO)** used for?
To illuminate a runway intended for use at night or for precision approaches ## Footnote They show variable white lights, with specific colors for displaced thresholds.
42
Define **RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR)**.
The range over which a pilot can see runway surface markings or lights ## Footnote It is a key factor in determining landing visibility.
43
What are the **SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE**?
* Initial Approach: Between initial approach fix and intermediate approach fix * Intermediate Approach: Between intermediate approach fix and final approach fix ## Footnote These segments are crucial for structured instrument approaches.
44
What are the **four segments** of an instrument approach procedure?
* Initial Approach * Intermediate Approach * Final Approach * Missed Approach Procedure ## Footnote Each segment has specific roles in the approach procedure.
45
Define **Initial Approach** in an instrument approach procedure.
Segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate approach fix or final approach fix ## Footnote This segment marks the beginning of the approach.
46
Define **Intermediate Approach** in an instrument approach procedure.
Segment between the intermediate approach fix and the final approach fix or point ## Footnote It may also follow a reversal or race track procedure.
47
Define **Final Approach** in an instrument approach procedure.
Segment where alignment and descent for landing are accomplished ## Footnote This is the critical phase just before landing.
48
Define **Missed Approach Procedure**.
Procedure to follow if the approach cannot be continued ## Footnote It ensures safety in case of an aborted landing.
49
What are the types of **snow** on the ground?
* Dry snow * Wet snow * Compacted snow ## Footnote Each type has specific characteristics and specific gravity ranges.
50
Define **STOPWAY**.
Defined rectangular area at the end of take-off run available for stopping an aircraft ## Footnote It must be able to support the aircraft during an abortive takeoff.
51
What is **TODA** (Take-Off Distance Available)?
Length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided ## Footnote It is a critical measurement for takeoff performance.
52
What is **TORA** (Take-Off Run Available)?
Length of runway declared available for the ground run of an airplane taking off ## Footnote This measurement is essential for calculating takeoff distances.
53
Define **Transition Height**.
Height at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in height above the airport reference datum ## Footnote It is crucial for altitude reporting near airports.
54
Define **Transition Layer**.
Airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level ## Footnote Altimeters are set differently for descending and climbing aircraft in this layer.
55
What is the **Transition Level (TL)**?
Lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude ## Footnote It is important for maintaining safe vertical separation.
56
What is a **Fly-by waypoint**?
Requires turn anticipation to avoid overshooting the next flight segment ## Footnote It is used in navigation to ensure smooth transitions.
57
What is a **Fly-over waypoint**?
Precludes any turn until the waypoint is overflown ## Footnote This requires an intercept maneuver for the next flight segment.
58
What does **WAAS** stand for?
Wide Area Augmentation System ## Footnote It provides accurate navigation for civil aviation in all phases of flight.
59
What are the **runway touchdown zone markings** at 500 feet?
Three bars 75 feet long on each side of the centerline ## Footnote These markings indicate the beginning of the fixed distance markers.
60
What is the **maximum validity period of SNOWTAM**?
Reduced from 24 hours to 8 hours ## Footnote If not replaced within this period, it becomes invalid.
61
What does **CAVOK** stand for?
Ceiling And Visibility OK ## Footnote It indicates good weather conditions with specific visibility and cloud criteria.
62
What is the **outbound time in a hold**?
One minute if at or below 4250 m; one and one-half minutes if above 4250 m ## Footnote This timing is crucial for maintaining safe separation in holding patterns.
63
What are the **emergency squawk codes**?
* 7500: Unlawful interference/Hijack * 7600: Communication Failure * 7700: Distress ## Footnote These codes are used to communicate urgent situations to air traffic control.
64
Define **NADP1** in noise abatement procedures.
Power reduction at or above 240 m and delay flap/slat retraction until 900 m ## Footnote This procedure aims to minimize noise during takeoff.
65
Define **NADP2** in noise abatement procedures.
Initiation of flap/slat retraction at or above 240 m but before 900 m ## Footnote It allows for performance optimization while reducing noise.
66
What is the **climb speed** at 450 m (1500 ft) to 900 m (3000 ft)?
V2 + 20 to 40 km/h (V2 + 10 to 20 kt) ## Footnote This speed is maintained during the climb phase.
67
What is the procedure at **300 m (1000 ft)** during NADP B?
* Maintain positive rate of climb * Retract flap on schedule * Reduce thrust to normal climb power/thrust ## Footnote This is part of the climb procedure after take-off.
68
What does a **horizontal white dumb-bell** signal indicate?
* Aircraft must land, take-off, and taxi on runways and taxiways only ## Footnote This signal is used in a signal area for ground operations.
69
What are the **Marshall signals** used for ground operations?
* Wingwalker/guide * Identify Gate * Straight Ahead * Proceed To Next Signalman * Turn * Stop * CHOCKS ON * Do Not Touch Controls * Connect Ground Power ## Footnote These signals are essential for safe ground handling of aircraft.
70
What are the **standard emergency hand signals**?
* Recommended Evacuation * Recommended stop * Emergency contained * FIRE ## Footnote These signals are used to communicate during emergencies.
71
When should a **flight plan** be amended or a new one submitted?
In the event of a delay of: * 30 minutes for controlled flight * 60 minutes for uncontrolled flight ## Footnote This ensures proper communication with air traffic control.
72
What are the **Wake Turbulence Categories** of Aircraft?
* SUPER (J) * HEAVY (H) * MEDIUM (M) * LIGHT (L) ## Footnote These categories help in managing wake turbulence during operations.
73
What is the **time-based wake turbulence longitudinal separation minima** for HEAVY aircraft landing behind SUPER aircraft?
2 minutes ## Footnote This separation time is crucial for safety during landings.
74
What is the **RVSM contingency procedure** if in contact with ATC?
* Follow ATC instructions ## Footnote This is essential for maintaining safety in RVSM airspace.
75
What should be done in the event of **communication failure** in visual meteorological conditions?
* Continue flying in visual conditions * Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome * Report arrival to ATC ## Footnote This protocol ensures safety and communication continuity.
76
What does **SLOP** stand for?
STRATEGIC LATERAL OFFSET PROCEDURES ## Footnote SLOP allows aircraft to fly parallel to the centerline to mitigate wake turbulence.
77
What is the **ACN**?
Aircraft Classification Number ## Footnote ACN expresses the relative effect of an aircraft on pavement.
78
What does **PCN** stand for?
Pavement Classification Number ## Footnote PCN indicates the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations.
79
What is a **Clearway**?
A defined rectangular area for initial climb to a specified screen height ## Footnote Clearway starts at the end of the runway and has specific dimensions.
80
What are the **declared distances** in aviation?
* TORA: Take-off Run Available * TODA: Take-off Distance Available * ASDA: Accelerate Stop Distance Available * LDA: Landing Distance Available ## Footnote These distances are critical for flight planning and safety.
81
What is **transmitting blind**?
A transmission where two-way communication cannot be established but is believed to be received ## Footnote This is often used in emergency situations.
82
What is the maximum altitude one can **undershoot/overshoot** while flying RVSM?
150 ft ## Footnote This limit is crucial for maintaining safe vertical separation.
83
What is **mandatory performance**?
Minimum performance required for Certificate of Airworthiness ## Footnote This ensures that aircraft meet safety standards.
84
What is the difference between **gross performance** and **net performance**?
* Gross Performance: Average expected performance * Net Performance: Performance after accounting for degradation ## Footnote This distinction is important for operational planning.
85
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