August 2025

Question 1

Ashtamudi Lake, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?

Answer 1

Kerala

Explanation :

The Kerala High Court recently directed the State government and the State Wetland Authority Kerala (SWAK) to constitute an Ashtamudi Wetland Management Unit for the conservation of the wetland within two months of a notification being issued for this.

About Ashtamudi Lake:

It is a freshwater lake located in the Kollam District of Kerala.
It is the second largest lake in Kerala, after Vembanad Lake.
It covers an area of around 61.4 sq.km. The lake runs over a length of 16 kilometres.
It is often referred to as the gateway to the backwaters of Kerala.
It is a large palm-shaped (also described as octopus-shaped) water body.
The name ‘Ashtamudi’is adapted from the topography of the lake.‘ Ashta’ means eight, and ‘mudi’ means coned.
The lake gets its name, Ashtamudi, because of its 8 arms or channels.
The lake is fed by several rivers, including the Kallada River.
It eventually drains into the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.
It was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002.
The historical significance of Ashtamudi Lake dates back to the 14th century, when the lake surroundings were the important port connecting the ancient city of Quilon to the rest of the world.
Historical records of the Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta highlights Quilon city, on the banks of Ashtamudi Lake as one of the major trading centers in the ancient period.
Biodiversity:
The wetland supports 57 species of birds (6 migratory and 51 resident species) and 97 species of fish (42 typically marine, 3 estuarine, 9 estuarine-riverine, and 15 marine-estuarine).
The lake supports several endangered and endemic species, such as the pearl spot fish, the mangrove crab, the otter, the water snake, the kingfisher, the egret, the heron, and the cormorant.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kerala-hc-directs-state-government-and-swak-to-constitute-ashtamudi-wetland-management-unit/article69873992.ece

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding African Swine Fever (ASF):

1. It is a highly contagious viral disease affecting pigs and wild boar.
2. Currently, there is no effective vaccine available against ASF.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 2

Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

An outbreak of African Swine Fever (ASF) has been recently confirmed at a pig farm in Ravas Brahmanan village, Patiala, prompting immediate action from district authorities.

About African Swine Fever (ASF):

It is a highly contagious and hemorrhagic viral disease affecting pigs and wild boar.
It does not affect humans, nor does it affect other animal species.
ASF causes a destructive effect on piggery due to high morbidity and mortality (up to 90-100 %).
Originally found throughout sub-Saharan Africa, ASF is now prevalent in many countries in Europe, Asia, and Africa.
In India it was first confirmed in Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in February-March 2020.
Transmission:
It can be transmitted either via direct animal contact or via dissemination of contaminated food (e.g. sausages or uncooked meat).
It can also be spread by soft ticks and through contaminated objects such as vehicles, clothes and equipment.
Symptoms: The clinical symptoms can look very much like those of classical swine fever: fever, weak pigs, lack of appetite, inflamed eye mucous membranes, red skin, (bloody) diarrhea, and vomiting.
Prevention: Currently, there is no effective vaccine available against ASF, so prevention by adopting strict biosecurity measures, such as culling the animals, is the only way to prevent ASF.
Hence both statements are correct.

News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/patiala/asf-outbreak-reported-in-patiala-restrictions-imposed-to-contain-the-disease/

Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Grant in Aid to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) Scheme:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme with an outlay of ₹2 lakh crore.
2. The grant will be used by NCDC for granting loans to Cooperatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 3

2 only

Explanation :

The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, recently approved the Central Sector Scheme “Grant in Aid to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)”

About Grant in Aid to National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) Scheme:

It is a Central Sector Scheme with an outlay of ₹2, 000 crore for a period of four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29 (₹500 crore each year from FY 2025-26).
The grant of ₹2,000 crore will be sourced through budgetary support from the Government of India.
The approved grant will enable NCDC to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market over the next four years.
These funds will be utilised by NCDC for granting loans to Cooperatives for setting up new projects/expansion of plants, and loans for meeting the working capital requirements.
Benefits: Approximately 2.9 crore members of 13,288 Cooperative societies of various sectors like Dairy, Livestock, Fisheries, Sugar, Textile, Food Processing, Storage and Cold Storage; Labour and Women led cooperatives. across the country are likely to get benefitted.
Implementation Strategy and Targets:
NCDC will be the executing agency for this scheme for the purpose of disbursement, follow-up, monitoring of implementation of the project, and recovery of loans disbursed out of the fund.
NCDC will provide loans to cooperatives either through state government or directly, as per NCDC guidelines. Cooperatives that meet the criteria of direct funding guidelines of NCDC would be considered for financial assistance directly against admissible security or a state government guarantee.
NCDC will provide loans to cooperatives, long-term credit for setting up/ modernization/ technology upgradation/ expansion of project facilities for various sectors, and working capital to run their businesses efficiently and profitably.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

News:https://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/cabinet-approves-central-sector-scheme-grant-in-aid-to-national-cooperative-development-corporation-ncdc-with-an-outlay-of-rs-2000-crore/?comment=disable#:~:text=The%20Union%20Cabinet%20chaired%20by,from%20FY%202025%2D26).

Question 4

What is the Doctrine of Merger primarily concerned with?

A.
Unification of laws across Federal and State Governments.

B.
Combining civil and criminal jurisdiction in a single court.

C.
The merger of multiple constitutional amendments into a single bill.

Answer 4

None of the above.

Explanation :

The Supreme Court recently emphasized that the application of the Doctrine of Merger, in every case, should be accompanied by an awareness of its limitations and should not be wielded to close avenues for addressing genuine concerns.

About Doctrine of Merger:

The Doctrine of Merger is a common law doctrine founded on the principle of maintenance of decorum and propriety in the functioning of Courts and Tribunals and preserving the sanctity of the justice delivery system.
It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
The underlying logic being that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject-matter at a given point of time.
The doctrine is not recognized statutorily but is a statement of judicial propriety and seeks to instill discipline in the functioning of subordinate adjudicating authorities, whether judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative.
The applicability of the doctrine of merger entails the existence of a decision of a subordinate court/forum against which a right of appeal/revision before a superior forum/authority exists, which has been exercised and which has either modified, reversed or affirmed the decision of the subordinate authority.
The consequence of such an act would be that the decision of the subordinate authority shall merge with that of the superior forum, which only shall sustain, be operative and capable of being enforced.
The essence of the doctrine of merger is that it is only the decisions of the appellate, revisional or higher authority that subsist and the order under challenge ceases to have an independent existence.
The doctrine solves the issue of which order must be enforced and given importance if there are multiple orders passed by both subordinate and superior courts on a single issue.
It is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of the challenge.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

News: https://www.verdictum.in/court-updates/supreme-court/vishnu-vardhan-v-the-state-of-uttar-pradesh-2025-insc-884-doctrine-of-merger-1585843

Question 5

With reference to the Sabarmati River, consider the following statements:

1. It originates in the Aravalli Mountain Range.
2. The major portion of the river flows through Rajasthan.
3. It finally empties into the Gulf of Khambhat of the Arabian Sea.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 5

Only two

Explanation :

Thirteen stretches of rivers in Gujarat have been officially classified as polluted, with the Sabarmati emerging as the most contaminated, according to data tabled by the Union govt in the Lok Sabha recently.

About Sabarmati River:

It is a monsoon-fed, west-flowing river.
Course:
It originates in the Aravalli Mountain Range in the Udaipur district of the northern Indian state of Rajasthan.
The river is also called Wakal in its initial course.
The river flows in a southwesterly direction across Rajasthan and Gujarat.
It finally empties into the Gulf of Khambhat of the Arabian Sea.
It is about 371 km in length. In Gujarat, the river extends to a length of about 323 km, while in Rajasthan the river has a length of about 48 km.
The Sabarmati basin extends over an area of 21,674 sq.km with a maximum length and width of 300 km and 150 km.
The basin is bounded by Aravalli hills on the north and north-east, by the Rann of Kutch on the west, and by the Gulf of Khambhat on the south.
The major part of the basin is covered with agriculture, accounting for 74.68% of the total area.
The banks of the Sabarmati River have Indian cities like Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar.
It flows north-south through Ahmedabad, bisecting the city into its western and eastern halves.
Major Tributaries: Wakal River, Harnav River, Hathmati River, Watrak River, and Madhumati River.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ahmedabad/sabarmati-most-polluted-river-stretch-in-state/articleshow/123028491.cms

Question 6

Piprahwa relics, associated with Lord Buddha were discovered by:

Answer 6

William Claxton Peppé

Explanation :

The Ministry of Culture, Government of India, proudly announced the historic return of the sacred Piprahwa relics of Lord Buddha to their rightful home in India.

These are associated with the mortal remains of Lord Buddha.
Key Features: The Piprahwa Relics, which include bone fragments, soapstone and crystal caskets, a sandstone coffer, and offerings such as gold ornaments and gemstones. An inscription in Brahmi script on one of the caskets confirms these as relics of the Buddha, deposited by the Sakya clan.
Discovered by: In 1898, William Claxton Peppé, an English estate manager and engineer, during an excavation found a stupa at Piprahwa, just south of Lumbini believed to be the birthplace of Lord Buddha.
The British crown claimed Peppé’s find under the 1878 Indian Treasure Trove Act, and the bone and ash fragments were gifted by the British to King Chulalongkorn of Siam, now Thailand.
The majority of these relics were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata, in 1899.
These are classified as ‘AA’ antiquities under Indian law, prohibiting their removal or sale.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2150352

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding INS Himgiri:

1. It comprises supersonic Surface-to-Surface missile system and medium-Range surface to air missile system.
2. It is a Kolkata class stealth frigate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 7

1 only

Explanation :

Recently, INS Himgiri (Yard 3022) was delivered to the Indian Navy at GRSE, Kolkata.

It is the third ship of Nilgiri Class (Project 17A) and the first of the class built at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE),
It is a reincarnation of the erstwhile INS Himgiri, a Leander-class frigate,that was decommissioned on 06 May 2005 after 30 years of glorious service to the nation.
It is designed by the Warship Design Bureau (WDB) and overseen by the Warship Overseeing Team (Kolkata).
Features of INS Himgiri
P17A ships are fitted with an advanced weapon and sensor suite compared to the P17 (Shivalik) class.
These ships are configured with Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion plants, comprising a diesel engine and gas turbine, that drives a Controllable Pitch Propeller (CPP) on each shaft, and a state-of-the-art Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS).
The weapon suite comprises supersonic Surface-to-Surface missile system, Medium-Range Surface to Air Missile system, rapid-fire Close-in Weapon Systems.
It has indigenous content of 75%, which has involved over 200 MSMEs at GRSE.
P17A frigates reflect a generational leap in indigenous ship design, stealth, survivability, and combat capability.
Significance: Delivery of Himgiri showcases the design, ship construction and engineering prowess of the nation, and reflects Indian Navy’s unrelenting focus on Aatmanirbharta in both ship design and shipbuilding.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2150864

Question 8

With reference to Supply and Use Tables, consider the following:

1. It represents a detailed snapshot of all economic activities taking place in the economy.
2. It captures the total supply of goods and services only from domestic production.
3. It is prepared by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 8

Only Two

Explanation :

Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the ‘Supply and Use Tables of 2020-21 and 2021-22’.

It represents a detailed snapshot of all economic activities taking place in the economy.
They are powerful analytical tools that present the structure of an economy as well as interlinkages among the various economic actors.
Purpose of Supply and Use Tables
They serve multiple purposes and have gained prominence due to their statistical robustness and analytical flexibility.
They offer a comprehensive framework that integrates the three approaches to measuring Gross Domestic Product (GDP)—production, income, and expenditure within a unified structure.
SUT is a very powerful tool for comparing and reconciling data from diverse sources, thereby improving the coherence and consistency between production and expenditure estimates.
Supply and Use Tables (SUT) are presented as two interlinked matrices: the Supply Table and the Use Table, structured in a product-by-industry matrix.
The Supply Table captures the total supply of goods and services, both from domestic production by industry and from imports.
In contrast, the Use Table records the utilization of these products across various components—intermediate consumption by industries, final consumption, gross capital formation, and exports.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2150113

Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding UN Women:

1. It is the United Nations (UN) entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of women.
2. It provides grants to fuel innovative, high-impact programmes by government agencies through Fund for Gender Equality.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 9

Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

Recently, the UN Women celebrated its 15th anniversary.

It is the United Nations (UN) entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of women.
It was created in July 2010 by the UN General Assembly.
The main roles of UN Women are:
To support inter-governmental bodies, such as the Commission on the Status of Women, in their formulation of policies, global standards, and norms.
To help member states implement these standards, standing ready to provide suitable technical and financial support to those countries that request it, and to forge effective partnerships with civil society.
To lead and coordinate the UN system’s work on gender equality as well as promote accountability, including through regular monitoring of system-wide progress.
It works globally to make the vision of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG’s) a reality for women and girls and stands behind women’s equal participation in all aspects of life.
Within countries that request its assistance, UN Women works with government and non-governmental partners to help them put in place the policies, laws, services, and resources that women require to move towards equality.
Grant-making Funds: UN Women provides grants to fuel innovative, high-impact programmes by government agencies and civil society groups through two funds—the Fund for Gender Equality and the UN Trust Fund to End Violence against Women.
Commission on the Status of Women (CSW): A global policy-making body, the CSW is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), dedicated exclusively to gender equality and the advancement of women.
It maintains the UN Secretary-General’s database on violence against women, which tracks measures to end violence taken by UN Member States and UN organizations.
Hence both statements are correct.

News: https://news.un.org/en/story/2025/07/1165522

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Darwin’s Frog:

1. It has leaf-like skin whose males carry tadpoles within pouches in their mouths.
2. It is native to the forest streams of Chile and Argentina.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 10

Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

Recently, Chile has launched a new effort to save the endangered Darwin’s frog.

Darwin’s frog (Rhinoderma darwinii ), also called the southern Darwin’s frog.
Features of Darwin’s Frog
It is unique among amphibians for its brooding habits.
It is a tiny amphibian with leaf-like skin whose males carry tadpoles within pouches in their mouths.
It is a diurnal creature, meaning it sleeps at night and is mostly active during daytime.
When threatened by predators, the frog plays dead. It lays very still on the forest floor or floating in a stream.
It measures 3 cm (1.18 inches), was discovered in Chile’s southern Chiloe islands by Charles Darwin during his 1834 trip around the world.
Distribution: It is a rhinodermatid frog native to the forest streams of Chile and Argentina.
Habitat: It is found in a variety of vegetation types and it appears that a mixture of grassland, mossy areas, coarse woody debris, and young trees and bushes in a mature native forest provides its optimum habitat requirements.
Diet: Darwin’s frog feeds on insects and other arthropods.
It actually comprises two: the endangered Rhinoderma darwinii (Southern Darwin’s frog) and the Rhinoderma rufum (Northern Darwin’s frog), which is categorized as “critically endangered” and has already virtually disappeared.
Threats: Forest fires, climate change, invasive species and urbanization have hurt the humid forests of southern Chile and Argentina where the Darwin’s frog typically lives.
Hence both statements are correct.

News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/chile-takes-new-steps-to-save-endangered-darwins-frog/article69878357.ece

Question 11

INS Satpura, recently seen in the news is a:

Answer 11

stealth multi-role frigate
Explanation :

Indian naval ship Satpura recently arrived in Singapore to participate in a bilateral maritime exercise.

About INS Satpura:

It is an indigenous Shivalik-class stealth multi-role frigate.
Built by Mumbai’s Mazagaon Docks Ltd, INS Satpura was delivered to the Indian Navy on 9th July 2011 and was officially commissioned on 20th August 2011.
It is the second ship under the Project 17 program.
It is a frontline warship of the Eastern Fleet of the Indian Navy based at Visakhapatnam.
Features:
It has a length of 142.5 m, a beam of 16.9 m and a draught of 4.5 m.
Powered by two French Pielstick diesel engines and two General Electric LM-2500 gas turbines, the multi-role frigate is capable of cruising at a maximum speed of 32 knots.
Moreover, INS Satpura displaces about 4,900 tonnes at normal load and 6,200 tonnes at full load.
The vessel has the capacity to accommodate around 257 people, including 35 officers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/ins-satpura-arrives-singapore-to-take-part-in-bilateral-maritime-exercise-101753886544703.html

Question 12

Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following States?

Answer 12

Rajasthan

Explanation :

The Rajasthan Forest Department recently altered the boundaries of Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary (NWS), reportedly benefiting luxury hotels and commercial establishments within the sanctuary and its Eco Sensitive Zone (ESZ).

About Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary:

It is located just 20 kilometres from Jaipur, Rajasthan.
It encompasses a large area of 720 hectares and is situated under the Aravalli range.
The sanctuary is named after Nahargarh Fort, a historic fort built in the 18th century by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II, the founder of Jaipur.
Nahargarh Biological Park, a part of the Nahargarh sanctuary, is famous for the lion safaris.
Flora: The vegetation comprises dry deciduous forests, scrublands, and grasslands.
Fauna:
Common species include leopards, wild boars, deer, lions, tigers, sloth bears, and several small mammals.
It’s a haven for bird watchers, with a variety of species, including peacocks, owls, and eagles.
In addition to mammals and birds, the sanctuary is home to reptiles like Indian rock pythons, monitor lizards, and amphibians like frogs and toads.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/boundaries-of-nahargarh-sanctuary-redrawn-without-wildlife-board-nod/articleshow/123029796.cms

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding Bluebird Satellite:

1. It is an advanced communications satellite.
2. It was developed by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 13

1 only

Explanation :

The ISRO is hoping to launch the Block 2 BlueBird communications satellite, developed by the U.S.-based AST SpaceMobile, in three to four months from now.

About Bluebird Satellite:

It is an advanced American communications satellite.
It was developed by the U.S.-based AST SpaceMobile.
The Bluebird satellite boasts revolutionary technology that will enable individuals to make calls using smartphones from space.
With an innovative antenna spanning 64 square meters and a weight of approximately 6,000 kilograms, the satellite will operate in low Earth orbit, facilitating direct satellite-to-smartphone connections.
This capability will allow users to make calls and access broadband internet from space without relying on traditional ground-based towers.
The BlueBird satellites’ beams are designed to support a capacity of up to 40 MHz, enabling peak data transmission speeds of up to 120 Mbps.
After launch, the BlueBird satellites are planned to offer non-continuous cellular broadband service across the United States and in select markets globally.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/after-nisar-isro-gearing-up-for-next-us-collaboration-with-bluebird-communications-satellite-launch/article69882412.ece

Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the Oreshnik Missile:

1. It is a Russian-made supersonic cruise missile.
2. It has a reported range of approximately 5,000 kilometers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 14

2 only

Explanation :

Russian President Vladimir Putin recently announced that Russia has begun production of its latest hypersonic missile, the Oreshnik, and reaffirmed plans to deploy it in Belarus before the end of 2025.

About Oreshnik Missile:

It is a Russian intermediate-range hypersonic ballistic missile.
This high-velocity missile, named after the Russian word for “hazel tree,” was first launched operationally on November 21, 2024, in a precision strike targeting the Pivdenmash defence-industrial facility in Dnipro, Ukraine.
Its hypersonic speed, mid-flight manoeuvrability, and multiple warheads make it particularly hard to intercept, even with advanced missile defence systems.
Features:
It is a mobile, solid-fueled missile.
It is capable of reaching speeds of Mach 10—ten times the speed of sound.
The system is reportedly capable of carrying multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to strike several distinct targets simultaneously with either conventional or nuclear warheads.
It has a reported range of approximately 5,000 kilometers (3,100 miles).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/putin-says-oreshnik-hypersonic-missile-now-operational-to-be-deployed-in-belarus-glbs-2765076-2025-08-02

Question 15

With reference to Mithun, consider the following statements:

1. It is a heavily built, semi-domesticated bovine species.
2. Arunachal Pradesh has the highest population of Mithun.
3. It is classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 15

All three

Explanation :

Scientists and tribal farmers from the Northeast have jointly raised a request to the Central government to include Mithun (Bos frontalis) under key central sector schemes such as the National Livestock Mission (NLM).

About Mithun:

The Mithun, or gayal (Bos frontalis), is a heavily built, semi-domesticated bovine species.
Mithun is believed to have originated more than 8000 years ago and is considered to be a descendent of wild Indian gaur, or bison.
It is known as the ‘cattle of the mountain’.
Distribution:
The highest concentration of mithuns in the world is spread over the North Eastern (NE) region of India, with Arunachal Pradesh having the highest population.
It is also found in parts of Southeast Asia, viz., Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Bhutan.
The geographic zone is covered with tropical evergreen rain forests.
It is the state animal of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
The ‘Soulung’ festival is observed annually by the Adi tribes of Arunachal Pradesh to commemorate the birth and arrival of Mithun on this earth.
Features:
Mithun appears somewhat similar to that of the Guar (Indian bison) but is smaller in size.
Like Guars, they are strongly built, large-sized fleshy animals with an average weight of 400-650 kg.
The characteristic feature of Mithun lies in the head, which has a well-developed, broad frontal bone with a flat-shaped face, and from the front view, it appears like an inverted triangle from where two horns emerge from the lateral sides.
Horn colour varies from whitish yellow to salty black in most animals.
The skin color of the head and body is blackish-brown in both sexes, and the forehead is creamy white or yellowish in color.
They move in small groups with one or two males and several females and calves.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option c is the correct answer.

News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/mithun-inclusion-national-livestock-mission-northeast-tribal-farmers-1254224-2025-08-01

Question 16

Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) Project, recently in news is related to:

Answer 16

sequencing the genomes of eukaryotic organisms

Explanation :

The first phase of the Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) project is almost complete.

It aims to sequence the genomes of 70,000 species of eukaryotic organisms in Britain and Ireland.
It is one of several initiatives across the globe working towards the ultimate goal of sequencing all complex life on Earth, in a venture known as the Earth BioGenome Project.
It will carefully collect representatives of each species, and use advanced DNA sequencing technologies to generate high quality genome sequences.
It also uses cutting edge computational tools to understand how the DNA sequence translates into the diversity of life.
It is a collaborative project between ten biodiversity, genomics and analysis partners.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

News: https://www.economist.com/science-and-technology/2025/07/31/scientists-want-to-sequence-all-animals-fungi-and-plants-on-earth

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding Human Outer Planet Exploration (HOPE) station:

1. It is an analogue site which mimics the geological and environmental conditions found on the Moon and Mars.
2. It is established in Ladakh’s Tso Kar region to conduct critical research for future crewed interplanetary journeys.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 17

Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

Bengaluru-based space tech company Protoplanet, along with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), has developed the analogue station, called the Human Outer Planet Exploration (HOPE) station in Ladakh’s Tso Kar region.

HOPE is an analogue site, closely mimicking the geological and environmental conditions found on the Moon and Mars.
It is developed by Bengaluru-based space tech company Protoplanet, along with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), has developed the analogue station.
It is developed with the aim of conducting “critical research for future crewed interplanetary journeys”.
The site at Tso Kar, located at an altitude of over 14,500 feet, was chosen because of its terrain and environment, which closely mimics conditions on the Moon and Mars
An analogue research station is a site with conditions closest to a planet or planetary body with regard to the topography, environment, etc.
These stations usually act as testing grounds for relevant technologies, help advance technology readiness levels (TRL) and engineering integration, and facilitate human studies, crew training and research around geological, geomorphological, habitability, and life detection.
Currently, there are 33 analogue research stations in the world. Some of the prominent ones are the BIOS-3 in Russia, HERA at the US’ Johnson Space Centre, SHEE in Europe, and the Mars Desert Research Station (MDRS) in the US’ Utah.
Significance to India: The station marks a significant step towards India’s human space exploration ambitions, helping scientists and researchers understand the physiological and psychological aspects of long-duration space travel.
Hence both statements are correct.

News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/station-in-ladakh-begins-research-to-simulate-life-on-moon-mars/article69878761.ece

Question 18

With reference to Red Panda, consider the following statements:

1. It is primarily an herbivorous, solitary and arboreal animal.
2. It is considered an indicator species for ecological change.
3. It is endemic to the Western Himalayan region of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 18

Only Two

Explanation :

Recently, under a conservation programme at the Himalayan Zoological Park near Sikkim’s capital, Gangtok red panda cubs were born after a 7 years gap.

It is also known as the lesser panda which is primarily a herbivorous, shy, solitary and arboreal animal.
It uses its long, bushy tails for balance and to cover them in winter, presumably for warmth.
It is considered an indicator species for ecological change.
Appearance: It is the size of a house cat, the red panda is famous for its cute face and adorable defense stance.
Distribution: It is mainly found in the mountainous forests of Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I
Threats: The loss of nesting trees and bamboo in the Eastern Himalayas which is causing a decline in red panda populations across much of their range.
What are Indicator Species?

Indicator species are a species, or group of species, that reflect the biotic or abiotic state of an environment.
They reveal the possible evidence and impact of environmental change, and indicate the diversity of other species, taxa, or entire communities within an area.
Indicator species can provide an early warning of environmental changes.
They can be used to assess the health of an environment or ecosystem – they are often termed ‘bioindicators’.
They can be a useful management tool.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/after-7-years-red-panda-cubs-born-in-sikkim-zoo/article69883264.ece

Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Liver Cirrhosis:

1. It is advanced scarring of the liver caused by diseases.
2. It can be treated only if diagnosed in the earlier stage of infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 19

Both 1 and 2

Explanation :

A team of scientists from Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS) New Delhi, and National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) Guwahati found a new approach to treat liver cirrhosis.

Cirrhosis is advanced scarring of the liver caused by many diseases and conditions.
At this stage, a significant amount of healthy liver tissue has turned to scar tissue. Scarring comes from long-term inflammation in liver
It is accompanied by distortion of both blood and lymphatic vessels in the liver and intestine.
Causes: Some of the common causative factors include alcohol, NASH (Non-alcoholic Steato-Hepatitis) and hepatitis B and C viral infections.
Cirrhosis often has no symptoms until liver damage is serious. When symptoms do happen, they may include: extreme tiredness, easily bleeding or bruising, loss of appetite, swelling in the legs, feet or ankles, called edema etc.
Treatment of liver cirrhosis: Cirrhosis can be treated if diagnosed early. Both hepatitis B and C can be Abstinence from alcohol can also improve liver disease to some extent controlled or cured with medication.
Hence both statements are correct.

News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2151269#:~:text

Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Burma Ramsar Regional Initiative:

1. It was jointly developed by India and Cambodia.
2. It is supported by IUCN’s Building River Dialogue and Governance project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 20

2 only

Explanation :

Recently, the Ramsar COP15 concluded with a side event of Indo-Burma Ramsar Regional Initiative (IBRRI) for wetland conservation and restoration.

It was jointly developed by the Ramsar National Focal Points (NFPs) Cambodia, Lao People’s Democratic Republic (PDR), Myanmar, Thailand and Viet Nam, and IUCN’s Asia Regional Office.
It is supported by IUCN’s BRIDGE (Building River Dialogue and Governance) project.
It aims to support the coordinated implementation of the objectives of the Strategic Plan of the Ramsar Convention.
To ensure oversight and transparency in the management of the IBRRI, the initiative has established a governance structure with representatives from both government and non‐governmental organisations:
Steering Committee: It includes representatives from Ramsar Administrative Authorities from the five countries.
Secretariat: It is hosted by the IUCN Asia Regional Office in Bangkok.
Stakeholder Committee provides technical and strategic guidance as a platform for inclusive, transparent and multi-stakeholder engagement in IBBRI activities.
The IBRRI officially launched its Strategic Plan 2025–2030 during a side event at the 15th Meeting of the Conference of the Contracting Parties to the Ramsar Convention.
The Plan sets out a collaborative, transboundary framework to halt and reverse the loss of wetlands across its Member States.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

News: https://iucn.org/news/202507/ramsar-cop15-concludes-strengthened-global-commitment-wetland-restoration-and-inclusive

Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Apna Ghar Initiative:

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
2. It aims to provide comfortable and hygienic resting spaces for truckers across major highways.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 21

2 only

Explanation :

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas recently launched an ambitious initiative named ‘Apna Ghar’ aimed at improving truckers’ long-haul journeys across the country.

About Apna Ghar Initiative:

It is an initiative of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India.
It aims to provide comfortable and hygienic resting spaces for truckers across major highways in the country.
As of July 1, 2025, a total of 368 ‘Apna Ghar’ units with 4,611 beds have been set up by Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) at retail fuel outlets along national and state highways.
The facilities at ‘Apna Ghar’ include:
Dormitories (10-30) beds
Restaurants/Dhabas
Self-cooking areas
Clean toilets
Dedicated bathing areas (Houdas)
Purified drinking water facilities
Other Features:
Tech Integration: ‘Apna Ghar’ mobile application introduced for reservations, reviews, and driver interaction.
Public-Private Execution: Developed and overseen by OMCs at retail fuel outlets.
User-Focused Design: Tailored to the requirements of truckers, guided by their feedback and insights from mobile app data analysis.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2150823

Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding Krasheninnikov Volcano:

1. It is an active stratovolcano.
2. It is located in Poland.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 22

1 only

Explanation :

The eruption of the Krasheninnikov volcano was recently recorded for the first time.

About Krasheninnikov Volcano:

It is an active complex volcano located in the Eastern Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia.
The Kamchatka Peninsula lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire.”
There are 114 volcanoes on the Kamchatka Peninsula that have erupted during the Holocene Epoch (approximately 12,000 years ago to the present).
Krasheninnikov is a stratovolcano and reaches a height of 1,886 meters.
The volcano is located in a collapsed caldera, which formed after a catastrophic eruption which produced 50 cubic km of dacitic pumice 39,600 years ago.
It is made up of two eruptive cones in a 9 km wide caldera.
The southern cone of Krasheninnikov contains a crater 800 m wide and 140 m deep.
Its last eruption took place about 400 or 600 years ago.
2025 Eruption: Krasheninnikov volcano erupted on 2 August 2025, three days after a nearby magnitude 8.8 earthquake. Ash emissions reached an altitude of 20,000 ft.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/krasheninnikov-volcano-erupts-in-kamchatka-for-the-first-time/articleshow/123070807.cms

Question 23

Who chaired the 2014 National Commission for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes?

Answer 23

Bhiku Ramji Idate

Explanation :

Calls are growing for the establishment of a permanent national commission for Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes with the issue finding primacy in discussions at the national conference of Denotified Tribes (DNTs) held recently in New Delhi.

About De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNT/NT/SNTs):

Denotified Tribes (DNT) also known as Vimukta Jati, are the tribes that were listed originally under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 as criminal tribes.
Once a tribe becomes “Notified” as criminal, all its members were required to register with the local magistrates, failing which they would be charged with a ‘crime’ under the Indian Penal Code.
After Independence, this Act was repealed in 1952, and the communities were “denotified”, hence the name.
Nomadic Tribes are the communities who usually do not have land and move from one place to another for livelihood.
The DNT/NT/SNTs are among the most neglected, marginalised, and economically deprived communities.
Historically, these communities never had access to private land or home ownership and used forests and grazing lands for their livelihood and residential use.
Status of DNT/NT/SNTs in India:
In India, roughly 10 percent of the population is Denotified and Nomadic.
While the number of Denotified Tribes is about 150, the population of Nomadic Tribes consists of about 500 different communities.
In 2014, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment constituted a National Commission for DNT/NT/SNTs under the chairmanship of Bhiku Ramji Idate for a period of three years-
to prepare a State-wise list of castes belonging to DNT/NT/SNTs
to suggest appropriate measures in respect of Denotified and Nomadic Tribes that may be undertaken by the Central Government or the State Government.
In 2017, the commission prepared draft lists of DNT/NT/SNTs.
Based on the Commission’s recommendations, the ministry constituted the Development and Welfare Board for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities (DWBDNCs) in 2019.
The Board has been mandated to formulate and implement welfare and development programmes for these communities.
The Renke Commission (2008) was earlier commissioned to identify and list the DNT communities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/142374/OPS/GE8ENE2FN.1+GQ8ENG312.1.html

Question 24

Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Mahanadi River?

Seonath

B.
Hasdeo

C.
Pranahita

D.
Tel

Answer 24

Pranahita

Explanation :

After a prolonged legal battle over sharing Mahanadi River water in a designated tribunal, Odisha and Chhattisgarh have now expressed willingness to resolve the dispute amicably between themselves.

About Mahanadi River:

It is one of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers located in the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
It ranks second to the Godavari River among the peninsular rivers in respect of water potential.
Course:
Origin: The river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh.
It then flows in the eastward direction, cutting a ravine in the Eastern Ghat.
Before joining the Bay of Bengal at False Point through several channels near the major seaport town of Paradip, the river enters the plains of Odisha near Cuttack and forms a delta.
Length: 860 km
The river is bounded in the north by Central India hills, in the south and east by the Eastern Ghats, and in the west by the Maikal hill range.
The Mahanadi basin extends over the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and comparatively smaller portions of Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh, draining an area of 1,41,589 sq.km., which is nearly 4.3% of the total geographical area of the country.
It passes through several major cities and towns, including Raipur, Sambalpur, and Cuttack.
It is considered to be one of the most active silt-depositing streams in India.
Tributaries: Its main tributaries are Seonath, Jonk, Hasdeo, Mand, Ib, Ong, and Tel.
Hirakud Dam:
The Hirakud Dam, the world’s longest earthen dam (26 km), is constructed across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha.
The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and power generation.
Chilika Lake: Chilika, named a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, gets 61% of its inland flow from the Mahanadi River system, mainly from its distributaries – Daya and Bhargabi.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/odisha-chhattisgarh-express-willingness-to-resolve-mahanadi-water-dispute-amicably/article69887063.ece

Question 25

What is the primary aim of the Market Coupling model in electricity trading? A. To provide subsidies for renewable energy projects B. To reduce the number of power exchanges C. To facilitate competition between power exchanges

Answer 25

None of the above. Explanation : The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission’s (CERC) proposed implementation of market coupling in the Day Ahead Market (DAM) segment of power exchanges from January 2026 may have little benefit for the power sector, according to industry officials and analysts. About Market Coupling: Market coupling is an economic model used in energy markets to create a single, uniform price for electricity across different trading platforms or exchanges. India has three power exchanges—Indian Energy Exchange (IEX), Power Exchange India Limited (PXIL), and Hindustan Power Exchange Limited (HPX). These are voluntary markets, and each of them collects buy and sell bids on their own and, thus, comes up with their own market clearing prices (MCPs). In simple terms, currently, each power exchange has a different cost of electricity, even though they usually differ from each other only by a few paisa. Market coupling is a model where buy bids and sell bids from all power exchanges in the country will be aggregated and matched to discover a uniform MCP. It means there will be only one price for the electricity that is to be traded at any point of time through these exchanges. If implemented, power exchanges will be rendered as a platform where only buy and sell bids will be received and power dispatched to the buyer. Advantages: It can be used to improve the efficiency and integration of multiple interconnected markets in the electricity sector. This could potentially enable higher utilisation and reduce energy loss. It can help enhance market liquidity by allowing participants to trade electricity across borders. This also helps boost the number of participants and the overall trading volumes in the power market. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/market-coupling-in-dam-segment-of-power-exchanges-may-have-little-benefit/article69886643.ece

Question 26

River Kopili, recently in news, flows through:

Answer 26

Meghalaya and Assam Explanation : Recently, in a historic step towards the revival of Assam’s river-based trade and sustainable logistics, National Waterway-57 (River Kopili) was operationalized. It is one of the important major tributaries of the Brahmaputra on its left bank. Origin: The River Kopili rises in the Saipong Reserve Forest of North Cachar Hills District in Borail Range at an altitude of 1525 meter. Its total length is 256 km of which 78 km from the common border of Meghalaya and Assam and the remaining 178 km lie in Assam. It is an interstate river in Northeast India that flows through the states of Meghalaya and Assam. It is the largest south bank tributary of the Brahmaputra in Assam. The river covers a vast area of North Cachar Hill, Karbi Anglong, Nagaon, and Morigaon District. Here, mainly sixth types of crops produced at Kamrup district and surrounding area, like - Winter Rice, summer rice, rape seed, and wheat, Mustard, Autumn Rice etc. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2151729

Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding Matri Van’ Initiative: 1. It is an initiative under the ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ Programme of Government of India. 2. It is a theme based urban forest dedicated to nurturing generations through mother-nature-inspired green efforts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 27

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, along with Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs presided over the ceremonial launched the ‘Matri Van’ initiative. It is an initiative under the ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ Programme of Government of India. It is a theme based urban forest dedicated to nurturing generations through mother-nature-inspired green efforts - would be developed in an area of 750 acres in the Aravalli Hill area. It is envisioned as a unique ecological and cultural space that will contribute to biodiversity, public well-being, and urban sustainability. This vision would be achieved through a multi-stakeholder collaboration involving CSR partners, Resident Welfare Associations (RWAs), NGOs, multinational corporations (MNCs), school children and government organizations. The main components of the ‘Matri Van’ would include removal of existing bushes like Kabuli Kikar (Prosopis juliflora) and plantation of Dhak/Amaltash Trees along Gurugram-Faridabad Road, while creating theme-based Plantation Groves to restore local ecology in the Aravallis. It would further include nature trails, cycle track, yoga places, sitting places/gazebos, public facilities, parking at four corners, treated water irrigation system/misting/sprinkling, waterbodies at selected locations for conservation of water and to check urban flooding. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2151693

Question 28

With reference to Alpine musk deer, consider the following: 1. It is generally solitary and a crepuscular animal. 2. It inhabits in coniferous and deciduous forests in the mountain regions. 3. It is found both in Europe and Asia. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 28

Only Two Explanation : A Central Zoo Authority report reveals a mix-up in identifying the Alpine musk deer for conservation breeding, mistakenly initiating programs for the Himalayan musk deer instead. The Alpine musk deer (Moschus chrysogaster) is a musk deer species found only in Asia. It is not a true deer, but rather its family is closely related to Bovidae, the group that contains antelopes, bovines, sheep, and goats. It is generally solitary and a crepuscular animal. Habitat: It inhabits in coniferous and deciduous forests in the mountain regions at elevations of 3,000–5,000 m. Diet: It is a ruminant herbivore, foremost a browser and feeds mainly on forbs, grasses, moss, lichens, and shoots, leaves and twigs of shrubs. Distribution: It is mainly found in India, Nepal, Bhutan and China. Conservation Status IUCN: Endangered CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Threats: The main threat to the Alpine musk deer is poaching for its musk, which is used in cosmetic products. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/mistaken-identity

Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority: 1. It was established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. It promotes investor awareness and financial protection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 29

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) is in the final phase of testing its Integrated Portal, a unified digital platform designed to streamline claim processes and enhance accessibility for both investors and companies. The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was established in 2016 under the Companies Act, 2013. It manages the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) and promotes investor awareness and financial protection. Make refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors and promote awareness among investors. It is dedicated to safeguarding investor interests by facilitating the return of unclaimed shares and dividends and advancing financial literacy nationwide. Initiatives: Through flagship initiatives such as Niveshak Didi, Niveshak Panchayat, and Niveshak Shivir, IEPFA empowers individuals to make informed financial choices and fosters a financially aware citizenry. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs The IEPF consists of amounts that remained unclaimed for 7 years, including: Unpaid dividends, Application money is due for refund, Matured deposits and debentures, Interest on investments from the fund, Grants or donations received from the government or other entities Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2151474

Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Programme: 1. It provides dialysis services free of cost to Below Poverty Line (BPL) beneficiaries. 2. Its implementation does not involve any private entities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 30

1 only Explanation : The Government of India has significantly expanded the reach of the Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Programme (PMNDP) and it is now operational across all 36 States and Union Territories, covering 751 districts. It was rolled out in 2016 to provide dialysis services free of cost to Below Poverty Line (BPL) beneficiaries at the district hospitals in the country. It is being implemented under the National Health Mission (NHM) to provide free dialysis services to patients suffering from end-stage kidney failure in Public Private Partnership (PPP) mode. Components: The programme supports both Haemodialysis and Peritoneal Dialysis services. Under this initiative he PMNDP portal was launched which will integrate all the dialysis centres operational in the state under NHM and facilitate building of renal registry and ensuring portability within the state (one state one dialysis) and later throughout the country (One Nation-One Dialysis). Funding: The NHM provides financial assistance to States and UTs for establishing and operating dialysis centres to ensure equitable access to kidney care services for all, regardless of geography. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/pm-national-dialysis-programme-expanded-to-751-districts-across-india/

Question 31

HQ-16 Missile, recently seen in the news, is a surface-to-air missile (SAM) developed by which country?

Answer 31

China Explanation : The United States military publicly unveiled a mockup of a Chinese HQ-16 surface-to-air missile system, drawing attention at this year’s Experimental Aircraft Association ‘AirVenture Show’ in Oshkosh, Wisconsin. About HQ-16 Missile: The HQ-16, known by its NATO designation CH-SA 16, is a medium-range surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by China and based heavily on Russia’s Buk missile family. It is designed to engage enemy aircraft, cruise missiles, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles. Features: HQ-16 features a vertical launch system, giving it 360-degree coverage and the capability to fire in a complicated geographical environment. The missile system is mounted on a Chinese-designed 6x6 high mobility chassis instead of tracked platforms, providing ease of maintenance and better road mobility. Each launch vehicle carries up to 6 missiles. The missile weighs 650 kg, has a length of 5.2 m and a diameter of 0.34 m. It can intercept flying aerial targets at altitudes of 15 km to 18 km. The maximum interception range for aircraft is 40 km, between 3.5 km and 12 km for cruise missiles flying at 300 m/s. The missile guidance system comprises inertial guidance and semi-active radar homing at the terminal phase. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/chinese-hq-16-missile-system-spotted-in-wisconsin/

Question 32

The Sawalkote Hydropower Project, recently seen in the news, is proposed on which river?

Answer 32

Chenab River Explanation : Months after India put the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) on hold, it is now moving to revive a long-stalled Sawalkote hydropower project on the Chenab — first envisioned six decades ago but held back by the very treaty with Pakistan. About Sawalkote Hydropower Project: It is a 2,185 megawatt (MW) run-of-the-river hydroelectric plant proposed on the Chenab River in the Ramban District of Jammu and Kashmir. It will be the largest hydroelectric project in the Union Territory and one of the biggest in North India. The project was first conceptualised in the 1980s and revised several times due to environmental and technical concerns. The project, to be executed by National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) Ltd in collaboration with Jammu and Kashmir State Power Development Corporation Limited (JKSPDC), is estimated to cost ₹22,704 crore The project would feature a 192.5-metre roller-compacted concrete gravity dam. It is expected to generate over 7,000 million units of electricity annually. It is expected to enhance power availability in the Union Territory, especially during winters when electricity shortages are frequent. It also has the potential to turn J-K into a power-surplus region, creating scope for exporting surplus energy to the national grid. By regulating the flow of the Chenab River, the Sawalkote project could contribute to flood mitigation downstream, while also ensuring better water management for agriculture and domestic use. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/india-after-indus-waters-treaty-pause-chenab-sawalkote-dam-international-tender-hydropower-pakistan-2764173-2025-07-31

Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding Lyme Disease, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the skin, nervous system, heart, and joints. 2. It is transmitted to humans primarily through mosquito bites. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 33

1 only Explanation : American singer Justin Timberlake has announced that he was battling Lyme disease during his recently wrapped up world tour. About Lyme Disease: It is a bacterial infection that can be spread to humans by infected ticks. It is caused by the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi. It primarily affects the skin, nervous system, heart, and joints. It was named after the town of Lyme, Connecticut, United States, where it was first identified in children in 1976. It is most commonly reported in North America, Europe, and some parts of Asia. It’s also known as Lyme borreliosis. Transmission: It’s transmitted (spread) to humans through a tick bite. Not all tick bites cause Lyme disease. Only deer ticks (also called black-legged ticks) can spread the bacteria that cause Lyme disease. These ticks are commonly found in wooded or grassy areas worldwide, particularly during warmer months. It cannot spread between humans, from pets to humans, through air, food, water, or lice, mosquitoes, fleas, and flies also do not transmit it. Symptoms: Lyme disease occurs in stages. The signs and symptoms of each stage can overlap. Typical symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. Untreated Lyme disease can cause severe arthritis and damage the heart and nervous system. Treatment: Most cases are treatable with antibiotics although recovery can take time, especially for those who are left undiagnosed in the early stages. Even after treatment, some symptoms may linger. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.ndtv.com/lifestyle/justin-timberlake-diagnosed-with-lyme-disease-all-you-need-to-know-about-it-8997470

Question 34

Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. South Korea 3. Russia 4. North Korea How many of the above countries surround the Sea of Japan?

Answer 34

Only three Explanation : China and Russia began joint naval drills in the Sea of Japan recently. About Sea of Japan: The Sea of Japan, or East Sea, is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. It is bound by Japan and Sakhalin (Sakhalin Oblast, Russia) to the east and by mainland Russia, North Korea, and South Korea to the west. It covers an area of 978,000 sq.km. The sea is almost elliptical, having its major axis from southwest to northeast. It is connected with the East China Sea in the south via the Tsushima and Korea straits and with the Okhotsk Sea in the north by the La Perouse and Tatar straits. In the east, it is connected with the Inland Sea of Japan via the Kanmon Strait and the Pacific Ocean by the Tsugaru Strait. The average depth is 1,667 meters. Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point. Its relatively warm waters contribute greatly to the mild climate of Japan. Few rivers discharge into the sea, and their total contribution to the water exchange is within 1%. Its water balance is mostly determined by the inflow and outflow through the straits connecting it to the neighboring seas and the Pacific Ocean. Like the Mediterranean Sea, it has almost no tides due to its nearly complete enclosure from the Pacific Ocean. The sea has no large islands, bays, or capes. Except for the South Korean island of Ulleungdo, all the other small islands are situated near the eastern coast of the sea. The sea is known for its high concentration of oxygen (dissolved in the seawater), which results in high biological productivity. Mining for mineral deposits like magnetite, natural gas, and petroleum are some of the major economic activities that are carried out in the Sea of Japan. Ports: Russia: Vladivostok, Sovetskaya Gavan, Nakhodka, Alexandrovsk-Sakhalinsky, and Kholmsk. North Korea: Hamhung, Chongjin, and Wonsan. Japan: Niigata, Tsuruta, and Maizuru. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/china-and-russia-joint-drills-in-sea-of-japan/article69889514.ece

Question 35

With reference to the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), consider the following: 1. It is directly under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. Its motto is "Protection and Security". 3. It is a compensatory cost force, which means that it bills its clients for the services it provides. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 35

All three Explanation : The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recently approved the recruitment of 58,000 additional personnel for the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), anticipating future industrial hubs in areas now affected by Left Wing Extremism (LWE). About Central Industrial Security Force (CISF): It is a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) in India. It is directly under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, and its headquarters are in New Delhi. Motto: "Protection and Security" Establishment: The CISF came into existence in 1969 through the CISF Act 1968 with a sanctioned strength of only three battalions. The original charter of CISF was to provide integrated security cover to certain sensitive public sector undertakings. The Act was amended in 1983 declaring the CISF as an Armed Force of the Union. The force has since grown into a premier multi-skilled organization with a present strength of more than 188,000 personnel. The CISF at present provides security cover to 359 establishments across the country. Organisation Structure: CISF is headed by an Indian Police Service officer with the rank of Director-General, assisted by an IPS officer in the rank of Addl. Director-General. The force is divided into seven sectors (Airport, North, North-East, East, West, South, and Training), and also has a Fire Service Wing. Functions: The CISF security umbrella includes India’s most critical infrastructure facilities, like nuclear installations, space establishments, airports, seaports, power plants, etc. The specialized task of airport security was assigned to CISF in the year 2000 in the wake of the hijacking of Indian Airlines Flight IC-814 to Kandahar. In addition, the CISF also protects important government buildings, iconic heritage monuments, Delhi Metro, Parliament House Complex, and Central Jails of Jammu and Kashmir. The CISF also has a specialized VIP Security vertical, providing round-the-clock security to important protectees. CISF personnel are trained in disaster management techniques, enabling them to actively respond to natural disasters like earthquakes, floods, and cyclones. CISF is one of the largest Fire Protection Service providers in the country. CISF is the only force with a customized and dedicated fire wing. Post the Mumbai terror attack in November 2008, the mandate of CISF was broadened to provide security cover to private corporate establishments also. It is a compensatory cost force, which means that it bills its clients for the services it provides. The CISF is the only CAPF with a daily public interface – in the airports, in the Delhi Metro, and in the iconic monuments. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/58000-personnel-to-be-inducted-in-cisf-over-next-five-years-as-centre-expects-new-industrial-hubs-in-maoist-affected-states/article69890767.ece

Question 36

Which of the following states has the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR)?

Answer 36

Uttar Pradesh Explanation : The tiger population in Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) has increased to around 80, up from 71 over the past three years, according to an internal survey conducted jointly by PTR and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). About Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR): It is located in the Pilibhit District, Lakhimpur Kheri District, and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh, in the upper Gangetic Plain Biogeographic Province. It lies along the India-Nepal border in the foothills of the Himalayas and is part of the Terai Arc Landscape. The total area of the reserve is 730 sq.km., inclusive of 602 sq.km. core zone. Rivers: The river Gomti originates from the PTR, which is also the catchment of several others like Sharda, Chuka, and Mala Khannot. Habitat: The habitat is characterized by dense sal forests and tall alluvial grasslands, savannahs, and impenetrable swamps, maintained by periodic flooding from rivers. The Sharda Sagar Dam, extending up to a length of 22 km, is on the boundary of the reserve. It has a dry and hot climate, which brings a combination of dry teak forest and Vindhya Mountain soils. Vegetation: Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests, Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests, Seasonal Swamp Forests and Tropical Semi-evergreen Forests are the major forest types found in the reserve. Flora: The sal woodland is very dense with good natural regeneration, amounting to almost 76% of the reserve area. The forest patches are interspersed with grass meadows with several species like Sacchrum, Sclerostachya, Imperata, Themeda, Bothriochloa, Vetiveria, Apluda, Dichanthium, Digitaria and Cyperus. Fauna: It is home to a myriad of wild animals, including the endangered tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, hog deer, leopard, etc. The rich bird life in Pilibhit includes species like Swamp Francolin, Great Hornbill, Bengal Florican, Lesser Florican, Black Francolin, Jungle Bush Quail, Red Junglefowl, Asian Openbill, etc. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bareilly/ptr-tiger-population-rises-to-80-up-by-9-in-3-years/articleshow/123065955.cms

Question 37

What best describes a collusive litigation? A. A lawsuit involving a large number of parties. B. A dispute between two parties with completely opposing interests. C. A lawsuit where the parties cooperate to achieve a predetermined outcome. D. A litigation initiated by the government against private parties.

Answer 37

A lawsuit where the parties cooperate to achieve a predetermined outcome. Explanation : The Supreme Court has taken a suo motu cognisance of "collusive litigations" by officials of the Bengaluru Development Authority (BDA) recently. About Collusive Litigation: It is defined as a lawsuit where the parties involved are not genuinely adversarial, but rather cooperate to achieve a desired outcome or to challenge the constitutionality of a law. These suits often involve a degree of cooperation between the parties, who may share a common goal or interest in the outcome. Some of the key issues surrounding these suits include: The potential for abuse, where parties may collude to manipulate the judicial process or achieve an outcome that might not be possible through other means. The risk of undermining the adversarial system, where the court's decision is based on a genuine dispute between parties. The potential for collusive suits to be used as a means of circumventing the normal legislative process. In India, collusive decrees can be set aside if the party challenging the decree is not a party to it and can prove collusion or fraud. The High Court has the authority to intervene in cases where a decree is found to be collusive, particularly under Article 227. A party to a collusive decree cannot seek to have it set aside. This principle is established in various cases where the courts have ruled that only parties not involved in the collusion may challenge the decree. The burden of proving that a decree was obtained collusively lies with the party seeking to set it aside. Courts have held that under a general prayer for relief, they can set aside a decree if it is found to be collusive, even if a specific prayer for setting aside was not made. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bengaluru/supreme-court-takes-suo-motu-cognisance-of-collusive-litigation-by-bda-3662765

Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding El Salvador: 1. It is a small mountainous country that shares borders with Honduras and Mexico. 2. It is the only Central American nation without a coast on the Caribbean. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 38

2 only Explanation : Recently, El Salvador's ruling party passed a bill that will allow indefinite presidential reelection and extend presidential terms to six years. It is a small mountainous Central American nation. Bordered by: It is bordered by Honduras to the northeast; Guatemala to the northwest and by the Pacific Ocean to the south. It is the only Central American nation without a coast on the Caribbean. Topography: The Central Region of El Salvador is characterized by a mix of mountains, valleys, and a volcanic plateau. The region is dominated by the volcanic chain, part of the larger Sierra Madre mountains, which includes several volcanoes such as San Salvador, Ilopango, and San Vicente. Highest Point: The highest point in the country, Cerro El Pital, stands at 2,730 meters (8,957 feet) and is located on the border with Honduras in the northern part of this region. River: Lempa River plays a significant role in the geography of the country. Major Lakes: Lake Ilopango, Lake Coatepeque , Lake Güija Climate: The climate of El Salvador is tropical but is moderated by elevation in the interior; in general it is warm rather than hot Capital City: San Salvador Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/el-salvador-approves-indefinite-presidential-reelection-extends-presidential-terms-to-six-years/article69885896.ece

Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding ICRISAT’s AI-based Agromet Advisory Service: 1. It aims to harness artificial intelligence and machine learning to provide real-time, personalised climate advisory services to farmers. 2. It is supported under the Government of India’s Monsoon Mission III. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 39

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and ICAR have launched an AI-based context-specific Agromet Advisory Service to boost farming. It is a new initiative harnessing artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) to provide real-time, personalised climate advisory services to farmers. It aims to equip smallholder farmers with hyper-local, actionable weather and climate insights, enabling them to make informed decisions amid increasing climate variability. The initiative will provide farmers with timely, actionable recommendations for critical decisions such as sowing, irrigation, and pest management. These advisories will be delivered through user-friendly digital channels, including an AI-powered WhatsApp bot, ensuring easy access even in remote farming communities. ​ The project is supported under the Government of India’s Monsoon Mission III. The project will first be implemented in Maharashtra, through ICAR’s Agro-Meteorological Field Units (AMFUs) to reach smallholder farmers. Insights from this phase will inform a national rollout and serve as a model for South-South expansion. Organisations involved: The Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA-ICAR), the International Livestock Research Institute (ILRI), the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), and Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) joined the initiative. The Intelligent Systems Advisory Tool (iSAT), a digital platform developed and piloted by ICRISAT and partners during Monsoon Mission II is now being upgraded into a fully functional AI-powered tool under this new initiative. iSAT was initially designed to transform complex climate and agronomic data into personalised, science-based advisories. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/icrisat-icar-launch-ai-based-personalised-agri-advisory-services/article69874402.ece

Question 40

The biofortified potatoes, recently in news, aim to reduce:

Answer 40

Anemia Explanation : Bio-fortified potatoes are a new variety enriched with higher iron content aimed at addressing iron deficiency (cause behind anemia prevalence) and hidden hunger. These are developed using conventional breeding and biotechnology without altering taste or yield. The initiative is led by the International Potato Centre (CIP), based in Peru. The CIP is a global research leader in tuber crops and is working actively to promote nutritionally improved potatoes in India. Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bio-fortified-potatoes-to-hit-indian-market-soon/article69890666.ece#:~:text=CIP%27s%20regional%20centre%20in%20Agra,in%20the%20region%3A%20Simon%20Heck&text=Bio%2Dfortified%20potatoes%2C%20with%20added,an%20interview%20to%20The%20Hindu

Question 41

What is the significance of the Mahabodhi Temple in Buddhism?

Answer 41

It is the site of Buddha's Enlightenment. Explanation : The Supreme Court recently agreed to review a petition seeking the repeal of the Bodh Gaya Temple Act of 1949, advocating for its replacement with a central law to better manage the Mahabodhi Temple in Bihar. About Mahabodhi Temple: It is one of the four most sacred sites of Buddhism, marking the location where Buddha attained Enlightenment (Bodhi), along with: Lumbini (Buddha’s birthplace) Sarnath (Buddha’s first sermon) Kushinagar (Buddha’s parinirvana) Location: Bodh Gaya, Bihar, on the banks of the Niranjana River. The first temple at the site was constructed by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BC. The present temple was built in the 5th–6th century AD, in the Gupta period. It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely in brick, still standing in India, from the late Gupta period. The temple was heavily restored in the 19th century, by Myanmar (Burmese) Buddhists and then by the British archaeologist Sir Alexander Cunningham. It was declared a World Heritage site by UNESCO in 2002. Architecture: The temple structure is 180 feet (55 meters) in height. It is dominated by a pyramid-shaped central tower, called a shikhara. This tower comprises several layers of niches, arch motifs, and fine engravings. Four additional towers, each identical to the main tower but smaller in size, adorn the corners of the two-story structure. A shrine inside the temple holds a yellow sandstone statue of the Buddha encased in glass. Sacred Bodhi Tree: Believed to be a direct descendant of the original tree under which Buddha attained Enlightenment. Vajrasana (Diamond Throne): A stone slab marking the exact spot where Buddha meditated and attained enlightenment. Stone railings surround the temple as well as the Bo tree. One of the most famous of Ashoka’s many pillars (on which he had engraved his proclamations and his understanding of religious doctrine) stands at the southeast corner of the temple. The 4.8-hectare complex includes ancient shrines and modern Buddhist structures built by devotees. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/supreme-court-agrees-to-examine-plea-to-repeal-bodh-gaya-temple-law/articleshow/123093151.cms?from=mdr

Question 42

With reference to Assets Under Management (AUM), consider the following: 1. Net investor inflows 2. Market fluctuations 3. Redemptions 4. Dividend reinvestments How many of the above factors directly impact AUM?

Answer 42

All the four Explanation : The asset under management (AUM) of India’s mutual fund (MF) industry was estimated at ₹74.40 lakh crore, marking a more than sevenfold growth in 10 years, according to a recent report. About Assets Under Management (AUM): AUM is a crucial metric in the financial industry, particularly in mutual funds. AUM refers to the total market value of the assets that a financial institution or investment company manages on behalf of its clients. These assets can include stocks, bonds, and other financial investments. AUM is affected by: Market fluctuations Net investor inflows (new investments) Redemptions or withdrawals Dividend reinvestments AUM is an essential measure of the size and success of a mutual fund, as it provides investors with insight into the fund's popularity and credibility. It also indicates the financial institution's expertise and ability to attract and retain clients. Additionally, investors often use AUM to assess the fund's liquidity and stability. The larger the AUM, the more resources and diversification potential the fund may have, which can attract investors seeking long-term growth and stability. A mutual fund’s AUM can have a large impact on the fees that an investor usually pays to invest in the mutual fund. For example, some larger funds might have a very high minimum investment. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/mutual-fund-industry-aum-grew-sevenfold-in-10-years-study/article69893712.ece

Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding the Sahel Region: 1. It is a semi-arid region of southern Africa. 2. The Sahara Desert lies to the north of the Sahel Region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 43

2 only Explanation : Russia has tightened its grip over the Sahel region in West Africa, signing a key nuclear agreement with Niger recently. About Sahel Region: It is a semiarid region of western and north-central Africa. A 5,000 kilometre belt of land, the Sahel stretches from Africa’s Atlantic Coast to the Red Sea. It forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara (desert) to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. It runs through portions of the countries of Senegal, Mauritania, Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Nigeria, Chad, Sudan, and Eritrea. Vegetation: The Sahel is a semiarid steppe, a type of dry grassland. The vegetation is chiefly of the savanna type, with little continuous cover. It has low-growing grass, thorny shrubs, and scattered acacia and baobab trees.  Since gaining independence in the 1960s, many countries in the Sahel have experienced violent extremism due to the confluence of weak and illegitimate governance, economic decline, and the worsening effects of climate change.  The Sahel remains a principal transit point for migrants traveling from sub-Saharan Africa to northern coastal states and on to Europe. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/putin-stuns-trump-after-wagner-move-russia-cements-nuclear-ambition-in-last-sahel-region-africa/videoshow/122978594.cms

Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding the RS-28 Sarmat, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a new generation intercontinental ballistic missile. 2. It was developed by Iran. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 44

1 only Explanation : As tensions escalate between the United States and Russia, the spotlight is back on one of the deadliest weapons in Russia’s nuclear arsenal, the RS-28 Sarmat intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), dubbed ‘Satan 2’ by NATO. About RS-28 Sarmat: The RS-28 Sarmat is Russia’s new generation intercontinental ballistic missile. It is named after the Sarmatian people of the fourth and fifth century BC. It has also been referred to in the West as the “Satan II”. Features: It is a three-stage, liquid-fueled missile with a range of 18,000 km and a launch weight of more than 208 tonnes. It is the world's heaviest ICBM. The missile is 35.3 meters long and 3 meters in diameter. Maximum speed of 25,500 kph (about Mach 20). It can carry a 10-ton payload and can load a wide variety of warhead options. It can carry up to 16 independently targetable nuclear warheads as well as Avangard hypersonic glide vehicles. Each warhead gets its guidance system, using inertial navigation, GLONASS (Russia’s GNSS), and Astro-inertial tech to stay on target. While the RS-28 Sarmat can be launched much like a regular ICBM, it is thought to be also capable of what is called fractional orbital bombardment. A fractional orbital bombardment means firing an ICBM into a low orbit of the Earth – much lower than a conventional firing – potentially in the opposite direction to the target. The Sarmat reportedly could deliver warheads 2,000 times as powerful as the atom bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.news18.com/world/russias-rs-28-sarmat-the-missile-that-can-strike-over-the-poles-outrange-us-and-china-ws-akl-9482901.html

Question 45

Consider the following statements regarding National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL): 1. It is a Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways. 2. It was established in the aftermath of the Sino-Indian War of 1962 to construct National Highways in border areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 45

1 only Explanation : The traffic from Sikkim and Kalimpong to Siliguri and vice versa on NH10 remained suspended because of repairs by the National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited on a 30 km-long stretch following a landslide and cave-ins. About National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL): It is a Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, Government of India. The company was incorporated on the 18th of July, 2014, under the Companies Act, 2013. It is a wholly owned Government entity. It is dedicated exclusively to the task of constructing/upgrading/widening National Highways in parts of the country which shares international boundaries with neighbouring countries in order to promote regional connectivity on a substantial basis. NHIDCL’s domain extends across the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands; the state of Uttarakhand; and the entire Northeastern Region (NER). Its ambit includes tunnels, logistics hubs, interstate and international road linkages, and advanced mobility facilities - all serving as the arteries of India’s economic and geopolitical aspirations. As the executing arm of the Government of India’s vision to realize the “Act East Policy,” NHIDCL plays a pivotal role as the nodal agency in the Northeastern region. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/nh10-shut-after-cave-ins-travel-to-sikkim-and-kalimpong-hits-roadblock-ahead-of-season-prnt/cid/2116450#goog_rewarded

Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding UN World Food Programme: 1. Established in 1961 it aims to eradicate hunger in the world by promoting food security. 2. India is not a member country of this organization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 46

1 only Explanation : Recently, India launched a new collaborative initiative with the support of the UN World Food Programme to strengthen Rice Fortification and Supply Chain Management in Nepal. It is a branch of the United Nations that deals with hunger eradication and promotes food security in the world. It is the world’s largest humanitarian agency and was established in 1961. The organization’s work is guided by Sustainable Development Goal 2, which aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture by 2030. It operates in more than 120 countries, provides food assistance during emergencies and works with communities to enhance nutrition and generate resilience. Funding: WFP is funded by voluntary donations from governments, corporates and private donors. It is a member of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India is a member of this organization and WEF has been functioning in India since 1963. WEF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020. Reports by WEF: Report released by the WFP is the Global Report on Food Crisis which describes the scale of acute hunger in the world. Headquarters: Rome, Italy Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-launches-collaborative-initiative-with-un-wfp-to-strengthen-rice-fortification-and-supply-chains-in-nepal/

Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding India Electric Mobility Index: 1. It was launched by the NITI Aayog. 2. It tracks and benchmarks the progress of States and Union Territories in achieving their Electric Mobility goals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 47

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, NITI Aayog launched the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI). It is a first-of-its-kind tool developed to comprehensively track and benchmark the progress of States and Union Territories (UTs) in achieving their Electric Mobility goals. The India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) tracks, evaluates and scores all Indian States and UTs out of 100 across 16 indicators under three-core themes: Transport Electrification Progress to capture demand-side adoption, Charging Infrastructure Readiness to track allied charging infrastructure development and EV Research and Innovation Status: Covers supply-side ecosystem R&D efforts. It enables evaluation across states and union territories, identifying key drivers of success as well as areas requiring targeted interventions. The Index aims to inform decision-making, foster healthy competition among states, and promote sharing of best practices. The Index underscores the importance of state-level coordination, integrated planning, and cross-sectoral collaboration in achieving India’s electric mobility vision. By identifying strengths and gaps, the Index aims to support states in aligning with national goals while addressing local needs. It provides a transparent, comparative framework to assess progress across key themes such as electrification, infrastructure, and innovation. It enables states to benchmark their efforts, identify gaps, and learn from each other’s successe. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2152243

Question 48

With reference to Seabuckthorn, consider the following: 1. It is a plant found throughout Europe and Asia. 2. It produces yellow-coloured berries and can not withstand extreme temperatures. 3. Its leaves serve as protein-rich fodder for many animals. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 48

Only two Explanation : Seeds of seabuckthorn and buckwheat grown in the cold desert of Ladakh are part of the experiments on board the International Space Station flown by NASA's Crew-11 mission. It is popularly known as the ‘Wonder Plant’, ‘Ladakh Gold’, ‘Golden Bush’, or ‘Gold Mine’ of cold deserts. Distribution: Sea buckthorn (Hippophae rhamnoides) is a plant found throughout Europe and Asia. In India, it is found above the tree line in the Himalayan region, generally in dry areas such as the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. It produces small orange or yellow-coloured berries that are sour in taste but rich in vitamins, especially vitamin C. The shrub can withstand extreme temperatures ranging from minus 43 degrees Celsius to 40 degrees Celsius and is considered drought-resistant. These two characteristics make the shrub an ideal plant species to establish in cold deserts. Sea Buckthorn berries have a unique characteristic of remaining intact on the shrub throughout the winter months despite the subzero temperature. Uses: It has been used traditionally for a variety of purposes. Every part of the plant–fruit, leaf, twig, root, and thorns has been traditionally used as medicine, nutritional supplement, fuel, and fence. Many bird species feed on the berries when other sources of food are limited in the region. The leaves serve as protein-rich fodder for cold desert animals like sheep, goats, donkeys, cattle, and double-humped camels. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/seeds-of-seabuckthorn-himalayan-buckwheat-part-of-experiment-on-iss/article69889456.ece

Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding Ayurveda Aahara: 1. It refers to food products developed in line with the holistic dietary principles of Ayurveda. 2. It aims to assist Food Business Operators (FBOs) by providing a clear and credible reference for the manufacture of Ayurveda products. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 49

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), in consultation with the Ministry of Ayush, has released a definitive list of Ayurvedic food preparations under the category of “Ayurveda Aahara.” Ayurveda Aahara refers to food products developed in line with the holistic dietary principles of Ayurveda, one of the world's oldest systems of health and wellness. These preparations emphasise balance, seasonal suitability, and using natural ingredients and herbs known for their therapeutic benefits. This significant step brings India’s time-honoured food wisdom into the mainstream, following the introduction of the Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations in 2022. These regulations recognise foods based on recipes, ingredients, and processes from authoritative Ayurvedic texts, and the new list brings unprecedented clarity and confidence to consumers and businesses alike. The list, issued under Note (1) of Schedule B of the regulations, draws directly from classical Ayurvedic texts listed in Schedule A, ensuring the authenticity and traditional basis of these food formulations. This initiative aims to assist Food Business Operators (FBOs) by providing a clear and credible reference for the manufacture of Ayurveda Aahara products. This initiative marks a pivotal moment in enhancing regulatory clarity for industry stakeholders while promoting the widespread adoption of Ayurveda-based nutrition for better public health outcomes. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2151745

Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding Asian Giant Tortoise: 1. It can be found in the tropical and subtropical hill forests. 2. It is categorized as Endangered species under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 50

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Asian giant tortoise, the largest tortoise in mainland Asia, has been reintroduced into the Zeliang Community Reserve in Nagaland’s Peren district. The Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys phayrei) is the largest tortoise in Asia. It is considered to be one of the oldest tortoise lineages in the world. And these ancient tortoises share an interesting behavior with many crocodilians—to protect their eggs and maintain appropriate temperatures for incubation. Appearance: As hatchlings, these tortoises appear a grayish brown, and become more charcoal colored as they mature into adulthood. Habitat: The Asian Giant Tortoise can be found in the tropical and subtropical hill forests. Distribution: They are found in Bangladesh, India, Indonesia, and Malaysia and other places. Diet: Bamboo shoots, tubers and other juicy vegetation and some invertebrates and frogs. Threats: Hunting for consumption, habitat loss, anthropogenic activities like construction and slash and burn. Conservation Status IUCN: Critically Endangered CITES: Appendix II Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/seeds-of-seabuckthorn-himalayan-buckwheat-part-of-experiment-on-iss/article69889456.ece

Question 51

Consider the following countries: 1. Bhutan 2. Sri Lanka 3. Maldives 4. Myanmar 5. Thailand How many of the above countries are members of BIMSTEC?

Answer 51

Only four Explanation : The first-ever BIMSTEC Traditional Music Festival was recently held at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi. About BIMSTEC: It is a grouping of seven member states lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. The organization came into existence on 6 June 1997 through the 'Bangkok Declaration'. Membership: It is a unique link connecting South Asia with Southeast Asia - five Members from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) and two from South-East Asia (Myanmar and Thailand). BIMSTEC organizes intergovernmental interactions through Summits, Ministerial Meetings, Senior Officials Meetings, Permanent Working Committee, Joint Working Groups, and Experts Level Meetings, The BIMSTEC region brings together 1.7 billion people - 22% of the world population with a combined GDP of US$ 5 trillion. Permanent Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh. BIMSTEC has identified 14 priority areas of cooperation where a member country takes the lead. India is the lead country for Transport & Communication, Tourism, Environment & Disaster Management, and Counter Terrorism & Transnational Crime. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/first-bimstec-traditional-music-festival-held-in-new-delhi-today/

Question 52

Consider the following statements about Indri Lemur, recently seen in the news: 1. This species is found only in remote parts of South America. 2. It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 52

2 only Explanation : Joint research has, for the first time, ascertained the composition of the intestinal microbiome of the indri, a critically endangered lemur only found in the north-east of Madagascar. About Indri Lemur: Indri, or babakoto in the local language, is the largest of the surviving lemur species. Scientific Name: Indri indri Distribution: Found only in remote parts of northeastern Madagascar. Resides in coastal and montane rainforest from sea level to 1,800 m. Features: It is 60–70 cm (24–28 inches) long, with a rudimentary tail and large hands and feet. The round head has a pointed face and round, furry ears. Indris have smooth, silky fur covering their whole bodies. Its fur is black, with white on the head, throat, forearms, and buttocks; the relative proportions of white and black vary geographically. In the wild, indris live between 15 and 18 years. Active during the day and thoroughly arboreal, the indri clings to trees and climbs in an upright position as it feeds on leaves, fruit, flowers, and other vegetation. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://phys.org/news/2025-08-indri-lemur-gut-bacteria-reveals.html

Question 53

The primary objective of the PAHAL scheme is to : A. promote renewable energy. B. improve the infrastructure of rural schools across India. C. provide health insurance coverage for senior citizens. D. transfer LPG subsidies directly to consumers' bank accounts.

Answer 53

transfer LPG subsidies directly to consumers' bank accounts. Explanation : The Indian government has deactivated more than 4 crore duplicate or inactive domestic LPG connections under its PAHAL direct benefit transfer scheme, the Petroleum Minister told parliament recently. About PAHAL Scheme: Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh/Direct Benefits Transfer For LPG (PAHAL) scheme, launched by the Ministry Of Petroleum and Natural Gas, is India’s Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system for LPG subsidies. Instead of subsidized cylinders being delivered directly, the consumer pays the full market price for LPG and the government transfers the subsidy amount to the registered bank account. It covers over 17 crore LPG consumers nationwide, making it the largest cash transfer program globally. Objectives: Ensures transparency and eliminates intermediaries. Removing incentives for diversion. Protect the entitlement and ensure the payment of subsidy to the consumers. Improving the availability or delivery of LPG cylinders for genuine customers. Eliminating the fake or duplicate connections. Providing self-selection in subsidy. Eligibility: The applicant must be an LPG user. The combined taxable income of the applicant and their spouse should not exceed ₹10,00,000 in the previous financial year, as per the Income Tax Act, 1961. Working: The consumer books a gas cylinder at the market price. Once delivered, the government credits the subsidy amount directly into the linked bank account of the consumer. There are two types of consumers in the scheme: Primary Aadhaar-Based DBT (preferred): Aadhaar is linked with both the LPG consumer number and the bank account. Alternative (Non-Aadhaar-Based): Bank account is linked directly with the LPG consumer number if Aadhaar linking is not available. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/india/over-4-crore-fake-lpg-connections-blocked-as-govt-tightens-pahal-verification-19649114.htm

Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): 1. It was formed in the aftermath of the 1971 India-Pakistan War. 2. It is headed by the Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 54

2 only Explanation : The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently sanctioned multiple procurement proposals worth nearly ₹67,000 crore to strengthen the nation’s military preparedness. About Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement. The main objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces in terms of capabilities sought and time frame prescribed by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources. Formation: It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Composition: Chairman: Defence Minister Members: Minister of State for Defence Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Chief of Army Staff (COAS) Chief of Naval Staff (CNS) Chief of Air Staff (CAS) Defence Secretary Secretary, Dept. of Defence Production and Supplies Secretary, Defence Research and Development Secretary, Defence Finance Vice Chief of Defence Staff (when appointed)/CISC Special Secretary (Acquisition) Member Secretary: Dy. Chief of Defence Staff (PP&FD) Its functions include: Give in principle approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorisation of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dac-approves-defence-procurement-worth-67000-crore-to-strengthen-border-security/article69898453.ece

Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding the Lalit Kala Akademi: 1. It is the National Academy of Art, which focuses on the promotion and propagation of visual arts. 2. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 55

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The 64th National Exhibition of Art (NEA), organized by the Lalit Kala Akademi, India’s National Academy of Art, was recently inaugurated in New Delhi with a grand ceremony. About Lalit Kala Akademi: Lalit Kala Akademi, National Academy of Art, New Delhi, was set up by the Government of India as an autonomous body, on 5th August, 1954, to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country. It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. The Akademi was given the status of statutory authority in 1957, under the Societies Registration Act 1860. Headquarters: New Delhi. It functions through its General Council, Executive Board, and other Committees. It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Garhi. Funding: It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. The institution has been involved in identifying and showcasing visual art. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of the highest order that reflects the vitality, complexity, and unfolding patterns of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes. The National Exhibition of Art is the most prestigious annual event of the Lalit Kala Akademi. Begun in 1955, it is directed towards showcasing and representing visual advances in the year. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2152798

Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding LEAP-1 Mission: 1. It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. 2. It enhances capabilities across applications including defense and disaster response. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 56

2 only Explanation : A budding space tech startup Dhruva Space from India, is set to launch its first commercial satellite mission called LEAP-1. It is Dhruva Space’s first commercial satellite mission, which is carrying payloads for AI and Earth observation. It utilises Dhruva Space’s indigenously developed P-30 satellite platform which was successfully space-qualified during the LEAP-TD mission on ISRO’s PSLV-C58 in January 2024. It is developed by the Dhruva Space and Australia-based Akula Tech and Esper Satellites. The mission carries two distinct payloads: Nexus-01: It features an advanced artificial intelligence (AI) module. AI module promises unprecedented on-orbit intelligence with onboard data processing and AI/ML model re-training capabilities for rapid, near-real-time insights. AI flexibly supports applications such as fire detection and spectral analysis, continuously improving via live sensor data retraining. Esper Satellites’ OTR-2 mission: It is equipped with a cutting-edge hyperspectral imager. This hyperspectral imager delivers spectrally rich Earth observation data through their EarthTones API, setting a new standard in remote sensing technology. Significance: This payload fusion enhances capabilities across applications including defense, disaster response, agriculture, mining, and environmental monitoring. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/indias-dhruva-space-to-launch-leap-1-satellite-mission-aboard-spacex-falcon-9-2765888-2025-08-04

Question 57

Consider the following statements regarding CLOVES Syndrome: 1. It is caused by mutations in a gene called PIK3CA which makes one of the proteins in an enzyme called PI3K. 2. It is not hereditary syndrome and cannot be passed on to the next generation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 57

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers believe that CLOVES Syndrome is caused by mutations in a gene called PIK3CA and less than 200 cases are believed to have been reported worldwide. CLOVES Syndrome, in which the letters stand for: Congenital; Lipomatous; Overgrowth; Vascular malformations ; Epidermal nevi and Spinal/skeletal anomalies/Scoliosis, is very a rare condition. It is a rare genetic disorder. Cause: It is caused by mutations in a gene called PIK3CA which makes one of the proteins in an enzyme called PI3K, which is involved in many important functions in a cell. Mutations in the PIK3CA gene may cause the PI3K enzyme to become overactive, which may cause cancer cells to grow. PIK3CA gene mutations have been found in many types of cancer, including cancers of the breast, lung, ovary, stomach, brain, colon, and rectum. CLOVES Syndrome is an overgrowth disorder, part of a larger group of similar disorders called PIK3CA-related overgrowth spectrum or PROS. The mutations in the PIK3CA gene are believed to occur spontaneously in the womb. It is not hereditary and cannot be passed on. Symptoms of CLOVES Syndrome Growth of Soft masses of fatty tissue on the abdomen, back, sides and buttocks. Vascular or blood vessel anomalies such as dilated veins that may be seen in the chest, arms and legs and that may pose a risk of blood clots Large and wide hands or feet, with large gaps between fingers and toes; ‘port wine stain’ birthmarks; Spinal problems such as scoliosis or a tethered cord; kidney problems; skin abnormalities such as raised bumps, Treatment: There is no cure as yet for CLOVES syndrome. However, with the right diagnosis, healthcare providers can help patients manage symptoms. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-you-need-to-know-about-cloves-syndrome/article69886465.ece

Question 58

With reference to Nilgiri Tahrs, consider the following: 1. It is a mountain ungulate endemic to the southern part of the Western Ghats. 2. It inhabit in open montane grassland habitat. 3. It is categorized as a ‘Critically Endangered’ species under the IUCN Red List. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 58

Only two Explanation : Recently, a joint census in Kerala and Tamil Nadu has reported a population of 2,668 Nilgiri tahrs. The Nilgiri Tahr is a mountain ungulate endemic to the southern part of the Western Ghats. It is also known by the name Nilgiri Ibex or simply Ibex. Locally the animal is called ‘Varayaadu’. It is the only mountain ungulate in southern India. Habitat and Distribution of Nilgiri Tahr It is found in a roughly 400 km stretch in the Western Ghats, which falls in the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. These tahrs inhabit the open montane grassland habitat of the southwestern ghats montane rain forests ecoregion. At elevations ranging from 1200 to 2600 m, the jungle opens into grasslands interspersed with pockets of stunted forests, known as ‘sholas.’ The Eravikulam National Park (Kerala) has the highest density and largest surviving population of Nilgiri tahr. Features of Nilgiri Tahr These are stocky goats with short, coarse fur and a bristly mane. The males are found to be larger than the females, and have a darker color when mature. Both sexes have curved horns, which are larger in the males. There are facial markings, particularly distinct in mature males. Conservation Status IUCN Red List: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/survey-finds-1365-nilgiri-tahrs-in-kerala/article69897466.ece

Question 59

Consider the following statements regarding Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty: 1. It was signed between the United States and Russia (formerly Soviet Union) in 1987. 2. It has a provision of elimination of an entire class of weapons, ground-launched missiles with a range of 500 to 5,500 kilometres. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 59

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Russia has officially declared it no longer considers itself bound by the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty. It was signed between the United States and the Russia (Formerly known as Soviet Union) in 1987. Objective: Under this treaty both powers agreed to destroy two categories of lethal missile systems from their own stocks as a means to decelerate the nuclear arms race. The need for such an expansive treaty was felt after a considerable build-up of missiles capable of carrying nuclear warheads by both sides in their European spheres of influence, threatening the security of the entire continent. The treaty came to fruition after years of negotiations during the leadership of US President Ronald Reagan and Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev. The treaty led to the elimination of an entire class of weapons, ground-launched missiles with a range of 500 to 5,500 kilometres. It also allowed verification by observers from both sides — thus leading to the dismantling of 2,619 missiles in three years. Present status of the treaty: The US withdrew from it, citing violations by Russia. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/russia-officially-ends-commitment-to-1987-inf-nuclear-arms-treaty/

Question 60

Consider the following statements regarding India Cine Hub Portal: 1. It is a single-window system streamlining filmmaking permissions and resource mapping across India. 2. It was set up by the National Academy of Art, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 60

1 only Explanation : Recently, central government urged states to use India Cine Hub Portal to facilitate Global film Production locally. It was launched on June 28, 2024. It is a single-window system streamlining filmmaking permissions, incentives, and resource mapping across India. It was set up by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India in the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) with a view to promote and facilitate film shootings by foreign filmmakers in India. It acts as a single-window facilitation and clearance mechanism that eases filming in India, as well as endeavouring to create a film-friendly ecosystem and promoting the country as a filming destination. Features of India Cine Hub Portal It features GIS-based location mapping and a common application form, the portal enhances ease of doing business and promotes India as a global filming destination. Seven states and two Union Territories have fully integrated with the platform, while 21 states and six Union Territories have been on boarded. The services rendered by the India Cine Hub (ICH) have now been extended to Indian filmmakers as well. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2152689

Question 61

Which among the following best describes Smithophis leptofasciatus, recently seen in the news? A. A newly discovered carnivorous plant species in the Western Ghats. B. An endangered amphibian found in the Himalayas. C. A rare species of butterfly recently spotted in the Western Himalayas. D. A newly identified snake species found in Northeast India.

Answer 61

A newly identified snake species found in Northeast India. Explanation : A team of researchers from Mizoram University recently discovered a new species of rain snake named Smithophis leptofasciatus. About Smithophis leptofasciatus: It is a new species of rain snake belonging to the genus Smithophis. The species name leptofasciatus is derived from Greek and Latin, meaning "narrow-banded," referencing its distinctive dorsal markings. It is commonly referred to as the narrow-banded rain snake. It was discovered in the tropical montane forests of Mizoram. The new species is distinguished by its narrow, incomplete creamish-white or yellowish-lime transverse bands on a shiny black body—features that set it apart from its close relatives. It was found inhabiting humid, shaded microhabitats near small streams in montane forests between 900 and 1,200 meters above sea level. Its semi-aquatic, nocturnal lifestyle was revealed through field observations during the monsoon. This brings the total number of known Smithophis species to five, all discovered in northeastern India and its surrounding areas. These snakes are commonly referred to as ‘rain snakes’ because they thrive in wet habitats, often found near streams and other water sources. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/noida-news/nod-for-greater-noida-faridabad-road-travel-to-take-just-30-minutes-101754420909933.html

Question 62

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), consider the following: 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme designed to support pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. A cash incentive of Rs 6,000 is provided to eligible beneficiaries for a second child, subject to the condition that the second child is born in a government hospital. 3. In case of miscarriage/stillbirth, the beneficiary would be treated as a fresh beneficiary in the event of any future pregnancy. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 62

Only two Explanation : The Ministry of Women and Child Development has extended the special registration drive for the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) till 15 August, 2025. About Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): It is a centrally sponsored scheme under Mission Shakti’s sub-scheme 'Samarthya', providing direct financial assistance through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode. It is designed to support pregnant women and lactating mothers. The scheme is to provide maternity benefits to women belonging to socially and economically disadvantaged sections of society. It aims to improve health-seeking behaviour among pregnant women and lactating mothers and ensure better maternal and child health outcomes across the country. Benefits: Under PMMVY, a cash incentive of Rs 5,000 is provided in two installments directly to the bank/post office account of pregnant women and lactating mothers for the first child in the family. The eligible beneficiaries also receive the remaining cash incentive as per approved norms towards Maternity Benefit under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) after institutional delivery so that, on average, a beneficiary gets Rs 6,000. Cash incentive of Rs 6,000 is also provided under PMMVY to eligible beneficiaries for a second child subject to the second child being a girl. In case of miscarriage/stillbirth, the beneficiary would be treated as a fresh beneficiary in the event of any future pregnancy. The implementation of the Scheme is done by officials of States and UTs through their field functionaries using the new Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana Software (PMMVYSoft) that was launched in March, 2023. Under PMMVYSoft, Aadhaar authentication through UIDAI is done digitally, and National Payment Corporations of India (NPCI) verification is ensured so that funds are directly transferred to their DBT-enabled Aadhaar-seeded bank or post office accounts. The criteria for determining socially and economically disadvantaged sections of society will be the following: Women belonging to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes; Women who are partially (40%) or fully disabled (Divyang Jan) Women holder of BPL ration Card Women beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana (PMJAY) under Ayushman Bharat. Women holding E-shram card Women farmers who are beneficiaries under Kishan Samman Nidhi Women holding MGNREGA Job Card Women whose net family income is less than Rs. 8 Lakh per annum Pregnant and Lactating AWWs/AWHs/ASHAs Any other category as may be prescribed by the Central Government Further, all pregnant women and lactating mothers in regular employment with the central Government or State Government or Public Sector Undertaking or those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force shall not be entitled to benefits under PMMVY. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2152087

Question 63

Consider the following statements regarding Legal Insanity: 1. It is a recognised defence in criminal law. 2. Just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 63

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Chhattisgarh High Court recently acquitted a man of double murder due to legal insanity, highlighting the importance of mental state in trials. About Legal Insanity: It is a term used to describe a mental state that is severe enough to prevent a person from having legal capacity and excuses them from criminal responsibility. It is a recognised defence in criminal law. It is based on the assumption that at the time of the crime, the defendant was suffering from severe mental illness and therefore, was incapable of appreciating the nature of the crime and differentiating right from wrong behavior, hence making them not legally accountable for the crime. The insanity defense is a legal concept, not a clinical one (medical one). This means that just suffering from a mental disorder is not sufficient to prove insanity. To benefit from legal insanity, the accused must establish, often through psychiatric or psychological evaluations, that they were not in control of their reasoning faculties during the commission of the prohibited act. The accused must present a prima facie case, supported by reasonable materials, to establish their legal insanity. This may involve presenting evidence of their conduct before, during, or immediately after the offence, along with relevant medical documentation. The objective is to convince the court that, due to mental incapacity, the accused should be exempt from full criminal responsibility. There are different types of legal insanity, such as emotional insanity, which is when a person experiences a violent excitement of emotions or passions that creates complete derangement of intellect. Another type is temporary insanity, which only exists at the time of a criminal act. Legal Insanity in Recent Judgments: The Supreme Court in Surendra Mishra vs. State of Jharkhand (AIR 2011 SC 627) emphasised that every person suffering from a mental disease is not automatically exempted from criminal liability. The accused bears the responsibility of proving legal insanity and the onus can be discharged by demonstrating their conduct with reference to their medical condition. What is Medical Insanity? It refers to a state of mental illness or psychological disorder that may require medical treatment. It is a medical diagnosis based on the individual’s mental health condition. It primarily addresses the individual’s health and well-being, aiming to diagnose and treat mental illnesses for the person’s benefit. It does not necessarily impact a person’s ability to make decisions in their daily life. A person with a mental illness may still have decision-making capacity. It leads to medical treatment, therapy, and other interventions aimed at managing and improving the individual’s mental health. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/chhattisgarh/chhattisgarh-high-court-acquits-man-convicted-for-murdering-kin-on-grounds-of-legal-insanity/article69902306.ece

Question 64

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter State Transmission System (ISTS): 1. It is a high-voltage power transmission network that enables electricity to flow seamlessly across state borders in India. 2. It is managed by the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 64

1 only Explanation : About 26 gigawatt of renewable energy (RE) projects are expected to be impacted with the end of waiver on inter-State transmission system (ISTS) charges provided for solar and wind projects, according to Crisil Ratings. About Inter State Transmission System (ISTS): It is a high-voltage power transmission network that enables electricity to flow seamlessly across state borders in India. It connects power-rich regions with energy-deficient areas. This ensures a balanced and efficient distribution of electricity. It is managed by the Central Transmission Utility of India Limited (CTUIL), a 100% subsidiary of Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) under the Ministry of Power. ISTS operates at voltages above 132 kV and reduces transmission losses and enhances grid stability. This system allows solar and wind power to be transmitted nationwide and plays a crucial role in large-scale ISTS renewable energy projects. ISTS eliminates state-wise transmission restrictions and creates a unified energy market where electricity can be supplied based on demand. Overcoming geographical constraints, ISTS makes the power sector more reliable and efficient. Working: Power Generation: Electricity is generated from various sources, including solar farms, wind parks, hydro plants, and thermal stations. Grid Connection: The generated power is transmitted to ISTS substations, which are high-voltage facilities managed by the Central Transmission Utility (CTU). These substations step up the voltage to reduce transmission losses. High-Voltage Transmission: The electricity is transported through a network of 132 kV and above transmission lines that span multiple states, ensuring minimal energy loss over long distances. Load Management: The Regional Load Dispatch Centers (RLDCs) and the National Load Dispatch Center (NLDC) monitor and regulate electricity flow, ensuring supply matches demand. Distribution to Consumers: Power is stepped down at state-level substations and supplied to industries, businesses, and residential areas via the State Transmission Utility (STU) and local distribution networks. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/142914/OPS/GN6EO1HDH.1+GNJEO28SI.1.html

Question 65

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Flapshell Turtle, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a freshwater turtle found in tropical South Asian countries. 2. It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 65

1 only Explanation : In a rare sighting, an albino Indian flapshell turtle with a striking yellow shell and skin was recently spotted in a freshwater lake at Chikodra village, Gujarat. About Indian Flapshell Turtle: It is a freshwater turtle commonly found in tropical South Asian countries. Scientific Name: Lissemys punctata Distribution: They are mainly found in Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh , and Myanmar. Habitat: They live in the shallow, quiet, often stagnant waters of rivers, streams, marshes, ponds, lakes and irrigation canals, and tanks. These turtles prefer waters with sand or mud bottoms because of their tendency to burrow. Features: Its identifiers are the femoral flaps that extend from the shell and cover the limbs when the turtle withdraws into its shell. The oval soft shell of the flapshell turtle is an evolutionary connection to hardshell turtles. They can grow up to 370 mm in length and live for about 20 years. They are omnivores. They are generally solitary and active during the day. They are highly adaptable beings. They can survive in extreme droughts for about 120-160 days. Conservation status IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vadodara/rare-yellow-flapshell-turtle-spotted-in-chikodra-lake/articleshow/123149403.cms

Question 66

Consider the following statements regarding District Flood Severity Index: 1. It is developed by the Indian Meteorological Department. 2. It takes into account the mean duration in days of all flooding events in a district. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 66

2 only Explanation : Researchers from IIT Delhi and IIT Gandhinagar have developed a District Flood Severity Index. It accounts for the historical severity of floods in India based on the number of people they have affected and the spread and duration of such floods. Parameters used It takes into account the mean duration in days of all flooding events in a district. Percentage of area that is historically flooded Total number of deaths, number of people injured Population in the district It is developed using the India Flood Inventory with Impacts (IFI-Impacts) database containing data of variables representing the occurrence of floods and damage due to floods. India Flood Inventory with Impacts contains death and damage statistics, and combines population and historically flooded area information sourced from a national hydrologic-hydrodynamic modeling system. Since district is the most relevant unit for planning and decision making, a DFSI would be of immense value for flood management. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a-new-district-flood-severity-index-factors-in-flood-impact-on-people/article69889327.ece#:~:text=Researchers%20from%20IIT

Question 67

Consider the following statements regarding Teak defoliator moth: 1. It is native to South Asia and South-east Asia. 2. It was first recognized as a pest of teak in the state of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 67

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Kerala Forest Research Institute has identified and mass-produced Hyblaea puera Nucleopolyhedrosis Virus (HpNPV) which offers eco-friendly alternative to chemical pesticides and prevents massive defoliation in teak caused by teak defoliator moth (Hyblaea puera). It is a moth and cryptic species and a well-known pest which affects teak tree. It also attacks an alternative host plant, Avicennia marina, a prominent mangrove tree species abundant along the west coast of India, causing severe and extensive defoliation of Mangroves. How it affects Teak Tree? Larva cause damage and attack commences with onset of monsoon rain. When the larvae attack, the tree spends its energy regenerating leaves instead of growing. Nature of damage: These moths defoliate tree and eat entire leaf and leave midrib. Distribution: It is native to South Asia and South-east Asia and mainly occurs in forests across southern Asia from India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh, through Thailand and the rest of south-east Asia to New Guinea, and north Queensland in Australia. The teak defoliator Hyblaea puera was first recognized as a pest of teak in 1898 in the Konni Forest Division in Kerala State of India. The outbreaks of this pest are a regular annual phenomenon in teak plantations. Impact: It causes significant economic losses on timber production from teak plantations during their seasonal outbreaks. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/game-changer-virus-from-kerala-forest-research-institute-to-help-save-teak-plantations/article69900551.ece

Question 68

With reference to Sunflower Star Fish, consider the following: 1. It is the largest and fastest sea star in the world. 2. It is majorly found in the Atlantic and Arctic Ocean. 3. It has the ability to regenerate its arms which may detach as a means of defense. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 68

Only two Explanation : Recently, scientists have found the culprit of mysterious disease which started killing off sunflower starfish in droves — more than 5 billion are estimated to have died since 2013 is a bacterium called Vibrio pectenicida. The Sunflower Sea Star (Pycnopodia helianthoides) is among the largest and fastest sea stars in the world. Habitat: It is commonly found on various substrates like mud, sand, gravel, boulders and rock. They are found from the intertidal coastal waters zone to 435 m, however, most are found no more than 120 m. Distribution: It lives along the vast majority of the Pacific coast of North America. Features of Sunflower Sea Stars It has radially symmetrical body and has more arms than any other species, numbering between 15 and 24 (most sea stars have between 5 and 14). Reproduction: There is no sexual dimorphism within these species. Fertilization is external. They breed by broadcast fertilization between March and July They have the ability to regenerate its arms which may detach as a means of defense when handled excessively or attacked by a predator. A whole new sea star may form if the detached arm has a portion of the central disk is included. Food Habits: These species are is primarily carnivorous, feeding on mussels, sea urchins, fish, crustaceans etc. Ecological importance: These are opportunistic hunters of a wide range of marine invertebrates, and in some areas are important predators that regulate surrounding ecosystems. As a predator of sea urchins, which graze kelp, the species helps keep kelp forests healthy. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/5-billion-starfish-wasted-away-mysterious-disease-culprit-10173862/

Question 69

Consider the following statements regarding Biochar: 1. It is rich in carbon and is produced from agricultural residue and organic municipal solid waste. 2. It can be used as a low-carbon alternative to building materials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 69

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian carbon market set to be launched in 2026, CO2 removal technologies such as biochar are expected to play a crucial role. Biochar is a type of charcoal rich in carbon and is produced from agricultural residue and organic municipal solid waste. It offers a sustainable alternative to manage waste and capture carbon. It is granular material obtained by heating crop residue at 400°C to 600°C in a kiln-shaped structure in the absence of oxygen. Advantage of Biochar: It can hold carbon in the soil for 100-1,000 years due to its strong and stable characteristics, making it an effective long-term carbon sink. Potential Applications of Biochar Agriculture: Applying biochar can improve water retention, particularly in semi-dry and nutrient-depleted soils. This, in turn, can abate nitrous oxide emissions by 30-50%. Biochar can also enhance soil organic carbon, helping restore degraded soils. Industries: In carbon capture applications, modified biochar can adsorb CO₂ from industrial exhaust gases. However, its carbon removal efficiency is currently lower than that of conventional methods. Construction sector: Biochar can be explored as a low-carbon alternative to building materials and makes building materials a stable carbon sink. Wastewater Treatment: Biochar offers a low-cost and effective option to reduce pollution. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-the-potential-of-biochar-explained/article69902716.ece

Question 70

Consider the following statements regarding Yashoda AI: 1. It is an AI Literacy program for women to enhance digital inclusion and empower them in areas of cyber security. 2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 70

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State for Women and Child Development informed the Rajya Sabha about the Yashoda AI. It is an AI Literacy Program for Women titled as “Yashoda AI” since May, 2025. Objective: To equip women in the Country with AI literacy to enhance digital inclusion and empower them in areas of cyber security, digital privacy and safe online practices. It is the initiative of the National Commission for Women (NCW) in collaboration with Future Shift Labs (FSL). The program aims to go beyond traditional learning by hosting in-depth discussions on critical issues such as AI-driven crimes, digital privacy, and practical safety strategies. Under this program, about 2500 women from rural and semi-urban locations, including Members of Self-Help Groups (SHGs), Local elected representatives such as Sarpanchs, Pradhans, Parshads, Mayors, MLAs, ASHA workers etc have been imparted training till date. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2153029#:~:text

Question 71

In which of the following states the Vishnugad Pipalkoti Hydro Electric Project, recently seen in the news, is located?

Answer 71

Uttarakhand Explanation : Twelve workers were injured, four of them critically, in a sudden landslide that struck the dam site of the under-construction Vishnugad Pipalkoti Hydroelectric Project in Helang, Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, recently. About Vishnugad Pipalkoti Hydro Electric Project: It is located on Alaknanda River, a major tributary of the Ganga River, in the district Chamoli in the state of Uttarakhand. It has been designed as a 444-megawatt, run-of-river hydropower scheme, which, when completed, will generate an estimated 1,665 gigawatt-hours, (or million kilowatt-hours) of electricity in a typical year. The project will build a 65-meter concrete gravity dam near Helang village in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand to create a small reservoir in the Alaknanda River. This reservoir will store about 3.63 million cubic meters of water, the equivalent of about 4.9 hours of average flow of the river. A 13.4-kilometer headrace tunnel will carry the water to an underground powerhouse near Haat village to generate the power. A 3-km tail race tunnel will return all the diverted water back to the Alaknanda, approximately 18 km downstream from where the water was diverted. It is being developed by THDC India Ltd (formerly Tehri Hydro Development Corporation Limited) and financed by a US$ 648 million loan from the World Bank. THDC is a joint venture between the government of India and the government of Uttar Pradesh. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Aug/02/landslide-at-uttarakhand-hydro-project-injures-12-workers-four-critical

Question 72

Which of the following is the theme for World Tribal Day 2025? A. Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change B. Indigenous Languages: Building Our Future C. Indigenous Peoples and Artificial Intelligence – Defending Rights, Shaping the Future D. Leaving No One Behind: Indigenous Peoples and the Call for a New Social Contract

Answer 72

Indigenous Peoples and Artificial Intelligence – Defending Rights, Shaping the Future. Explanation : The Adivasi Girijana Sangham has urged tribal representatives, youth, and elected leaders to actively participate in World Tribal Day celebrations on August 9 and commit to resolving tribal issues. About World Tribal Day: It is observed on August 9 every year to support and protect the rights of the world’s indigenous people. Also referred to as World Indigenous Day or International Day of World's Indigenous People, this day offers an excellent chance to effectively work towards defending the fundamental rights of tribal communities around the world. World Tribal Day 2025 Theme: "Indigenous Peoples and Artificial Intelligence – Defending Rights, Shaping the Future" History: The observance of this day originates from a worldwide movement pointed toward recognizing the rights and significant commitments of tribal people. Regardless of comprising around 6% of the worldwide population, tribal communities are often marginalized, despite the fact that they have wealthy cultural diversity. The origins of the International Day of the World's Indigenous People date back to December 1994, when the United Nations General Assembly designated 9 August for this annual observance. This date holds symbolic significance as it marks the first meeting of the UN Working Group on Indigenous Populations of the Sub-commission on the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights. This meeting took place in Geneva in 1982. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/adivasi-girijana-sangham-calls-for-action-on-world-tribal-day-1896172

Question 73

Consider the following statements regarding Clouded Leopard: 1. It is a wild cat inhabiting dense forests of the Himalayas through mainland Southeast Asia into South China. 2. It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 73

1 only Explanation : Retired Indian Forest Service (IFS) officer Susanta Nanda recently shared an old video featuring a rare sighting of a family of clouded leopards in a now-viral post on X. About Clouded Leopard: It is a wild cat inhabiting dense forests of the Himalayas through mainland Southeast Asia into South China. They have a stocky build and are larger than small cat species, and smaller than the large cats. There are two species of clouded leopards: the clouded leopard (Neofelis nebulosa), found on the mainland of southeastern Asia, and the Sunda clouded leopard (Neofelis diardi), found on the islands of Sumatra and Borneo. They are one of the most ancient cat species. However, they are neither a true great cat nor a true small cat, because they cannot roar or purr. Distribution: It is found from Nepal, Bangladesh, and India through Indochina to Sumatra and Borneo, and northeastward to southern China and formerly Taiwan. It has been found at relatively high altitudes in the Himalayas. In India, it is found in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. It is the State animal of Meghalaya. Habitat: They prefer to live in lowland tropical rainforests. However, they can also be found in dry woodlands and secondary forests, and in Borneo, they are reported to live in mangrove swamps. Features: It is a medium-sized cat, 60 to 110 cm long and weighing between 11 and 20 kg. It is named after the distinctive ‘clouds’ on its coat – ellipses partially edged in black, with the insides a darker colour than the background colour of the pelt. The base of the fur is a pale yellow to rich brown, making the darker cloud-like markings look even more distinctive. It has an exceptionally long tail for balancing, which can be as long as the body itself, thick with black ring markings. Their long canine teeth are the same size as those of a tiger, even though a tiger is 10 times larger in body size! It has relatively short legs and broad paws, which make it excellent at climbing trees and creeping through thick forest. They are arboreal and nocturnal inhabitants. They are one of the only cats in the world that can climb down, hang upside down from, and hunt in trees. It is a shy and elusive wildcat. It is a solitary animal. They have a lifespan of around 13-17 years. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Both the species are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/stunning-video-reveals-the-secret-life-of-endangered-clouded-leopards-in-northeast-india-9022868

Question 74

Which of the following countries has developed the Dark Eagle Hypersonic Missile System, recently seen in the news?

Answer 74

The United States Explanation : The United States recently deployed its ‘Dark Eagle’ Long-Range Hypersonic Weapon (LRHW) during the Talisman Sabre military drills in Australia. About Dark Eagle Hypersonic Missile System: The Long-Range Hypersonic Weapon (LRHW), or “Dark Eagle,” is a hypersonic missile system of the United States Army. The missile component of the LRHW is reportedly being developed by Lockheed Martin and Northrop Grumman. Built for strategic attack missions, the weapon is capable of penetrating anti-access/area-denial (A2/AD) defenses, suppressing long-range enemy fires, and delivering rapid precision effects when and where they are needed. Features: It is a land-based hypersonic weapon designed to strike targets at distances of up to 1,700 miles (2,735 kilometers). It comprises a mobile ground-based battery equipped with four Transporter Erector Launchers (TEL), supported by command and control elements, with each TEL capable of launching two missiles for a total of eight. The system’s ballistic missile features two stages, one of which includes a hypersonic glide warhead (C-HGB), an unpowered but highly maneuverable vehicle capable of reaching extreme speeds of Mach 17, making interception particularly difficult. The missile climbs to the edge of space, flies through the upper atmosphere out of reach of most enemy defenses, then maneuvers toward its target. Each hypersonic missile is powered by a solid-fueled two-stage rocket booster. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/big-milestone-u-s-deploys-hypersonic-missile-in-australia/#google_vignette

Question 75

With reference to Great Barrier Reef, consider the following: 1. It is located in the Pacific Ocean off the northeastern coast of Australia. 2. It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world. 3. It is the largest living structure on Earth. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 75

All the three Explanation : The Great Barrier Reef has recorded its steepest decline in hard coral cover in almost four decades, as climate change-induced heat stress, cyclones and outbreaks of coral-eating starfish drive the ecosystem to the brink. About Great Barrier Reef: It is a complex of coral reefs, shoals, and islets in the Pacific Ocean off the northeastern coast of Australia in the Coral Sea. It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world and is the largest living structure on Earth. It extends in roughly a northwest-southeast direction for more than 2,000 km, at an offshore distance ranging from 16 to 160 km, and its width ranges from 60 to 250 km. It has an area of some 350,000 sq.km. It makes up about 10 percent of the world’s coral reef ecosystems. The reef, which is large enough to be visible from space, actually consists of some 2,100 individual reefs and some 800 fringing reefs (formed around islands or bordering coastlines). It contains 400 types of coral, 1,500 species of fishes, and 4,000 types of mollusks species. The reef is also home to six of the seven known species of sea turtles, more than a dozen sea snakes, and nearly two dozen species of birds. It also holds great scientific interest as the habitat of species such as the dugong (‘sea cow’) and the large green turtle, which are threatened with extinction. Much of the Great Barrier Reef is a marine protected area, managed by the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park Authority of Australia. UNESCO declared the Great Barrier Reef a World Heritage Site in 1981. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/climate-change-drives-sharpest-great-barrier-reef-coral-loss-in-nearly-40-years

Question 76

Consider the following statements regarding France: 1. It is one of the oldest nations and bordered by Belgium and Luxembourg. 2. It is bounded by the Bay of Biscay in the south. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 76

1 only Explanation : Recently, a massive wildfire has scorched through 16,000 hectares (39,537 acres) of forest and villages in southern France. It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. It is one of the oldest nations on Earth and the most ethnically diverse country in Europe. Bordering countries: It is bordered by 7 countries: Belgium, Luxembourg, Germany, Switzerland, Italy, Spain and Andorra. It is also bounded by the Bay of Biscay (North Atlantic Ocean) in the west; by the English Channel in the northwest and by the Mediterranean Sea in the south. Major Rivers: Loire (drains into Atlantic ocean ), Seine (drains into English channel). Major Mountains: Alps (southern France), Jura Mountains (north of Alps), Pyrenees (forms border with Spain). Natural Resources: coal, iron ore, bauxite, zinc, uranium, antimony, arsenic, potash, feldspar, fluorspar, gypsum, It has 5 overseas regions namely: Guadeloupe, Guyane (French Guiana), La Réunion (Réunion), Martinique and Mayotte Capital City: Paris Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.reuters.com/sustainability/climate-energy/massive-french-wildfire-now-contained-16000-hectares-affected-local-authorities-2025-08-08/

Question 77

Consider the following statements regarding Notary Portal: 1. It is a dedicated platform for providing online services for the works related to the Notaries Act, 1952. 2. It issues a digitally signed certificate of practice as a Notary in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 77

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Law and Justice informed the Rajya Sabha about the Notary Portal. It was launched by the Government of India as a dedicated platform for providing online services for the works related to the Notaries Act, 1952 and the Notaries Rules, 1956. Objectives: The objective of the Notary Portal is to provide an online interface between the Notaries appointed by the Central Government and the Government of India for various services like, Submission of applications for appointment as Notaries, Verification of eligibility for appointment as Notaries, Issuance of digitally signed Certificate of Practice as a Notary, Also renewal of Certificate of Practice, change of practice area, submission of annual return etc. The Notary Portal provides a faceless, paperless, transparent and efficient system. Presently, the module related to verification of documents and eligibility, and issuance of digitally singed Certificate of Practice to the newly appointed Notaries is live. It was launched in association with NIC has been designed and developed with different modules which shall be rolled out in phases. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153522#:~:text

Question 78

With reference to Hepatitis D, consider the following: 1. It is a serious liver infection caused by the Hepatitis D virus. 2. It requires Hepatitis B virus (HBV) for its replication. 3. It can only transmit through sexual contact. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 78

Only two Explanation : Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) announced the reclassification of hepatitis D as cancerous, emphasising the urgency for preventing viral hepatitis, which is a growing public health crisis. It is a serious liver infection caused by the hepatitis D virus (HDV). It is an incompetent virus that requires hepatitis B virus (HBV) for replication. This means it cannot cause infection alone and triggers co-infections only with the hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis D only affects people who already have hepatitis B either simultaneously or sequentially. Hepatitis B & D co-infection runs a more severe course for risk of cirrhosis and liver cancer. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer even without causing cirrhosis as it gets integrated in the DNA of cells. Hepatitis D virus augments the carcinogenic effect of Hepatitis B. All types of hepatitis are associated with acute liver infection; however, only hepatitis B, C, and D can lead to chronic infections with a higher risk of liver cirrhosis, failure or cancer. Hepatitis D is associated with a two- to six-fold higher risk of liver cancer compared with hepatitis B. Transmission: The mode of transmission is similar to hepatitis B and C,that is through parenteral route or injections and transfusion, mother to child transmission and sexual contact. Prevention: Universal hepatitis B vaccination indirectly prevents hepatitis D. Hepatitis B vaccine may be given in any of the following schedules: Birth, 1 and 6 months; birth, 6 and 14 weeks; 6, 10 and 14 weeks; birth, 6, 10 and 14 weeks. In catch up vaccination, use 0, 1 and 6 months schedule. An adult, especially if in a high risk comorbidity group, should take the hepatitis B vaccine in three shots. The second dose is given a month after the first, and the third dose is given six months after the second. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/who-hepatitis-d-cancer-hepatitis-b-vaccine-10171005/

Question 79

Consider the following statements regarding Ectopic Pregnancy: 1. It is the condition in which the fertilised egg, instead of implanting in the uterus,implants outside of it. 2. It occurs due to genetic mutation of the fertilized egg. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 79

1 only Explanation : A recent case of pregnancy stunned doctors in Bulandhshahr, Uttar Pradesh: an MRI scan revealed a fetus growing in the liver and this extremely rare condition is known as an intrahepatic ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilised egg, instead of implanting itself in the uterus, implants outside of it, commonly in the fallopian tube. It most often occurs in a fallopian tube, which carries eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. This type of ectopic pregnancy is called a tubal pregnancy. It sometimes occurs in other areas of the body, such as the ovary, abdominal cavity or the lower part of the uterus (cervix), which connects to the vagina. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilised egg attaches itself to a structure other than the uterus. Reasons for Ectopic pregnancies Ectopic pregnancies occur when the movement of the fertilised egg is blocked. This could occur due to inflammation or scarring of the fallopian tubes, damage to the fallopian tubes (due to prior surgeries or infections), or an irregularly-shaped fallopian tube. Symptoms of Ectopic pregnancies It may also be similar to those in early pregnancy such as a missed period, nausea and tenderness of breasts. Other symptoms may become noticeable later and may include: vaginal bleeding, pain in the lower abdomen, as well as pelvic and back pain, dizziness, pain in the shoulder, discomfort during bowel movements, and low blood pressure. Treatment: In some cases doctors suggest using a medication called methotrexate to stop the fertilized egg from growing, ending the pregnancy. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-you-need-to-know-about-ectopic-pregnancies/article69901000.ece

Question 80

Consider the following statements regarding SheLeads Programme: 1. It is a flagship initiative of the UN Women India Country Office. 2. It is aimed to advance gender equality in public and political leadership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 80

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister for Women and Child Development inaugurated the second edition of UN Women’s flagship capacity-building programme — SheLeads II: Workshop for Women Leaders, in New Delhi. It is a flagship initiative of the UN Women India Country Office. Aim: It is aimed to advance gender equality in public and political leadership, aiming to support women leaders in contesting the upcoming/next Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections. It is an effort to ensure women have the platform, skills, and networks to step into roles such as shaping policies and governance that reflect the aspirations of all citizens with confidence. Significance: This initiative is pivotal in equipping women with the skills and networks needed to lead from the front, ensuring that the development agenda is truly inclusive and representative of every voice. Key Facts about UN Women It is the United Nations (UN) entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of women. It was created in July 2010 by the UN General Assembly. The creation of UN Women came about as part of the UN reform agenda, bringing together resources and mandates for greater impact. The main roles of UN Women are: To support inter-governmental bodies, such as the Commission on the Status of Women, in their formulation of policies, global standards, and norms. To help member states implement these standards, standing ready to provide suitable technical and financial support to those countries that request it, and to forge effective partnerships with civil society. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153422

Question 81

The Dardanelles Strait connects which two water bodies? A. Black Sea and Aegean Sea B. Sea of Marmara and Mediterranean Sea C. Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara D. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Answer 81

Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara Explanation : Turkey recently closed the Dardanelles strait to shipping traffic due to forest fires in the area. About Dardanelles Strait: It is a narrow strait in northwestern Turkey, connecting the Aegean Sea and the Sea of Marmara. It also separates the continent of Europe from the westernmost tip of Asia Minor. The strait is named for the ancient city of Dardanus. In ancient times it was called the Hellespont, meaning “Helle’s sea,” in memory of Helle, a mythical princess. It is one of the narrowest straits used for international navigation. The Dardanelles has a length of 61 km and a width ranging from 1.2 to 6.5 km. Another strait, called the Bosporus, connects the Sea of Marmara with the Black Sea. Together the Bosporus and the Dardanelles provide the only sea connection between the lands lying on the Black Sea and the rest of the world. The Gallipoli Peninsula lies along the western side of the Dardanelles Strait. Major ports along its shores include Gallipoli, Eceabat, and Çanakkale, all in Turkey. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.msn.com/en-ae/news/middleeast/turkey-closes-dardanelles-strait-due-to-forest-fire/ar-AA1KadLe

Question 82

Consider the following statements regarding Barak River: 1. It is the second largest river in Northeast India after the Brahmaputra. 2. The Barak River basin drains India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 82

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Communities along the Barak River say their nets have been empty following the June floods in a region once teeming with Hilsa, Rohu, and Catla. About Barak River: It is the second largest river in Northeast India after the Brahmaputra. It runs through Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in India, and Bangladesh. Course: Origin: It rises from the Manipur hills, south of Mao in the Senapati district of Manipur, at an elevation of 2,331 m. It flows then along the Nagaland-Manipur border through hilly terrains and enters Assam. Just before flowing into the neighboring country of Bangladesh, the Barak splits into the Surma River and the Kusiyara River. These two rivers meet to form the Meghna River, which flows southward, joins the Padma River, and finally drains into the Bay of Bengal. Length: Barak has a length of about 900 km. It spans 524 km in India, with a significant part along the Indo-Bangladesh border. The Barak River basin, formed by the Barak and its tributaries, drains India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. The major part of the basin is covered with forest, accounting for 72.58% of the total area, and only 1.92% of the basin is covered by water bodies. The basin is bounded by the Barail Range in the north, the Naga and Lushai Hills in the east, and Bangladesh in the south and west. Tributaries: The key tributaries of the Barak River are Jiri, Chiri, Modhura, Jatinga, Harang, Kalain, Gumra, Dhaleswari, Singla, Longai, Sonai, and Katakhal. The composite Ganga–Brahmaputra–Meghna basin covers nearly one-third of the land area of India. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/gone-with-the-flood-no-fish-in-barak-river-for-two-months-say-assam-fishers

Question 83

The Lepcha tribe primarily resides in which Indian states? A. West Bengal and Assam B. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand C. Nagaland and Manipur D. Sikkim and West Bengal

Answer 83

Sikkim and West Bengal Explanation : Sikkim recently celebrated Tendong Lho Rum Faat, the traditional nature-worshipping festival of the primitive Lepcha tribe. About Lepcha Tribe: They are an indigenous people of eastern Nepal, western Bhutan, Sikkim state, and the Darjeeling district of West Bengal. They are classified as a Scheduled Tribe in the state of Sikkim. The Lepchas call themselves ‘Rongs’ or ‘Rongkups’. They occupy the southern and eastern slopes of Mt. Kanchenjunga (world’s third highest mountain). The region Lepchas inhabit varies in elevation from 230 m (750 ft) in the Sikkim basin to the summit of Kanchenjunga at 8,586 m (28,168 ft) above sea level. They are thought to be the earliest inhabitants of Sikkim but have adopted many elements of the culture of the Bhutia people, who entered Sikkim from Tibet in the 14th century and afterward. While some intermarriage has occurred between the two groups, they tend to stay apart and to speak their own languages, which are dialects of Tibetan. They speak the language of Lepcha, which has its own script based on Sanskrit. They are a vanishing tribe with a dwindling population. Lepcha has an estimated population of around 42,909 individuals at the time of the Indian Census 2011. Livelihood: Traditionally hunters and gatherers, the Lepchā now also engage in farming and cattle breeding. Religion and Beliefs: Originally, Lepchas were nature worshipers and had belief in witch-craftship and spirits. But in due course they embarrassed Buddhism. The community would traditionally have worshiped Mt. Kanchenjunga, which they regard as their guardian deity. They have regular festivals involving singing and dancing, as well as archery contests. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://eastmojo.com/sikkim/2025/08/08/sikkim-lepcha-tribe-festival-tendong-lho-rum-faat-celebrated/#google_vignette

Question 84

Khorramshahr-5 is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by which country?

Answer 84

Iran Explanation : Iran may have developed or prepared for testing its first intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), called Khorramshahr-5, according to recent reports. About Khorramshahr-5: It is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by Iran. It is said to have an operational range of 12,000 kilometers. The missile's speed has been reported to be Mach 16 (approximately 20,000 km/h), typical of ICBMs in mid- or terminal flight. It can reportedly carry a heavy warhead weighing approximately two tons. What is an Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)? An ICBM is a powerful long-range missile designed mainly to carry and deliver nuclear weapons. Range: ICBMs can travel over 5,500 kilometers, with some capable of reaching up to 16,000 kilometers. Speed: They can fly at speeds faster than 20,000 kilometers per hour, making them hard to intercept. Payload: ICBMs are usually equipped with nuclear warheads but could theoretically carry other weapons, like chemical or biological ones, though this is rare. Deployment: These missiles can be launched from underground silos, mobile land launchers, or submarines at sea. Countries with Operational ICBMs: The countries that have operational ICBMs include Russia, the United States, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea. India’s Agni V is a solid-fueled ICBM. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.news18.com/videos/world/iran-joins-icbm-club-12-000km-khorramshahr-5-missile-puts-us-mainland-within-range-4k-9494178.html

Question 85

Shri Banke Bihari Temple, recently seen in the news, is located in which state?

Answer 85

Uttar Pradesh Explanation : The Supreme Court recently expressed displeasure over the orders passed by Allahabad High Court in a PIL over the historic Banke Bihari Temple in Vrindavan and questioned the use of “intemperate language” against the Uttar Pradesh government. About Shri Banke Bihari Temple: It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Krishna in the holy city of Vrindavan in the Mathura District of Uttar Pradesh. ‘Banke’ means bent, and ‘Bihari’ refers to Vihari, or enjoyer. In this temple, the principal deity stands in the ‘tribhanga’ posture, which is tilted at three angles. Hence, Lord Krishna, who is bent at three places, got the name “Banke”. It was established by Swami Haridas, a guru of the famous singer Tansen. The present temple complex housing ‘Banke Bihari’ was constructed in 1864 and is a unique example of Indian craftsmanship. Architecture of the temple is influenced by the Rajasthani style, with arches and pillars adding to its magnificence. In this temple, from the walls to the ceiling, the pictures of the deities have been painted through oil paintings. One unique feature of the Banke Bihari temple is that there are no bells or conchs on the premises. In the freedom struggle, this temple was the main center of revolutionary activities; from here, the revolutionary newspaper “Bundelkhand Kesari” was published secretly. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/sc-raps-allahabad-hc-over-intemperate-remarks-on-banke-bihari-temple-ordinance-101754670782604.html

Question 86

Consider the following statements regarding Steel Import Monitoring System (SIMS) 2.0 Portal: 1. It provides advance information about steel imports to both, the government as well as relevant stakeholders. 2. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 86

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Government of India has revised the advance registration period to apply for registration on the Steel Import Monitoring System (SIMS) 2.0 portal for import of all steel products, except some items. SIMS 2.0 Portal was launched by the Union Ministry of Steel, Government of India. SIMS was introduced in 2019, has played a crucial role in providing detailed steel import data to the domestic industry. Features of SIMS 2.0 Portal It provides advance information about steel imports to both, the government as well as relevant stakeholders. It features API integration with multiple government portals, enhancing quality control and streamlining processes for improved efficiency and effectiveness. The portal boasts a robust data entry system, ensuring consistent and authentic data, which promotes transparency and accountability. Integration of various databases enables stakeholders to locate areas of risk and, thereby, permit better risk management. Based on industry feedback, the Ministry has revamped the portal to develop a more effective SIMS 2.0, a significant step forward in monitoring steel imports and promoting the growth of the domestic steel industry. Significance: Availability of such detailed data not only provides input for policy making but also signals areas for production and growth to the domestic steel industry Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154115

Question 87

Consider the following statements regarding the CATCH Grant Program: 1. It seeks to support the development of innovative Artificial Intelligence (AI) solutions to strengthen cancer screening. 2. It is funded by the IndiaAI and the National Cancer Grid (NCG). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 87

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, IndiaAI Independent Business Division (IBD), in collaboration with the National Cancer Grid (NCG), has announced the launch of the Cancer AI & Technology Challenge (CATCH) Grant Program. It seeks to support the development and deployment of innovative Artificial Intelligence (AI) solutions to strengthen cancer screening, diagnostics, treatment support, and healthcare operations across India. Grants: This Program will provide up to ₹50 lakh per project to selected teams comprising technology innovators and clinical institutions. The grants will be co-funded by IndiaAI and NCG. The initiative is designed to catalyse piloted deployment of AI solutions within the NCG hospital network, with the potential for future scale-up based on demonstrated clinical impact and operational readiness. Successful pilot projects may also be eligible for an additional scale-up grant of up to ₹1 crore, facilitated by IndiaAI, for wider deployment across the NCG network or through national implementation pathways. The Challenge will focus on high-impact categories including AI-enabled screening, diagnostics, clinical decision support, patient engagement, operational efficiency, research, and data curation. A total of up to 10 proposals will be selected for piloting under this round, based on technical maturity, feasibility, and alignment with healthcare delivery needs. Who are eligible? Applicants may include startups, health technology companies, academic institutions, and public or private hospitals. Joint applications from Clinical Leads (hospitals or clinicians) and Technical Leads (technology developers) are encouraged. The program will emphasis responsible AI development, clinical validation, and readiness for deployment in Indian healthcare contexts. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154341

Question 88

With reference to MERITE Scheme, consider the following: 1. It is a ‘Central Sector Scheme’ which will be implemented in government engineering institutions and Polytechnics in all States/ UTs. 2. It aims to improve the quality, equity and governance in technical education. 3. It has been formulated in collaboration with the Asian Development Bank. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 88

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for implementation of the ‘Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education’ (MERITE) Scheme. It is a ‘Central Sector Scheme’ which will be implemented in government engineering institutions and Polytechnics in all States/ UTs. This scheme has been formulated in collaboration with the World Bank. Objective: To improve the quality, equity and governance in technical education covering all States/UTs by implementing interventions aligned with the National Educational Policy-2020 (NEP-2020). Funding: Total financial implication of Rs.4200 crore for a period from 2025-26 to 2029-30. Out of Rs.4200 crore, there will be an external assistance of Rs.2100 crore from World Bank as loan. It will have the facility of funds transfer from the Central Government to participating entities through a Central Nodal Agency. Eminent educational institutions like the IITs and IIMs and regulatory bodies in the higher education sector such as the AICTE, NBA etc. will also play a significant role in the scheme implementation. The initiative emphasizes enhancing students' skills to improve their employability through a comprehensive, multi-faceted approach. Key interventions include offering internship opportunities, updating curricula to align with industry requirements, organizing faculty development programs, and setting up research hubs. Additionally, support will be provided to incubation and innovation centers, skill and maker labs, and language workshops. Benefits of MERITE Scheme An estimated 275 Government/ Government-aided technical institutions are expected to be selected and supported under the scheme. This will include selected National Institutes of Technology (NITs), State Engineering Institutions, Polytechnics and Affiliating Technical Universities (ATUs). Apart from this, the State/ UT departments handling technical education sector will also be supported through MERITE scheme. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154119

Question 89

Nauru, an island nation, which was recently in news, is located in:

Answer 89

Pacific Ocean Explanation : A remote Pacific nation Nauru selling passports to fund climate action has approved just six applicants since early this year. Location: Nauru is an island nation and a microstate in Oceania, located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. The island is about 1,300 km northeast of the Solomon Islands; its closest neighbour is the island of Banaba, in Kiribati, some 300 km to the east. Topography: Nauru is a raised, fossilized coral atoll and is one of the three great phosphate rock islands in the Pacific Ocean. The island is dominated by a central phosphate plateau which is surrounded by coral cliffs. Phosphate mining has ravaged the interior of the island, leaving about four-fifths of it uninhabitable and uncultivable. It has no official capital city. Located on the southern coast of the island country is the district of Yaren – the de facto capital of Nauru. Language: Their native language is Nauruan, but English is widely spoken as it is used for government and commercial purposes. Political structure: Its constitution, adopted upon gaining independence in 1968, established it as a republic with a Westminster-style parliamentary system of government. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/143037/OPS/GJCEN23RJ.1+GJCEO47LR.1.html

Question 90

Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Forecast System: 1. It is an indigenously built advanced weather forecasting system. 2. It was developed with the objective of generating forecasts at the cluster of panchayats level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 90

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Earth Sciences informed the Rajya Sabha about the Bharat Forecast System. It is an indigenously built advanced weather forecasting system. It is based on the newly implemented Triangular Cubic Octahedral (TCo) dynamical grid that enables the model to operate at 6 km horizontal resolution, surpassing its predecessor (GFS T1534 ~ 12km) and typical global operational models having horizontal resolution of 9–14 km. Supercomputing facilities Arka (IITM-Pune) and Arunika (NCMRWF-Noida), enabled the model to be used for real-time weather prediction. The BharatFS was developed with the objective of generating forecasts at the cluster of panchayats level and improving the prediction of extremes. In research mode, it has demonstrated significant improvement in the rainfall forecast over the core monsoon region and 30% better accuracy for the extreme rainfall forecast compared to the previous operational model. With the increase in horizontal resolution, the BharatFS is capable of generating distinct forecasts every 6 km. It has demonstrated significant improvement in the skill of predicting the core monsoon region rainfall, with a 30% improvement in the accuracy for the forecasting of extreme rainfall events. The BharatFS was developed by a team of scientists from Indian institutions like IITM-Pune, with support from the NCMRWF-Noida and the India Meteorological Department (IMD). The development and launch of BharatFS has enabled India to upgrade its meteorological services and support neighboring countries, reinforcing regional leadership and self-reliance. Significance: This allows the capturing of local weather features, thus enabling the forecasts to cater to a cluster of panchayats/villages. Localized forecasts help farmers with crop planning, irrigation, and harvesting. Additionally, water authorities can better manage reservoirs during monsoons, reducing flood risk and improving yield resilience. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153585#:~:text

Question 91

Which among the following best describes ‘Heptapleurum assamicum’, recently seen in the news? A. A newly discovered freshwater fish species B. A newly discovered evergreen shrub species. C. An invasive weed species. D. A type of algae.

Answer 91

A newly discovered evergreen shrub species. Explanation : Scientists have recently identified a new plant species in Assam’s Dima Hasao and West Karbi Anglong districts — a lush, evergreen shrub now named Heptapleurum assamicum. About Heptapleurum assamicum: It is a new plant species. A lush, evergreen shrub, Heptapleurum assamicum was discovered in Assam’s Dima Hasao and West Karbi Anglong districts. It belongs to the family Araliaceae, which also includes the familiar ornamental “umbrella plant” (H. arboricola). However, this wild Assamese relative carries several distinctive traits: Its leaflets are narrow and lance-shaped, never more than 1.2 cm wide. Its flowers are a striking purple rather than the greenish-yellow of its ornamental cousin. Its compact inflorescences bear up to 15 flowers per umbel. The fruit, when ripe, turns a deep reddish-purple and is speckled with orange-red glands — an unusual feature even within the genus. The plant flowers between January and March, with fruits ripening by May. Its current known population is tiny and highly localised, making it potentially vulnerable to environmental changes. For now, it has been categorised as “Data Deficient” under IUCN criteria. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://eastmojo.com/free-digest/2025/08/09/assam-umbrella-plant-new-species-discovered-in-kopili-river-basin/

Question 92

Consider the following statements regarding Chitons: 1. They are bilaterally symmetrical freshwater invertebrates. 2. They occur only in tropical regions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 92

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : A groundbreaking new study published recently reveals that chitons grow teeth that aren’t just hard; they're harder than stainless steel, zirconium oxide, and even human enamel. About Chitons: They are flattened, bilaterally symmetrical marine invertebrates. Chitons belong to the phylum Mollusca (along with sea snails, sea slugs, and bivalves). Chitons occur only in marine habitats. They are worldwide in distribution but most abundant in warm regions. The approximately 600 species are usually placed in the class Placophora, Polyplacophora, or Loricata. Features: Chitons are usually oval in shape. They vary in appearance and can be found in shades of grey and brown, red, green, and pink. On the dorsal (upper) surface is a row of eight overlapping plates surrounded or covered by a tough girdle. Chitons use a large, flat foot for creeping along and clinging to rocks; they also have a well-developed radula (filelike structure) with which to scrape algae and other plant food from rocks. On either side of the foot is a groove containing the gills. About 5 cm (2 inches) is the maximum length of most chitons. Chitons are very flexible and can fit snugly into rock crevices or curl into a ball when detached. They can also adhere so firmly to rocks that they may be injured when pried loose. Life span typically ranges from a few years to 20 years. Most are nocturnal in habit. Hence both statements are not correct. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/study-reveals-natures-hardest-teeth-chitons-inspire-future-material-design/articleshow/123192567.cms

Question 93

Which of the following is not an activity undertaken by NOTTO at the national level? A. Creating awareness about deceased organ donation. B. Coordinating procurement and distribution of organs outside the region. C. Developing a National Registry for organ donation and transplantation. D. Regulating pharmaceutical manufacturing of organ preservation drugs.

Answer 93

Regulating pharmaceutical manufacturing of organ preservation drugs. Explanation : The National Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) recently issued a 10-point advisory stating that women patients and relatives of deceased donors awaiting organ transplants will get priority as beneficiaries. About National Organ And Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO): It is a national-level organization set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in New Delhi. The establishment of NOTTO is mandated as per the Transplantation of human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Act of 2011. It functions as the apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for: procurement and distribution of organs and tissues; and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country It has the following two divisions: National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network National Biomaterial Centre The following activities are undertaken at National Level by NOTTO to facilitate Organ Transplantation in the safest way in the shortest possible time and to collect data and develop and publish National Registry. Lay down policy guidelines and protocols for various functions. Network with similar regional and state-level organizations. All registry data from States and regions would be compiled and published. Creating awareness and promotion of deceased organ donation and transplantation activities. Co-ordination from procurement of organs and tissues to transplantation when organs are allocated outside the region. Dissemination of information to all concerned organizations, hospitals, and individuals. Monitoring of transplantation activities in the regions and States and maintaining a data-bank in this regard. To assist the states in data management, organ transplant surveillance & Organ transplant and Organ Donor registry. Consultancy support on the legal and non-legal aspects of donation and transplantation Coordinate and organize training for various cadres of workers. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/women-kin-of-deceased-donors-to-get-priority-in-organ-transplant-says-govt/article69913672.ece

Question 94

Consider the following statements regarding the Mississippi River: 1. It is the longest river in the United States. 2. It flows into the Pacific Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 94

1 only Explanation : Two people died when a helicopter crashed into a barge in the Mississippi River near East Alton, Illinois, recently. About Mississippi River: It is the longest river in the United States and the second longest in North America. It starts at Lake Itasca in northern Minnesota and flows south until it reaches the Gulf of Mexico. The major tributaries are the Red, Arkansas, Illinois, Missouri, and Ohio. The Mississippi River alone is more than 2,300 miles (3,700 kilometers) long. If the length of the Missouri River system is added, the Mississippi-Missouri is the world’s fourth longest river system, following the Nile (4,160 miles/6,693km), the Amazon (4,000 miles/6,436km), and the Yangtze Rivers (3,964 miles/6,378km). The Mississippi River basin drains 1,260,000 square miles, making it the largest drainage basin in terms of area in North America. The basin is home to different ecosystems, including wet forests dominated by cypress trees, brackish and freshwater marshes, sandy beaches, and salt marshes. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/2-dead-as-helicopter-crashes-into-barge-in-mississippi-river-near-illinois-125080800016_1.html

Question 95

Which among the following best describes ‘Parthenium’, recently seen in the news? A. A drought-resistant variety of rice. B. A newly discovered antibiotic compound. C. An invasive weed species. D. A rare medicinal herb.

Answer 95

An invasive weed species. Explanation : As a part of a three-day campaign of Parthenium Free Pobitora, about 5.2 hectares of the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam‘s Morigaon district were cleared of Parthenium, or Congress grass, an invasive weed, by the forest staff recently. About Parthenium: Parthenium hysterophorus L., commonly known as carrot weed, white top, or congress grass in India, is an herbaceous, erect, and annual plant belonging to the family Asteracae (compositae). It is a poisonous, pernicious, problematic, allergic, and aggressive weed posing a serious threat to human beings and livestock. In India, this weed has been considered as one of the greatest sources of dermatitis, asthma, nasal-dermal and nasal-bronchial types of diseases. Besides ill effects, it also causes several other problems, like blockage of common pathways, and reduces the aesthetic values of parks, gardens, and residential colonies. It is a nuisance on roadsides and railway tracks, vacant lands, wastelands, industrial areas, and on the sides of open drainage systems and irrigation canals, besides invading agricultural crops, orchards, and forest areas. It is most popularly known as gajar ghas due to its appearance like a carrot plant. The origin of parthenium is considered to be from Mexico, America, Trinidad, and Argentina. After the noticeable occurrence of parthenium in Pune (Maharashtra) in 1955, it has spread like a wildfire throughout India. At present parthenium has invaded about 35 million hectares of land in India. It mainly spreads through seeds. A single plant can produce about 5000 – 25000 seeds. The seeds are very small in size and light in weight. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://northeastlivetv.com/topnews/assam-5-2-hectares-of-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary-cleared-of-parthenium/

Question 96

Consider the following statements regarding FAO Food Price Index: 1. It measures monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities 2. It consists of the average of only cereal and vegetable prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 96

1 only Explanation : Recently, the United Nations' Food and Agriculture Organization said that world food commodity prices rose in July to their highest in over two years. The Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) food price index is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities. It consists of the average of five commodity group price indices (cereal, vegetable, dairy, meat and sugar), weighted with the average export shares. Base year: 2014-16 Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.reuters.com/business/world-food-prices-2-year-high-rising-meat-edible-oils-fao-says-2025-08-08/

Question 97

Consider the following statements regarding the MANAS Helpline: 1. It empowers citizens to fight against the drug menace in India. 2. It has a provision of anonymously reporting any information related to drug trafficking. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 97

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State in the Ministry of Home Affairs informed the success of MANAS Helpline in the Rajya Sabha. Madak-Padarth Nished Asoochna Kendra (MANAS) Helpline was launched on 18th July 2024 by the Government of India. Objective: It empowers citizens to fight against the drug menace and to function as a secure, citizen-centric platform to enable anonymous reporting of drug trafficking, illicit cultivation, and related offences. Features of MANAS Helpline It also extends support for counselling and rehabilitation, thereby strengthening the participation of citizens in combating the drug menace. It is developed as a unified, secure and bilingual digital platform, MANAS offers citizens a seamless, confidential and multi-channel interface to report drug-related issues and access rehabilitation resources. Citizens can utilize the MANAS Helpline for: Anonymously report any information related to drug trafficking, storage, manufacturing or cultivation. Seek counselling and rehabilitation guidance through integrated transfer to Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) Helpline 14446. Access awareness resources (posters, videos, brochures) via the MANAS web portal for public outreach. Engage in awareness activities, through quizzes, poster-making, and reel-making contests on the MyGov platform, amplifying the Drug-Free Bharat campaign. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153181

Question 98

With reference to Human African Trypanosomiasis disease, consider the following: 1. It is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bite of infected tsetse flies. 2. It is endemic to South East Asian countries. 3. It is more prevalent amongst rural populations which depend on agriculture. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 98

Only two Explanation : Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) certified Kenya as having eliminated human African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness. It is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bite of infected tsetse flies. It is also known as sleeping sickness and is endemic in sub-Saharan Africa. Symptoms of Human African Trypanosomiasis It shows initially symptoms such as fever, headaches, and joint pain, but can progress to neurological issues like confusion, disrupted sleep, and behavioural changes. First signs and symptoms emerge a few weeks or months after infection. The disease develops rapidly with multi-organ invasion, including the brain. It takes 2 forms, depending on the subspecies of the infecting parasite: Trypanosoma brucei gambiense: It is found in 24 countries of west and central Africa, currently accounts for 92% of reported cases and causes a chronic illness. A person can be infected for months or even years without major signs or symptoms. When evident symptoms emerge, often the disease is advanced with the central nervous system already affected. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense: It is found in 13 countries of eastern and southern Africa accounts for 8% of reported cases and causes an acute disease. Who are at risk? It is more prevalent amongst rural populations which depend on agriculture, fishing, animal husbandry or hunting are the most exposed. Till today, WHO has validated the elimination of the gambiense form of HAT in seven countries: Togo (2020), Benin (2021), Ivory Coast (2021), Uganda (2022), Equatorial Guinea (2022), Ghana (2023) ,Chad (2024) and Guinea (2025). Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/who-declares-kenya-free-of-sleeping-sickness/

Question 99

Sea of Galilee, which was recently in news, is located in:

Answer 99

Israel Explanation : Recently, the Sea of Galilee in Israel has turned red due to bloom of Botryococcus braunii algae. Location: It is a large freshwater lake situated in the northeastern part of Israel. It is considered the lowest freshwater lake on the planet and the world’s second-lowest lake after the Dead Sea. It is situated in Jordan Rift Valley primarily fed by the Jordan River and partly by underground springs. Throughout its history, the Sea of Galilee has been referred to by various names such as the Sea of Kinneret, Lake of Gennesaret, Sea of Ginosar, Sea of Tiberias, Lake of Tiberias, Bahr Tubariya, etc. Bordered by: It is bordered by the Plain of Gennesaret extends in the north to the northwest, and the Plain of Bet Ẓayda (Buteiha) in Syria extends to the northeast. To the west and southwest, the hills of Lower Galilee fall abruptly to the lake’s edge. What is Botryococcus braunii? It is a species of single-celled green algae found in freshwater or brackish lakes. It is characterized by its ability to produce significant quantities of hydrocarbons and its formation of biofilms that consist of polysaccharides and biopolymers for structural support and protection. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.wionews.com/trending/culprit-turning-the-world-oceans-red-has-reached-israel-sea-of-galilee-1754574410620

Question 100

Consider the following statements regarding S.H.I.N.E. Initiative: 1. It is a unique initiative of Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). 2. It is aimed to introduce students to the field of health and biomedical research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 100

oth 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Department of Health Research (DHR) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) organized a nationwide open day titled S.H.I.N.E. initiative. SHINE stands for Science, Health and Innovation for Nextgen Explorers which is a nationwide student outreach Program. This is a unique initiative of Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to ignite scientific curiosity, foster innovation and inspire the next generation of health researchers. The initiative aimed to introduce students to the field of health and biomedical research, highlight ICMR’s contributions to improving the nation’s health, and motivate young learners to pursue careers in science and public health, The event drew more than 13,000 students in grades 9-12 from over 300 schools across 39 districts in 16 states and union territories to various ICMR institutes in the country The programme included a range of interactive activities such as guided laboratory tours, research exhibitions, poster walks, video presentations, and live demonstrations of ongoing scientific work. To make the experience more engaging, a mascot named Dr. Curio was introduced as a friendly and relatable guide for the students. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154054

Question 101

With reference to the Biosafety Levels (BSL), consider the following: 1. Risks related to containment 2. Origin of the microbe 3. Route of exposure 4. Severity of infection How many of the above are factors in the determination of a laboratory’s biosafety level?

Answer 101

All the four Explanation : Nehru Zoological Park, Hyderabad, will soon establish a Biosafety Level-3 (BSL-3) laboratory, the first of its kind in southern India, enabling rapid diagnosis, post-mortem analysis, and research on zoonotic diseases. About Biosafety levels (BSL): Biosafety levels (BSL), also known as biological safety levels or biohazard levels, define the necessary containment precautions for handling infectious agents in laboratory settings. They’re a mandatory requirement in any biological research facility. Biosafety levels contribute to the isolation of dangerous organisms and lethal agents. The levels of containment range from the lowest biosafety level 1 (BSL-1), to the highest at level 4 (BSL-4). Each BSL lab level builds upon the previous level—thereby creating layer upon layer of constraints and barriers. These lab levels are determined by the following: Risks related to containment Severity of infection Transmissibility Nature of the work conducted Origin of the microbe Agent in question Route of exposure BSL-1: It applies to laboratory settings in which personnel work with low-risk microbes that pose little to no threat of infection in healthy adults. Because of this, BSL-1 labs typically do not need to be isolated from surrounding facilities. BSL-2: It covers all laboratories that work with agents associated with human diseases — that is, pathogenic or infectious organisms — that pose a moderate health hazard if inhaled, ingested, or exposed to the skin. BSL-3: BSL-3 laboratory typically conducts research into or work on microbes that are either indigenous or exotic and can cause serious or potentially lethal disease through inhalation. BSL-4: BSL-4 labs are rare. As the highest level of biological safety, BSL-4 labs work with highly dangerous and exotic microbes. Infections caused by these types of microbes are often fatal and come without treatment or vaccines. At the lowest level of biosafety, precautions may consist of regular hand-washing and minimal protective equipment. At higher biosafety levels, precautions may include airflow systems, multiple containment rooms, sealed containers, positive pressure personnel suits, established protocols for all procedures, extensive personnel training, and high levels of security to control access to the facility. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://telanganatoday.com/nehru-zoological-park-to-set-up-southern-indias-first-in-house-bsl-3-lab-for-animal-disease-research

Question 102

Which among the following best describes Kasargodia sheebae, recently seen in the news? A. Indigenous medicinal herbs. B. Newly discovered freshwater fish species. C. New species of freshwater crabs. D. Rare species of frogs.

Answer 102

New species of freshwater crabs. Explanation : Recent studies launched by researchers have led to the discovery of a new genus and two new species of freshwater crabs named Kasargodia sheebae and Pilarta vaman from Western Ghats regions in Kerala. About Kasargodia sheebae and Pilarta vaman: They are two new species of freshwater crabs. They are discovered in the Western Ghats regions in Kerala. They belong to the freshwater crab family Gecarcinucidae. In the case of Kasargodia sheebae, the name of the new genus, Kasargodia, is derived from the northernmost Kerala district. Kasargodia sheebae is distinguished by a brownish-orange carapace with numerous black spots. The limbs bearing the claws are orange with black spots. The other new species, Pilarta vaman, is named after Vaman, one of the avatars of Vishnu in Hindu mythology. The name alludes to the small size of this crab. The carapace of this species is more quadrate. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-freshwater-crabs-discovered-in-the-western-ghats-in-kerala/article69913725.ece

Question 103

Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) is located in which state?

Answer 103

Karnataka Explanation : Two prominent religious institutions and two businessmen are among those served eviction notices in the Biligiri Ranganatha Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve recently. About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT): It is located in the BR Hills (Biligirirangana Hills) in Chamarajanagar District of Karnataka. This unique Bio-geographical habitat is in the middle of the bridge between Western and Eastern ghats It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011. It is spread over an area of 574.82 sq.km. and lies at an elevation of 5,091 feet above sea level. The reserve gets its name from Biligiri, meaning “white rocky cliff,” which is home to the ancient Rangaswamy Temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu. It is also believed that the hill range gets its name due to white mist and silvery clouds which cover these lofty hills for a greater part of the year. There is a tribal community living within the tiger reserve known as the Soliga tribe. Soligas was the first tribal community living inside a tiger reserve and getting their forest rights recognised by a court in a judgment in 2011. Vegetation: It is covered with a variety of species of plant life, including scrub, dry deciduous, moist deciduous, shola forests, and montane grasslands. Flora: The major species include Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, etc. Fauna: Animals including tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc., are found in the Tiger Reserve. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bengaluru/notice-to-religious-bodies-over-tiger-reserve-encroachments-3674781

Question 104

The Muthuvan Tribe, recently seen in the news, primarily resides in which Indian states?

Answer 104

Kerala and Tamil Nadu Explanation : A rare convention of the Muthuvan community has taken on a novel mission to protect their language and culture, organising a three-day special conference as part of the International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples. About Muthuvan Tribe: The Muthuvans, or Mudugars, live on the border hill forests of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. There are two different groups among the Muthuvan, and they speak slightly two different dialects. Hence, they call each other Malayalam Muthuvan and Pandi Muthuvan. They are known for coexisting with the wildlife with their traditional knowledge and understanding of hills. They have expertise in traditional medicines which are very effective and these medicines and the medicine men are confidentially preserved and passed on to the generations. Social Organization: The Muthuvan have six clans known as Koottams. Each koottam is again divided into sub clans. The functions of these divisions are mainly for marriage alliance, to keep up the social status, and to indicate descent and ancestry. The Muthuvan adhere to community endogamy and clan exogamy. These tribal people follow a unique system of governance called the ‘Kani System’. Under this system, each village is headed by a ‘Kani’, who is responsible for the administration of the village. They have various punishment methods for breaking their traditions and moral standards. Religion and Beliefs: They are animists and spirit worshippers and also worship the forest gods. They believe that the spirits of their ancestors are to be the first migrants to the hill forests. Occupation: Virippukrishi (a form of shifting cultivation) is their traditional means of livelihood, and they cultivate a wide variety of food grains that are used only for consumption. Ragi (Little Millet), Maize (Sorghum), Thina (Italian Millet), Varagu, Chama Rice, Tomato, Carrot, Sweet Potato, Potato, Cheeni Vala, Toppi, Mocha, etc., are principal food crops cultivated by the Muthuvan community. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/keralas-muthuvan-tribe-comes-together-to-protect-their-language-culture/article69913674.ece

Question 105

With reference to the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), consider the following: 1. It is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 2. It functions as the nodal agency in the country for disease surveillance, facilitating prevention and control of communicable diseases. 3. It also provides referral diagnostic support, capacity building, and technical support to States/UTs in the country. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 105

All the three Explanation : The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) recently issued several guidelines to combat illnesses arising out of water contamination. About National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC): It is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The institute was established to function as a national centre of excellence for control of communicable diseases. The Director, an officer of the Public Health sub-cadre of Central Health Service, is the administrative and technical head of the Institute. Headquarters: New Delhi. Besides the headquarters in Delhi, NCDC has 8 branches located at Alwar (Rajasthan), Bengaluru (Karnataka), Kozhikode (Kerala), Coonoor (Tamil Nadu), Jagdalpur (Chhattisgarh), Patna (Bihar), Rajahmundry (Andhra Pradesh), and Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh). History: NCDC, formerly the National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD), had its origin as the Central Malaria Bureau, established at Kasauli (Himachal Pradesh) in 1909, and following expansion, was renamed in 1927 as the Malaria Survey of India. The organization was shifted to Delhi in 1938 and called as the Malaria Institute of India (MII). In view of the drastic reduction achieved in the incidence of malaria under National Malaria Eradication Programme (NMEP), the Government of India decided to reorganize and expand the activities of the institute to cover other communicable diseases. Thus, in 1963, the erstwhile MII was renamed as the National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) to shoulder these additional responsibilities. In the year 2009, NICD transforms into National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) with a larger mandate of controlling emerging and re-emerging diseases. Functions: It functions as the nodal agency in the country for disease surveillance facilitating prevention and control of communicable diseases. In coordination with the State Governments, NCDC has the capacity and capability for disease surveillance, outbreak investigation, and rapid response to contain and combat outbreaks. It also deals with Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR), an emerging area of concern with far-reaching consequences. It also provides referral diagnostic support, capacity building, and technical support to States/UTs in the country. The mandate of the Institute broadly covers three areas viz. services, trained health manpower development, and research. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/policy/ncdc-releases-guidelines-to-combat-water-contamination-and-water-borne-diseases/123225816

Question 106

Consider the following statements regarding Blue Pinkgill Mushroom: 1. It is a rare species native to the Western Himalayan Region. 2. Its colour is derived from rare azulene pigments in it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 106

2 only Explanation : Recently, a burst of rare and colourful Blue Pinkgill fungi has been documented in the Kagaznagar forest division of the Komaram Bheem Asifabad district, of Telangana. It is referred as “sky-blue mushroom,” (scientific name: Entoloma hochstetteri) this genus of mushrooms has pink to purplish hues in their gills. It is a species native to New Zealand and famously featured on the country’s $50 note. Appearance of Blue Pinkgill Mushroom It is vivid blue mushroom, its colour derived from rare azulene pigments, Some are small, with a distinctive all-blue colour and slightly reddish-tinted gills from spores, thanks to azulene pigments. They have caps that can be flat or funnel-shaped, pink or white gills and stems that may be centrally or laterally attached. The spore print is typically pink to salmon-coloured, which helps in identification. Habitat: It is common in forests across New Zealand, where it grows in the ground between litter in the broadleaf forest. The Blue Pinkgill mushroom appears during the monsoon when the forest cover reaches saturation due to abundant rainfall, which creates perfect soil conditions for mushrooms to grow and thrive. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/good-news/2025/Aug/10/rare-blue-pinkgill-shuttlecock-mushrooms-spotted-in-telangana-forests

Question 107

Consider the following statements regarding National Medical Register: 1. It is a centralised database of registered medical practitioners in modern medicine, maintained by the National Medical Commission. 2. It aims to eliminate duplication and enable the public to access information on any doctor working in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 107

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare informed the Lok Sabha that application for issuance of an National Medical Register (NMR) Identification (ID) is voluntary. It is a centralised database of registered medical practitioners in modern medicine, maintained by the National Medical Commission (NMC). It was launched in August 2024 under Section 31 of the NMC Act, 2019, the register was introduced as a mandatory exercise for all registered medical practitioners. It aims to eliminate duplication and enable the public to access information on any doctor working in India. It contains information on each practitioner, including qualification, area of specialisation (in process), registration status, and date of registration, and assigns a unique identification number called the NMR ID. Each doctor’s record is linked to their Aadhaar ID for verification, with some data made public while sensitive information is restricted to specified individuals and institutions. State Medical Councils (SMCs) are responsible for verifying degrees and facilitating the process, with the portal dynamically updated for transparency and governance. Upon successful verification by the State Medical Council, the application is sent to the National Medical Commission. After the NMC verification, a unique NMR ID would be issued. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/national-medical-register-id-registration-voluntary-says-union-minister-anupriya-patel/article69913186.ece

Question 108

With reference to Colorado River, consider the following: 1. It rises in the Rocky Mountains of USA. 2. It forms an international boundary between US and Canada. 3. It flows into the Gulf of California. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 108

Only two Explanation : The Colorado River, a vital water source for millions, faces a crisis as its flow diminishes, prompting states to vie for future water rights. It is a major river of North America. Origin: It rises in the Rocky Mountains of Colorado, U.S. It flows generally west and south for 1,450 miles (2,330 kilometres) into the Gulf of California in northwestern Mexico. It flows through seven U.S. states and two Mexican states, providing water to over 40 million people. The river drains a vast arid and semiarid sector of the North American continent, and because of its intensive development it is often referred to as the “Lifeline of the Southwest.” Lakes: It forms several major reservoirs, including Lake Mead and Lake Powell. Colorado forms an international boundary between Arizona (US) and Mexico for about 29 kilometers. Tributaries: The Colorado River has several tributaries, including Green, Gunnison, San Juan, Dolores, Little Colorado, Gila, and Virgin Rivers. One of the Colorado River’s most famous features is the Grand Canyon, which it carved over millions of years. This breathtaking landscape is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a major tourist attraction. The river also flows through Canyonlands National Park and Horseshoe Bend in Arizona. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/as-the-colorado-river-slowly-dries-up-states-angle-for-influence-over-future-water-rights

Question 109

Barda Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently in news, is located in:

Answer 109

Gujarat Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in collaboration with the Forest and Environment Department, Government of Gujarat celebrated World Lion Day – 2025 at Barda Wildlife Sanctuary, Devbhumi Dwarka district, Gujarat. Location: It is located in the state of Gujarat. Rivers: There are two waterways, the Bileshvary River and the Joghri River, and two dams, Khambala and Fodara. Tribes: Ethnic races such as Maldharis, Bharvads, Rabaris, and Gadhvis live in this region. To develop Barda as the second home for the Asiatic lion, the state government implemented the ‘Gir-Barda Project’ in 1979. The sanctuary is a significant biodiversity hotspot and a key area for the conservation of Asiatic Lions. Flora: It is characteristically abundant in floral diversity, which consists of a good number of medicinal plants. The sanctuary boasts about 650 plant species, which comprise Rayan, Babul, Ber, Jamun, Amli, Gorad, Bamboo, Dhav, Dhudhlo, etc Fauna: Leopard, Hyena, Wild boar, wolf, Jackal, blue bull, rare and endangered spotted eagle, crested hawk eagle, etc. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154818

Question 110

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries: 1. It is held once every ten years and brings global attention to the 32 landlocked developing countries. 2. It has objective to facilitate coordinated international efforts to bridge these development gaps. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 110

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the third United Nations Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries (LLDC3) opened in Awaza, Turkmenistan. The LLDC3 conference, held once every ten years, brings global attention to the 32 landlocked developing countries, which collectively house over 600 million people. The primary objective of LLDC3 is to facilitate coordinated international efforts to bridge these development gaps. The conference will explore actionable solutions through partnerships, smarter investment frameworks, and the development of efficient, flexible transport corridors that enhance the movement of goods and services across regions. Due to lack of direct access to seaports, landlocked countries face disproportionate barriers to trade, economic diversification, and infrastructure development. This year’s conference, themed “Driving Progress through Partnerships,” serves as a crucial platform to address structural challenges, mobilize investment, and implement the newly adopted Awaza Programme of Action (2024–2034). Key facts about The Awaza Programme of Action (2024–2034) A central focus of LLDC3 is the implementation of the Awaza Programme of Action (APoA) for the Decade 2024–2034. The APoA was adopted by consensus at the UN General Assembly on 24 December 2024 and offers a comprehensive framework to tackle persistent development challenges faced by LLDCs. Built on five interconnected priority areas, the programme aims to support: Structural Transformation, and Science, Technology, and Innovation Trade, Trade Facilitation, and Regional Integration Transit, Transport, and Connectivity Enhancing Adaptive Capacity, Strengthening Resilience, and Reducing Vulnerability Implementation, Follow-up, and Monitoring Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/uae-participates-in-3rd-un-conference-on-landlocked-developing-countries-in-turkmenistan/articleshow/123145261.cms

Question 111

Consider the following statements regarding Talaq-E-Hasan, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a type of extrajudicial form of divorce mentioned under Islam that only men can practice. 2. It is an irrevocable form of divorce. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 111

1 only Explanation : The Supreme Court recently agreed to hear a batch of petitions challenging the practice of talaq-e-hasan as unconstitutional. About Talaq-E-Hasan: It is a type of extrajudicial form of divorce mentioned under Islam that only men can practice. It is a revocable form of divorce. A traditional form of divorce, 'Talaq-e-Hasan is considered to be approved by Prophet Mohammad and is valid as per all schools of Muslim law. To practice 'Talaq-e-Hasan, a man needs to pronounce talaq on his wife three turns at intervals of one month. The period of the gap between the three consecutive talaqs is called the period of abstinence or ‘iddat’ and its duration is 90 days. The divorce is assumed to be revoked if the couple begins to cohabit or be intimate during the period of abstinence. How is it Different from Triple Talaq? Triple talaq or Talaq-e-Biddat was banned by the government in 2019. In this, a man can divorce his wife by pronouncing "talaq" thrice in one go. The divorce is instant and irrevocable. This is different from 'Talaq-e-Hasan as it does not have any waiting period and irrevocably terminates the marriage. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-to-hear-challenge-to-talaq-e-hasan-from-november-19/article69920442.ece

Question 112

Sukhna Lake, recently seen in the news, is located in which Indian city?

Answer 112

Chandigarh Explanation : The Chandigarh Administration recently closed the floodgate at Sukhna Lake early morning after water levels receded. About Sukhna Lake: It is an artificial lake located in the city of Chandigarh at the foothills of the Shivalik hills. This 3 sq.km. rain fed lake was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream coming down from the Shivalik Hills. The lake is 1.52 km long and 1.49 km wide. After completion in 1958, the water-spread area of the lake was 188 ha and the average depth was 4.69 m. It had a depth of 18 feet originally, but due to heavy silt deposits, the depth reduced to 8 feet 6 inches and the area to 1. 5 sq.km. The lake is fringed by a golf course to the south, and Nek Chand famous Rock Garden of Chandigarh to its west. The lake is declared National Wetland by the Government of India. During winter, Sukhna Lake transforms into a haven for diverse migratory birds such as Siberian ducks, storks, and cranes, hosting around 30 resident and migratory species. The lake is also a part of the Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary. Sukhna Lake has the longest channel for rowing and yachting events in Asia. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/chandigarh-sukhna-lake-floodgate-closed-after-water-level-recedes-10180119/

Question 113

Consider the following statements regarding Pneumococcal Disease: 1. It refers to a range of illnesses caused by a fungus. 2. It is transmitted by direct contact with respiratory secretions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 113

2 only Explanation : Drug firm Pfizer recently introduced its next-generation 20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV20) for adults in India, offering protection against 20 serotypes responsible for a majority of pneumococcal diseases. About Pneumococcal Disease: Pneumococcal disease refers to a range of illnesses that affect various parts of the body and are caused by infection with the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is an encapsulated bacteria with a polysaccharide capsule, an essential factor in virulence. About 90 distinct pneumococcal serotypes have been identified throughout the world, with a small number of these serotypes accounting for most diseases. Illnesses range from mild infections, such as ear infections, to pneumonia and life-threatening infections of the bloodstream and central nervous system, such as meningitis. It is a major public health problem worldwide. In the developing world young children and the elderly are most affected. It is estimated that about one million children die of pneumococcal disease every year. Pneumococci are transmitted by direct contact with respiratory secretions from patients and healthy carriers. Treatment: Treatment typically involves antibiotics. Vaccines can reduce the risk of infection, especially in young children and older adults. Pneumococcal resistance to antimicrobials is a serious and rapidly increasing problem worldwide. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/healthcare/biotech/pharmaceuticals/pfizer-launches-next-gen-vaccine-for-pneumococcal-disease/articleshow/123239886.cms?from=mdr

Question 114

Consider the following statements regarding Bhagirathi River: 1. It is a turbulent Himalayan River in the state of Uttarakhand. 2. The confluence of the Bhagirathi River and Alaknanda River is at Vishnuprayag. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 114

1 only Explanation : A water body resembling a lake, stretching over a kilometre, has formed on the Bhagirathi River near Harsil after the recent cloudburst in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, prompting authorities to launch urgent drainage operations. About Bhagirathi River: It is a turbulent Himalayan river in the state of Uttarakhand. It is one of the two main headstreams of the Ganges River, the other being the Alaknanda River. According to Hindu mythology and culture, Bhagirathi is the source stream of the Ganges. But according to the hydrology, Alakananda is the source stream of the Ganges for its flow and length. Course: It originates from the Gaumukh Glacier located at the base of the Khatling and Gangotri Glaciers in the Garhwal Himalayas, where the melting ice gives birth to the river. Further, the river passes through the Tehri Garhwal district, including the towns of Uttarkashi and Tehri, where it encounters cliffs, rapids, and waterfalls. It is joined by tributaries such as – Kedar Ganga, Jadh Ganga, Kakora Gad, Jalandari Gad, Siyan Gad, Asi Ganga and Bhilangana. Finally, the Bhagirathi River meets the Alaknanda River at Devprayag. The combined waters of the two rivers then flow as the Ganges River, and this river eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal. Major Dams: Maneri Dam, Koteshwar Dam, and Tehri Dam. Religious Significance: The confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers is considered a sacred site in Hindu mythology. It is an essential part of the sacred Panch Prayag Yatra, which involves visiting the five holy confluences of Uttarakhand: Devprayag, Rudraprayag, Nandprayag, Karnaprayag, and Vishnuprayag. The banks of the Bhagirathi are dotted with numerous sacred cities and sites such as Gangotri, the source of the river, which is one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/dehradun-news/uttarakhand-1-km-long-lake-forms-on-bhagirathi-near-harsil-after-cloudburst-101754918385025.html

Question 115

Vitthal Rukhmini Temple, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?

Answer 115

Maharashtra Explanation : A Marathi-Hindi language row has emerged at Pandharpur's renowned Vitthal-Rukhmini temple recently. About Vitthal Rukhmini Temple: It is a Hindu temple situated in Pandharpur, Maharashtra. Located on the banks of the river Bhima, also known as Chandrabhaga, Sri Vitthal Rukmini Mandir is dedicated to Lord Vithoba, a form of the Lord Vishnu or Krishna, and his consort Rukhmini. The temple is classified as one among the 108 Abhimana Kshethrams of the Vaishnavate tradition. History: The temple was built by King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire between 1108 and 1152 CE. He built the temple after being persuaded by Pundalik, a historical figure, great devotee of Lord Krishna. There is an inscription in the temple, of a Hoysala King Vira Someshwara dating back to 1237 CE, which grants the temple a village for its upkeep. An extensive temple was constructed in the second half of the 13th century following the Hemadpanti style of architecture. The temple was attacked by invaders and completely damaged. The present temple was built in the 17th century & later in the Deccan style, with dome motifs and lobed arches by the contribution of Peshwas of Pune, the Shindes of Gwalior, and the Holkars of Indore. The temple was the first shrine in India that welcomed people and women from backward categories as priests in 2014. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/marathi-hindi-dispute-at-pandharpur-temple/articleshow/123244312.cms

Question 116

Consider the following statements regarding Smooth-coated Otters: 1. It is only found in coastal mangrove forests and peat swamp forests. 2. It is a strong swimmers and hunt in groups. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 116

2 only Explanation : Recently, the National Zoological Park (NZP) in Delhi welcomes a pair of smooth-coated otters from Surat in a rare animal exchange after 20 years. It t is a species of otter, the only extant representative of the genus Lutrogale. Distribution: They live in southern and Southeast Asia, China, and India, and in Iraq there is a small population. Habitat of Smooth-coated Otters They are mostly found in lowlands, coastal mangrove forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater wetlands, large forested rivers, lakes, and rice paddies. Although adapted for water, smooth-coated otters are equally comfortable on land and can travel long distances overland in search of suitable habitat. Features of Smooth-coated Otters They are the largest otter in Southeast Asia. As its name indicates, the fur of this species is smoother and shorter than that of other otters. The fur is light to dark brown dorsally and light brown to almost gray ventrally. They have short, tightly packed under fur and longer, water-repellant guard hairs. They are strong swimmers and hunt in groups. When fishing, they travel in a V-formation going upstream. Threats: Loss of habitat, habitat degradation due to water pollution from fertilizers and pesticides and poaching. Conservation Status: IUCN: Vulnerable Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/delhi-zoo-travel-cage-fish-journey-10182967/

Question 117

Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India ASMITA: 1. It is part of Khelo India’s gender-neutral mission to promote sports among women through leagues and competitions. 2. It was started in 2021 and identifies new talents across India through this platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 117

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Khelo India ASMITA Football League 2025-26 was inaugurated by the Minister of State, Youth Affairs and Sports in Jalgaon, Maharashtra. Achieving Sports Milestone by Inspiring Women (ASMITA) is part of Khelo India’s gender-neutral mission to promote sports among women through leagues and competitions. It is an affirmative action in sports for increasing women’s participation. Objective: Inclusive and grassroots-driven sports development. The Khelo India ASMITA league is a core component of the 'Khelo Bharat Niti,' promoting sports for nation-building and women's empowerment. The league is a dedicated platform for young girls, addressing historical imbalances and creating new opportunities. As such, the Sports Authority of India (SAI) supports National Sports Federations in conducting Khelo India women’s leagues across multiple age groups at both zonal and national levels. It was started in 2021, ASMITA leagues not only aim to increase the participation of women in sports but also to utilize the leagues as a platform for the identification of new talent across the length and breadth of India. This financial year 2025-26, 852 ASMITA leagues have been planned in 15 sports disciplines, targeting more than 70,000 women athletes in all States/ UTs of the country. Significance: This initiative is changing the narrative around women in sports, helping them challenge stereotypes and become new role models. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2154854

Question 118

With reference to Tritium, consider the following: 1. It is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. 2. It is produced naturally from interactions of cosmic rays with gases in the upper atmosphere. 3. It can be combined with phosphor to create glow-in-the-dark lighting. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 118

All the three Explanation : A recent global ocean model study by the University of Tokyo and Fukushima University researchers have confirmed that the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant’s tritium wastewater release poses minimal impact on ocean waters. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Features of Tritium It has the same number of protons and electrons as hydrogen but has 2 neutrons, whereas regular hydrogen does not have any. This makes tritium unstable and radioactive. It is produced naturally from interactions of cosmic rays with gases in the upper atmosphere. Tritium can also be produced by man during nuclear weapon explosions, in reactors intended to produce tritium for nuclear weapons. It is the only radioactive isotope of hydrogen and like hydrogen it reacts with oxygen to form water. The transformation of tritium to tritiated water is a complex and slow process. Tritium is a colorless, odorless gas with a half-life of 12.3 years. As a liquid, tritium moves easily through the environment just like water. It occurs naturally in the environment in very low concentrations. Uses of Tritium It can be combined with phosphor to create glow-in-the-dark lighting such as exit signs, emergency lighting in buildings, and airport runway lights. Medical Field: It is also used as a tracer in biomedical research to study and diagnose heart disease, cancer and AIDS. Electricity Generation: It may also be used to generate electricity in fusion reactors. Hence all the statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/global-ocean-model-affirms-fukushima-wastewater-release-is-safe/article69889651.ece

Question 119

Kodali Karuppur silk sari, which was recently in news, is mainly weaved in:

Answer 119

Tamil Nadu Explanation : The iconic Kodali Karuppur silk sari, a luxury garment once patronised by the Maratha kings of Thanjavur is facing a crisis as its traditional handloom weavers dwindle in number. It derived its name from Karuppur, a village near Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu. The handwoven silk saris, dhotis, and furnishings of Karuppur that combined hand painting, block printing, and brocade-weaving were popular up to the 19th Century. History of Kodali Karuppur Silk Sari These are evolved under the patronage of the Maratha ruler Serfoji Raja Bhonsle Chhatrapati II in 1787-1832 and were made exclusively for the Ranis of Thanjavur up to the 19th century. The ancestors of the weavers comprised about 400-500 families who migrated from Saurashtra to Madurai, Salem and Kancheepuram. The Karuppur cloth was worn only by the Thanjavur nobility, who gifted some as khillat or clothes of honour. In some Maratha states like Baroda, Kohlapur and Satara, the Karuppur sari was an essential part of the bride’s trousseau, as was the Karuppur turban for the groom. Design: The design vocabulary of the Karuppur sari is limited, mostly geometric and linear patterns, vine-like designs, stars, veldarri and the thazhambu or screw pine flower design. This saree do not have GI (Geographical Indication) tag. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/the-warped-weft-a-handloom-story/article69913659.ece

Question 120

Consider the following statements regarding Dhirio-Bull Fighting: 1. It is traditionally been held in paddy fields and football grounds of Arunachal Pradesh. 2. It is organised mainly after the harvest season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 120

2 only Explanation : Recently, during a discussion in the state Assembly legislators across party lines demanded the legalisation of bull fighting which is locally called Dhirio in Goa. Bull fighting, locally in Goa is referred to as dhirio or dhiri, is an integral part of Goa’s cultural fabric. It is organised after the harvest season. These bull fights have traditionally been held in paddy fields and football grounds of Goa, with village shepherds bringing in their animals. Dhiri was a “part and parcel of every Church fest” and villagers from miles around would gather to witness the popular sport. These bull fights have traditionally been held in paddy fields and football grounds of Goa A bull fight begins with two bulls dashing at each other and locking horns. They head-butt each other and repeatedly charge and retreat, provoked by trainers standing behind. Bull fights have been taking place in Goa for generations, going back to the time of the Portuguese. Current status: The High court in 1997 directed the state to take immediate steps to ban “all types of animal fights including bull fights and ‘dhirios. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/an-eye-on-co2-from-space-could-soon-shut-why-this-matters-10183744/

Question 121

Consider the following statements regarding Chagas Disease: 1. It is an infectious disease caused by the protozoan parasite. 2. It primarily occurs in Africa and South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 121

1 only Explanation : Considering the enormous human and economic toll Chagas disease inflicts, investment in R&D of medical innovations such as diagnostics, pharmaceuticals, and vaccines remains disproportionately low. About Chagas Disease: Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is an inflammatory, infectious disease caused by the protozoan parasite, Trypanosoma cruzi. The most common way people are infected with Chagas is through the blood-sucking triatomine bugs. This parasite is found in the feces of the triatomine bug. These bugs also are called reduviid. They may also be known as "kissing bugs" because they tend to bite people's faces. The parasite can also be transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy or childbirth, through contaminated food and beverages, blood transfusions, organ transplants, or laboratory accidents. Chagas disease is common in South America, Central America, and Mexico, the primary home of the triatomine bug. Few people have symptoms at first. But over time, parasites can move to your tissues and cause chronic infections, leading to heart and digestive tract damage. Left untreated, Chagas disease later can cause serious heart and digestive problems. Treatment: During the first phase of infection, treatment of Chagas disease aims to kill the parasite. Later, it's no longer possible to kill the parasite. Treatment in this later phase is about managing symptoms. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.nature.com/articles/s41587-025-02759-w

Question 122

Which statement about cess is NOT correct? A. It is levied for a specific purpose. B. It is imposed in addition to existing taxes. C. Its proceeds are always shared with states. D. It can be discontinued once the required fund is collected.

Answer 122

Its proceeds are always shared with states. Explanation : As of 2023-24, the Central Government has failed to transfer ₹3.69 lakh crore worth of cess collections to the relevant funds for which the cess was implemented, the Comptroller and Auditor General has found. About Cess: A cess is a form of tax levied by the government on tax with specific purposes till the time the government gets enough money for that purpose. Different from the usual taxes, and duties like excise and personal income tax, a cess is imposed as an additional tax besides the existing tax (tax on tax). For example, the Swachh Bharat cess is levied by the government for cleanliness activities that it is undertaking across India. A cess, generally paid by the everyday public, is added to their basic tax liability paid as part of total tax paid. Difference between Tax and Cess: A cess is different from taxes as it is imposed as an additional tax besides the existing tax (tax on tax). Another difference lies in the way the revenue recovered from the cess is maintained. While revenue from taxes like income tax is kept in the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), and the government can use it for any purposes it deems fit, the revenue coming from cess is first credited to the Consolidated Fund, and the government may then, after due appropriation from Parliament, utilise it for the specified purpose. Another major difference between central taxes and cess is that the proceeds of a cess may or may not be shared with the state governments, while that of taxes have to be shared. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/centre-has-not-transferred-369-lakh-crore-of-cess-collections-to-the-designated-funds-cag-finds/article69924061.ece

Question 123

The Tato-II Hydroelectric Project is a planned run-of-river project in which state?

Answer 123

Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) recently approved an investment proposal worth ₹8,146.21 crore for the construction of the 700 MW Tato-II Hydro Electric Project (HEP) in Shi Yomi district of Arunachal Pradesh. About Tato-II Hydroelectric Project: It is a 700 MW hydro power project planned on Siyom river/basin in Arunachal Pradesh. It is a run-of-river project. The hydro reservoir capacity is planned to be 56 million cubic meters. The project consists of 4 turbines, each with 175MW nameplate capacity. It is expected to generate 2,738.06 million units of energy. The Power generated from the project will help improve the power supply position in the state of Arunachal Pradesh and will also help in balancing the national grid. Arunachal Pradesh will receive 12% free power and an additional 1% for the Local Area Development Fund (LADF). The project will be implemented through a joint venture between North Eastern Electric Power Corporation Ltd (NEEPCO) and the Government of Arunachal Pradesh. The project will cost Rs 8,146.21 crore. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/hydro-mega-project-govt-approves-rs-8000-crore-tato-ii-project-in-arunachal-to-bring-12-free-power-and-major-local-development/articleshow/123258466.cms

Question 124

Consider the following statements regarding the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): 1. It is an independent institution under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). 2. It has all the administrative and financial powers and is tasked with the responsibility of catalysing India’s Semiconductor ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 124

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The government recently approved four additional semiconductor manufacturing projects in the states of Odisha, Punjab, and Andhra Pradesh under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM). About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): It is a specialized and independent institution under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India. It is an independent Business Division within the Digital India Corporation. It aims to build a vibrant semiconductor and display ecosystem to enable India’s emergence as a global hub for electronics manufacturing and design. ISM has all the administrative and financial powers and is tasked with the responsibility of catalysing the India Semiconductor ecosystem in manufacturing, packaging, and design. ISM has an advisory board consisting of some of the leading global experts in the field of semiconductors. ISM is serving as the nodal agency for efficient, coherent, and smooth implementation of the programme for development of semiconductor and manufacturing ecosystem in India. ISM has been working as a nodal agency for the schemes approved under the Semicon India Programme. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/business/2025/Aug/12/india-approves-four-new-semiconductor-projects-worth-rs-4600-crore-first-chip-likely-this-year

Question 125

Bandipur Tiger Reserve lies in which state?

Answer 125

Karnataka Explanation : A Kerala tourist miraculously survived a Bandipur elephant attack in Karnataka's Bandipur Tiger Reserve after a charging tusker pushed him to the ground and pinned him under its foot. About Bandipur Tiger Reserve: It is situated in the Mysore and Chamarajanagar revenue districts of southern Karnataka. It is located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats. It was once a hunting ground for the rulers of the neighbouring kingdom of Mysore. It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. BTR is surrounded by: Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the two). Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West. Rivers: It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south. Climate: Bandipur has a typical tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons. Flora: It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous. It includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo and giant clumping bamboo etc. Fauna: It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia. It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole and four-horned antelope etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.oneindia.com/bengaluru/bandipur-elephant-attack-wild-tusker-chases-kerala-tourist-escapes-death-in-viral-roadside-encounter-7826049.html

Question 126

Consider the following statements regarding Wallacean hominids: 1. They were settled in Indonesia’s Flores island and Philippines’ Luzon island. 2. They were thought to be capable of distant sea travel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 126

1 only Explanation : Recently, scientists have found possible artefacts of oldest known Wallacean hominids on Indonesia’s Sulawesi island. The earliest Wallacean humans, pre-historic persons known as Homo Erectus, were thought to have only settled in Indonesia’s Flores island and Philippines’ Luzon island around 1.02 million years ago. They were thought to be incapable of distant sea travel, proving the significance of the Sulawesi findings in theories of migration. Items Found: Archaeologists from Australia and Indonesia found the small, chipped tools, used to cut little animals and carve rocks, under the soil in the region of Soppeng in South Sulawesi. These were artefacts made by ancient humans who lived on the earth long before the evolution of our species, Homo Sapiens,” Key facts about Wallacea It is a region in Eastern Indonesia including several islands such as Sulawesi, Lombok, Flores, Timor, Sumbawa that lie between Borneo and Java and Australia and New Guinea. The region is named for the naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace who studied the fauna and flora of the area. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/scientists-find-possible-artefacts-of-oldest-known-wallacean-hominids-in-indonesia/

Question 127

Consider the following statements regarding the UNDP Equator Initiative Award: 1. It is awarded biennially to recognize outstanding community efforts to reduce poverty through sustainable use of biodiversity. 2. It is referred as the Nobel Prize for Biodiversity Conservation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 127

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, a self-help group (SHG) from a small village in Kundgol taluk of Dharwad district, Karnataka has bagged the ‘Equator Initiative Award’ given by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It is presented under the Equator Initiative of the United Nations Development Programme. It is awarded biennially to recognize outstanding community efforts to reduce poverty through the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. It is also referred to as the Nobel Prize for Biodiversity Conservation. Prize money: The award includes a cash prize of $10,000. This year’s award selection was based on the theme Women and Youth Leadership for Nature-Based Climate Action”. Eligibility Criteria The initiative must have been in existence for at least three years, and/or the actions taken must have been in place for at least three years. The nominee must be either a local community-based group, operating in a rural area, based in a country receiving support from the United Nations Development Programme or an Indigenous Peoples’ community in any country, operating in a rural area. The actions taken must be nature-based, and must deliver benefits related to two or more Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/undp-equator-initiative-award-for-bibi-fatima-shg-of-teertha-village/article69913654.ece#:~:text

Question 128

With reference to BHU-NEER Portal, consider the following: 1. It was launched by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. 2. It provides mechanism for regulation of rain water management in the country. 3. It issues no objection certificate for extraction of ground water by industries, infrastructure projects and mining projects. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 128

Only two Explanation : Recently, the minister of state for Jal Shakti informed the Lok Sabha about BHU-NEER Portal. It is new state of the art portal which has been rolled out in 2024 by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Purpose: To provide a smooth and efficient mechanism for regulation of ground water development and management in the country by providing a quick and easy to use platform for filing No Objection Certificate (NOC) applications for ground water abstraction. Features of BHU-NEER Portal Its centralized database will allow users to access critical information on groundwater compliance, policies, and sustainable practices. The portal is developed with several user-friendly features to offer streamlined process flow to the project proponents seeking groundwater withdrawal permits. Having a simplified yet informative interface, and features like PAN based single Id system, NOC with QR code etc., “Bhu-Neer” marks a significant improvement over its previous version NOCAP. No Objection Certificate: The Bhu-Neer portal is for the purpose of online application and processing of NOC for extraction of ground water by industries, infrastructure projects and mining projects. Significance: By helping in enforcement of the Guidelines meant for curbing indiscriminate extraction of ground water, the Bhu-Neer contributes to sustainable development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2153575

Question 129

Orbiting Carbon Observatories Programme, which was recently in the news, is an initiative of:

Answer 129

NASA Explanation : Recently, Trump administration asked to shut down NASA’s Orbiting Carbon Observatories (OCO) program. OCOs are a series of dedicated Earth remote sensing satellites that were designed specifically to observe atmospheric CO2 from space in order to better understand the characteristics of climate change. Timeline of Observatories The first mission of the series failed soon after launch in February 2009. A replacement satellite, OCO-2, was launched in July 2014. It was built based on the original OCO mission to minimise cost, schedule, and performance impacts. In 2019, a third mission, OCO-3, was sent to the International Space Station (ISS) to further enhance the observation of atmospheric CO2. Importance of Orbiting Carbon Observatories NASA and other agencies have used the data to create high-resolution maps of plant growth around the world. That’s useful to farmers, useful to rangeland and grazing and drought monitoring and forest mapping and all kinds of things, in addition to the CO2 measurements. The data have been used by the US Department of Agriculture and many private agricultural consulting companies to forecast and track crop yields and drought conditions. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/trump-administration-nasa-carbon-monitoring-shutdown-10174620/

Question 130

Consider the following statements regarding State Health Regulatory Excellence Index: 1. It is initiative to benchmark and strengthen state drug regulatory systems through a transparent, data-driven framework. 2. It will enable targeted improvements in human resources, infrastructure, and digitization across states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 130

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, union health secretary virtually launched the State Health Regulatory Excellence Index (SHRESTH). It is a first-of-its-kind national initiative to benchmark and strengthen state drug regulatory systems through a transparent, data-driven framework. The initiative, proposed by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) aims to drive improvements in the performance of state drug regulatory authorities across India, ensuring drug safety and quality standards are consistently met. It will have 27 indices for Manufacturing States across five key themes: Human Resources, Infrastructure, Licensing Activities, Surveillance Activities and Responsiveness and 23 indices for Primarily Distribution States. States will submit the data on predefined metrics to CDSCO which will be collected by 25th of every month and these metrics will be scored on the 1st of next month and shared with all states and UTs. SHRESTH is a virtual gap assessment tool for states to assess their current position and help towards maturity certification Significance: This Index will enable targeted improvements in human resources, infrastructure, and digitization across states, ensuring drug safety is guaranteed for every Indian, regardless of geography. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2155722#:~:text

Question 131

Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR) lies in which state?

Answer 131

Jharkhand Explanation : The Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR), the last stronghold of Gaur (Bos gaurus) in Jharkhand, has registered an alarming decline in the bovid’s population. About Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR): It is located on the western side of the Latehar district on the Chhotanagpur plateau in Jharkhand. The reserve forms a part of the Betla National Park. It has a total area of 1,014 sq.km. with a core area of 414 sq.km. and a buffer area of 600 sq.km. It is one of the first 9 tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’. It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count, as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson. The terrain is undulating with valleys, hills, and plains. Three rivers, namely North Koyal, Auranga, and Burha flow through the valleys. The area is drought-prone with Burha being the only perennial river. The geological formation consists of gneiss and includes granite and limestone. The area is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal. Flora: The vegetation in Palamau region comprises moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests to include Sal and bamboo as the major components. Fauna: Some keystone and principal species found in the reserve include Tiger, Asiatic Elephant, Leopard, Grey wolf, Wild dog, Gaur, Sloth bear and four horned antelope. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/gaur-declining-in-palamau-tiger-reserve-its-last-stronghold-in-jharkhand#google_vignette

Question 132

Consider the following statements regarding the Cheque Truncation System (CTS), recently seen in the news: 1. It is an online image-based cheque clearing system for faster clearing of cheques. 2. It is undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 132

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided on the transition of the Cheque Truncation System (CTS) from the current approach of batch processing to continuous clearing with settlement on realisation in two phases. About Cheque Truncation System (CTS): It is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for faster clearing of cheques. As the name suggests, truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque in its way of clearing. CTS is an online image-based cheque clearing system where cheque images and Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) data are captured at the collecting bank branch and transmitted electronically, eliminating the actual cheque movement. Security: CTS is protected by a comprehensive PKI-based security architecture which incorporates basic security and authentication controls such as dual access control, user ID, and passwords with crypto box and smart card interfaces. Only CTS-2010 standards-compliant instruments can be presented for clearing through CTS. CTS-2010 standards contain certain benchmarks towards achieving standardization of cheques issued by banks across the country. These include provision of mandatory minimum-security features on cheque forms like quality of paper, watermark, bank’s logo in invisible ink, void pantograph, etc., and standardisation of field placements on cheques. The minimum-security features and standardisation help presenting banks while scrutinising/recognising cheques of drawee banks in an image-based processing scenario. Benefits. Realisation of proceeds of cheque possible within the same day. Data storage and retrieval becomes easy. Minimizes risks and introduces a secured cheque clearing system. Will result in cost savings due to lower cost in the physical movement of cheques. Minimizing bottlenecks and delays between presentation and realization time. Provides shorter clearing cycles and a centralized image archival system. CTS currently processes cheques with a clearing cycle of up to two working days. Once the newly announced measures by RBI on Continuous Clearing of Cheques under CTS are implemented, cheques would be cleared within hours of submission instead of two days. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-allows-transition-to-continuous-clearing-of-cheques/article69929867.ece

Question 133

Lampedusa Island, recently seen in the news, is part of which country?

Answer 133

Italy Explanation : At least 20 people have died after a migrant boat capsized off the southern Italian island of Lampedusa recently. About Lampedusa Island: It is the largest (21 sq.km.) of the Isole Pelagie (Pelagie Islands), an island group that includes the Linosa and Lampione islets. Administratively Lampedusa is part of the autonomous region of Sicily in Italy. It is geographically part of the African continent. It is located in the Mediterranean Sea between Malta and Tunisia, 105 miles (170 km) southwest of Licata, Sicily. It is a volcanic island. It is also known as the Pearl of the Mediterranean because of the lava: it is the emerged part of a volcano whose last eruption events date back about 9000 years ago, when the last major seismic events were dated at the end of 1800. Lampedusa’s greatest length is about 11 km; its greatest width is about 3 km. It rises to 133 meters above sea level. It is a rocky island with limited natural freshwater sources. The climate is typically Mediterranean, with hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/many-migrants-die-in-shipwreck-off-italys-lampedusa-island-un/article69928978.ece

Question 134

Consider the following statements regarding IN-SPACe: 1. It is a single-window, independent, nodal agency that functions as an autonomous agency in the Department of Space (DOS). 2. It was formed following the Space sector reforms to enable and facilitate the participation of private players. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 134

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Pune-based space tech startup Astrophel Aerospace recently signed a framework MoU with IN-SPACe, the Department of Space nodal body, to access ISRO facilities for technical reviews, system-level testing, and qualification support for semi-cryogenic propulsion systems, including turbopumps and engine modules. About IN-SPACe: Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe) is a single-window, independent, nodal agency that functions as an autonomous agency in the Department of Space (DOS). It is formed following the Space sector reforms to enable and facilitate the participation of private players. IN-SPACe is responsible to promote, enable, authorize and supervise various space activities of non-governmental entities (NGEs) including building launch vehicles & satellites and providing space-based services; sharing space infrastructure and premises under the control of DOS/ISRO; and establishing of new space infrastructure and facilities. The agency acts as an interface between ISRO and NGEs and assesses how to utilize India's space resources better and increase space-based activities. It also assesses the needs and demands of private players, including educational and research institutions, and explores ways to accommodate these requirements in consultation with ISRO. Three Directorates viz., Promotion Directorate (PD), Technical Directorate (TD) and Program Management and Authorization Directorate (PMAD) are carrying out the functions of IN-SPACe. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/astrophel-aerospace-inks-mou-with-in-space-for-reusable-rocket-engine-development/article69928634.ece

Question 135

Consider the following statements regarding the Burevestnik Missile, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a hypersonic ballistic missile. 2. It was developed by Russia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 135

2 only Explanation : According to multiple media reports, Russia is preparing for new tests of its much-discussed and feared 9M730 Burevestnik nuclear-powered cruise missile, a “one-of-a-kind” weapon in Moscow’s arsenal. About Burevestnik Missile: The Burevestnik, whose name translates as “storm petrel“, is a ground-launched, low-flying cruise missile that is not only capable of carrying a nuclear warhead but is also nuclear-powered. The Burevestnik is one of six strategic weapons that the Russian President introduced in a 2018 speech. It is code-named ‘SSC-X-9 Skyfall’ by NATO. In theory, the nuclear energy could let it fly around the world several times before hitting its target. Features: It is powered by a small nuclear reactor, which heats up air to propel the missile forward. Its nuclear propulsion gives the missile much longer range than traditional turbojet or turbofan engines that are limited by how much fuel they can carry. It has a range of up to 14,000 miles (22000 km). The missile is also designed to fly at low altitudes, much lower than a conventionally powered cruise missile, which would make it harder for air-defence radar to detect. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/ahead-of-trump-putin-talks-russia-readies-worlds/

Question 136

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Bison: 1. It is primarily found in evergreen and semi-evergreen forests of Asia. 2. It is categorized as Critically Endangered species under IUCN Red list. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 136

1 only Explanation : The Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR), the last stronghold of Gaur (Bos gaurus) in Jharkhand, has registered an alarming decline in the bovid’s population. Gaur, also known as Indian Bison is the largest species among the wild cattle and the Bovidae. Distribution: Gaurs are indigenous to the South and Southeast parts of Asia. Habitat: Gaurs are primarily found in evergreen and semi-evergreen forests along with moist deciduous forests with open grasslands. They prefer hilly-terrains below an altitude of 1,500-1,800 m with large and undisturbed forest tracts and abundant water. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Ecological Significance: It plays a vital role in maintaining ecological balance in forests besides serving as important prey species for tigers. Being herbivores, they also help shape vegetation dynamics and contribute to seed dispersal. Threats: Loss of habitat throughout most of their range. Another serious concern is susceptibility to domestic cattle diseases like rinderpest, hoof, or mouth disease. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/gaur-declining-in-palamau-tiger-reserve-its-last-stronghold-in-jharkhand

Question 137

Consider the following statements regarding the SabhaSaar AI Tool: 1. It will automatically generate minutes of meetings of gram sabhas. 2. It is built on Bhashini, which is an AI-powered language translation platform launched by the government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 137

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Centre is set to unveil an artificial intelligence (AI)-powered tool named ‘SabhaSaar’ in Tripura on Independence Day. It is an AI tool which will automatically generate minutes of meetings of gram sabhas. Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all registered voters of a gram panchayat. Features of SabhaSaar AI Tool It leverages the power of AI to generate structured minutes of meetings from gram sabha videos and audio recordings. It will bring uniformity in minutes of the gram sabha meetings across the country. Panchayat officials can use their e-GramSwaraj login credentials to upload video/audio recordings on ‘SabhaSaar’. It is built on Bhashini, an AI-powered language translation platform launched by the government of India to bridge literacy, language, and digital divides. The tool generates transcription from a video or audio, translates it into a chosen output language and prepares a summary. It enables transcription in all major Indian languages like Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Marathi and Gujarati, in addition to English. Significance: It is ideal for panchayats, administrative bodies, and rural development projects as it streamlines documentation and empowers stakeholders with instant access to meeting insights. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/ai-tool-structure-uniformity-gram-sabha-meetings-country-ai-10186886/

Question 138

With reference to APAAR ID, consider the following: 1. It is an identification number through which a student’s journey from pre-primary to higher education can be tracked. 2. It is linked to Aadhaar and stored in DigiLocker for easy access. 3. It is a 10 digit unique and permanent ID generated through Unified District Information System for Education Plus. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 138

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has now made it mandatory for students to submit their APAAR IDs while registering for the board exams. APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry. It was envisioned under the New Education Policy, 2020. It is an identification number which is linked to enrollment, and a student’s journey from pre-primary to higher education can be tracked through it. APAAR assigns a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to every student, offering a comprehensive record of their academic achievements, including degrees, scholarships, awards, and other credits. The APAAR ID will be unique and remain the same through one’s education journey. It is linked to Aadhaar and stored in DigiLocker for easy access. The APAAR ID embodies the vision of "One Nation, One Student ID", ensuring a unified and accessible academic experience for students across India. It serves as a lifelong academic passport, consolidating all achievements and credentials of a student in one place. APAAR is generated through Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+). Objectives of APAAR To accumulate and store students’ academic achievements in a central database To facilitate seamless transfer between institutions To provide standardized digital records for mark sheets and institutional affiliations. To help in educational policymaking and analysis Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/apaar-id-mandatory-cbse-board-exam-registration-what-you-need-to-know-10186786/

Question 139

Ideonella sakaiensis, which was recently in news, is a:

Answer 139

Bacterium Explanation : Research has identified promising microbes like Ideonella sakaiensis, which can degrade PET plastic. It is a bacterium from the genus Ideonella and family Comamonadaceae. It is capable of breaking down and consuming the plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) using it as both a carbon and energy source. It was discovered by a group of researchers in Japan. It breaks PET into its (environmentally benign) building blocks. These can then be used as food by I. sakaiensis and other organisms. Characteristics of Ideonella sakaiensis It is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped, motile, non-sporing, non-pigment-producing, monotrichous bacterium. They typically measure about 1.2 to 1.5 μm in length and 0.6 to 0.8 μm in width, giving the appearance of a bacillus under the microscope. It was initially discovered from PET-contaminated soil, suggesting its main habitat to be the environment, mainly soil with enriched plastic wastes. They are found to live in oxygen-rich moist soil and sewage sludge. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/waste/how-microbes-could-help-solve-the-worlds-plastic-pollution-crisis

Question 140

Consider the following statements regarding Moai Statues: 1. These are megalithic stone-carved human-shaped statues found at Easter Island. 2. These are by the natives of this island known as Rapa Nui. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 140

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A study warns that rising sea levels could submerge Easter Island's iconic moai statues by 2080 and it will threaten the island's cultural identity and tourism economy. They are massive megalithic stone-carved human-shaped statues found at Easter Island. The Easter Island statues are monolithic human figures carved from volcanic rock by the first Polynesian settlers on the island, the Rapa Nui people. They were built in approximately 1400 – 1650 A.D. by the natives of this island known as Rapa Nui. There are around 1000 Moai statues which are made up of volcanic tuff, the tallest of them being 33 feet. They carved them in the likeness of their ancestors. What do moais represent? They were built to honor chieftains or other important people who had passed away. They were placed on rectangular stone platforms called ahu, which are tombs for the people that the statues represented. The moais were intentionally made with different characteristics since they were intended to keep the appearance of the person they represented. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/moai-sea-level-rise-could-drown-iconic-easter-island-statues-by-2080-warns-study

Question 141

Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Australopithecus’, that was in the news recently? A. A newly discovered species of deep-sea. B. A group of extinct primates. C. A fossilized dinosaur species. D. A prehistoric flowering plant fossil.

Answer 141

A group of extinct primates. Explanation : An unidentified early hominin fossil that might be a new species confirms that Australopithecus and Homo species lived in the same region of Africa in the same time frame. About Australopithecus: Australopithecus, (genus Australopithecus) is a group of extinct primates known from a series of fossils found at numerous sites in eastern, north-central, and southern Africa. They are the closest known relatives of our genus, Homo. The various species of Australopithecus lived 4.4 million to 1.4 million years ago (mya), during the Pliocene and Pleistocene epochs (which lasted from 5.3 million to 11,700 years ago). The genus name, meaning “southern ape,” refers to the first fossils found, which were discovered in South Africa. Perhaps the most famous specimen of Australopithecus is “Lucy,” a remarkably preserved fossilized skeleton from Ethiopia that has been dated to 3.2 mya. Features: Members of Australopithecus bore a combination of humanlike and apelike traits. They had apelike face proportions (a flat nose, a strongly projecting lower jaw) and braincase (with a small brain, usually less than 500 cubic centimeters – about 1/3 the size of a modern human brain), and long, strong arms with curved fingers adapted for climbing trees. They also had small canine teeth like all other early humans, and a body that stood on two legs and regularly walked upright. They were roughly 1.2-1.5 m tall and probably weighed about 30-50 kg. Males were almost twice the size of females, a level of difference, or sexual dimorphism, greater than modern chimpanzees or humans but less than gorillas or orangutans. They had mainly a plant-based diet, including leaves, fruit, seeds, roots, nuts, and insects. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/human-evolution/never-before-seen-cousin-of-lucy-might-have-lived-at-the-same-site-as-the-oldest-known-human-species-new-study-suggests

Question 142

Consider the following statements regarding Lewy body Dementia (LBD), recently seen in the news: 1. It is the most common type of dementia. 2. There’s no cure for LBD and no way to prevent it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 142

2 only Explanation : Jackie Bezos, mother of Jeff Bezos and an early Amazon investor, passed away in Miami recently due to Lewy body dementia. About Lewy body Dementia (LBD): It is a complex and challenging brain disorder. It is the second most common type of dementia after Alzheimer's disease. LBD is a disease associated with abnormal deposits of a protein called alpha-synuclein in the brain. These deposits, called Lewy bodies, affect chemicals in the brain. These changes, in turn, can lead to problems with thinking, movement, behavior, mood, and other body functions. There are two forms of LBD that cause cognitive symptoms — dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson's disease dementia. LBD causes a decline in mental abilities that gradually gets worse over time. LBD typically begins at age 50 or older, although sometimes younger people may have it. LBD appears to affect slightly more men than women. The disease lasts an average of five to seven years from the time of diagnosis to death, but it can range from two to 20 years. People with LBD might see things that aren't there, known as visual hallucinations. They also may have changes in alertness and attention. People with LBD commonly have symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms might include rigid muscles, slow movement, trouble walking and tremors. As the disease worsens, people with LBD require more and more help with daily activities due to a decline in thinking and movement abilities. In the later stages of the disease, people may depend entirely on others for assistance and care. Treatment: There’s no cure for Lewy body dementia and no way to prevent it. But medications and therapies can help manage symptoms for a while. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/what-is-lewy-body-dementia-the-disease-behind-the-death-of-jeff-bezos-mother-jackie-bezos/articleshow/123320817.cms?from=mdr

Question 143

Satpura Tiger Reserve lies in which state?

Answer 143

Madhya Pradesh Explanation : A tiger has been found dead in the Satpura Tiger Reserve (STR) in Madhya Pradesh's Narmadapuram district recently, with officials suspecting the tiger died following a territorial fight. About Satpura Tiger Reserve: It is located in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh. It is located in the Satpura ranges of the Central Indian Landscape. It lies south of the river Narmada. Satpura, basically meaning “Seven Folds”, forms a watershed between the Narmada and Tapti Rivers. It is spread over an area of 2133 sq. km. The tiger reserve comprises three protected areas, Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary, and Pachmarhi Sanctuary. The terrain here is extremely rugged and consists of sandstone peaks, narrow gorges, ravines, and dense forests. The habitat is also an important testimony to human evolution, as it houses more than 50 rock shelters, which are almost 1,500 to 10,000 years old. Geological formations include the Deccan trap series, Gondwanas, and metamorphic rocks. Flora: The reserve is identified as a mixed deciduous forest with a variety of flora typical of the Central Indian Highlands. These include teak, bamboo, Indian ebony, various acacias, wild mango, Indian gooseberry, satinwood, etc. Twenty-six species of the Himalayan region and 42 species of the Nilgiri areas are found. Hence, STR is also known as the northern extremity of the Western Ghats. Fauna: It is home to a wide range of wildlife, including tigers, leopards, sloth bears, Indian gaurs (bison), and sambar deer. The reserve is also home to a diverse range of bird species, including the Indian peafowl, the crested serpent eagle, and several species of vultures. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/madhya-pradesh/tiger-dies-in-madhya-pradeshs-satpura-reserve-territorial-fight-suspected/article69928299.ece

Question 144

Consider the following statements regarding Damselflies: 1. They are a group of predatory, aerial insects. 2. They usually only thrive in pristine habitats and small streams. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 144

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Two new species of damselflies named Konkan Shadowdamsel and Crimson Shadowdamsel have been discovered in the Western Ghats by researchers from Maharashtra and Kerala. About Konkan Shadowdamsel and Crimson Shadowdamsel: They are two new species of damselflies. The species — Konkan Shadowdamsel, discovered in Maharashtra’s Sindhudurg district, and Crimson Shadowdamsel, discovered in Kerala’s Thiruvananthapuram district — belong to the group commonly called ‘Shadowdamsels’ because of their affinity for well-shaded forest habitats. The Crimson Shadowdamsel has a reddish body, and the Konkan Shadowdamsel has a coffee-brown ground colouration. Shadowdamsels usually only thrive in pristine habitats and small streams. They can act as indicators of the health of our forests. They are pollution indicators as well. Many of them are microendemics restricted to certain hill ranges within the Western Ghats. What are Damselflies? They are a group of predatory, aerial insects that are in the order Odonata. They are found mainly near shallow, freshwater habitats and are graceful fliers with slender bodies and long, filmy, net-veined wings. They are generally smaller, more delicate, and fly weakly in comparison with dragonflies. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/two-new-damselfly-species-discovered-in-western-ghats-of-maharashtra-kerala-101755262125594.html

Question 145

With reference to the PM SVANidhi Yojana, consider the following: 1. It is a central-sector micro-credit scheme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). 2. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency of the PM SVANidhi Yojana. 3. Under the scheme, street vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly installments. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 145

Only two Explanation : The Prime Minister recently lauded the success of PM SVANidhi Yojana, saying that the scheme is empowering street vendors in the country. About PM SVANidhi Yojana: It is a central-sector micro-credit scheme launched on 1st June 2020 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for providing affordable working capital loans to street vendors affected by the Covid-19 pandemic. The scheme aims to provide financial support to street vendors to resume their livelihoods and help them become self-reliant. Implementation Agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Benefits: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly installments in the tenure of one year. On timely/early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy at 7% per annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer on a quarterly basis. There will be no penalty on early repayment of the loan. The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The vendors can avail the facility of escalation of the credit limit on timely/early repayment of loan. The loan amount can be used for any purpose related to the street vending business, such as buying raw materials, paying rent, or purchasing equipment. The loan repayment period is one year. Eligibility: Street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending /Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey of street vendors but have not been issued Certificate of Vending/Identity Card. Street Vendors left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB / Town Vending Committee (TVC). The vendors of surrounding development/ peri-urban/rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs, who have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB /TVC. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.ptinews.com/editor-detail/PM-Modi-lauds-SVANidhi-scheme-for-street-vendors/2825939

Question 146

With which of the following country India conducted Exercise SLINEX?

Answer 146

Sri Lanka Explanation : The Indian Naval Ships INS Rana and INS Jyoti participated in the 12th edition of Sri Lanka and India Naval Exercise (SLINEX-25). It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka, which was conceptualised in 2005. It has strengthened maritime cooperation between the nations over two decades. Aim: It aims at enhancing interoperability, maritime cooperation and exchanging best practices while jointly undertaking multi-faceted maritime operations. The previous edition of SLINEX was conducted at Visakhapatnam, India in 2024. The exercise will be conducted in two phases – the Harbour phase followed by Sea phase During the harbour phase, professional interactions, Subject Matter Expert Exchange(SMEE), sharing of best practices, cultural & social exchanges along with yoga sessions and sporting events are planned. The naval drills planned during the sea phase include gunnery firing serials, communication protocols, navigation, seamanship evolutions, Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) and fueling at sea. Significance: The SLINEX maritime exercise exemplifies the deep engagement between India and Sri Lanka, which has strengthened cooperation in the maritime domain in consonance with India’s policy of Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions MAHASAGAR. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2156920

Question 147

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. It provides direct cash incentives to eligible employees and employers to boost formal job creation. 2. Under this scheme employers will get incentives in respect of new employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 147

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister announced the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana. It provides direct cash incentives to eligible employees and employers to boost formal job creation. Aim: The scheme aims to support creation over 3.5 crore jobs in two years. Key Features of the Scheme: Part A – Support to First-Time Employees Targeting first-time employees registered with EPFO, this Part will offer one-month EPF wage up to Rs 15,000 in two instalments. Employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh will be eligible for the incentives. The 1st instalment will be payable after 6 months of service and the 2nd instalment will be payable after 12 months of service and completion of a financial literacy programme by the employee. To encourage the habit of saving, a portion of the incentive will be kept in a savings instrument of deposit account for a fixed period and can be withdrawn by the employee at a later date. Part B – Incentives for Employers: This part will encourage generation of additional employment in all sectors, with a special focus on the manufacturing sector. The employers will get incentives in respect of new employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh. The Government will incentivize employers, up to Rs 3000 per month, for two years, for each additional employment, sustained for at least six months. For the manufacturing sector, incentives will be extended to the 3rd and 4th years as well. Incentive Payment Mechanism: All payments to the First Time Employees under Part A of the Scheme will be made through DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer) mode using Aadhar Bridge Payment System (ABPS). Payments to the Employers under Part B will be made directly into their PAN-linked Accounts. An important outcome of the Scheme will also be formalization of the country’s workforce by extending social security coverage for crores of young men and women. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2156794

Question 148

With reference to e-Sushrut@Clinic, consider the following: 1. It provides a lightweight, cloud-based Hospital Management Information System designed for outpatient clinics. 2. It is designed specifically for small and medium healthcare providers. 3. It is developed by the National Informatics Centre. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 148

Only two Explanation : Recently, the National Health Authority (NHA) and the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to roll out e-Sushrut@Clinic. It provides a lightweight, cloud-based Hospital Management Information System (HMIS) designed specifically for outpatient clinics. This government-backed Health Management Information System (HMIS) is designed specifically for small and medium healthcare providers. It marks a pivotal step in expanding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) ecosystem. The application developed by C-DAC is a lighter version of their flagship e-Sushrut HMIS software. Features of eSushrut@Clinic It is tailored for outpatient management, pharmacy, and nursing modules, and delivers essential functionalities at a low per-user cost. Any healthcare provider can onboard it from his/her laptop/mobile on a webpage through their Health Facility Registry (HFR) and Health Professionals Registry (HPR). If the healthcare provider is not registered on HFR/HPR, they would be able to register on eSushrut@Clinic itself. This will make it much easier for doctors in both public and private clinics to access and update patient health records, offer telemedicine services, and streamline diagnostics and prescriptions. The platform enables small clinics, sub-centres, and medium-sized hospitals to digitize patient records, prescriptions, and billing with minimal technical overhead. Several utilities and features of ABDM will be available in eSushrut@Clinic. For instance, the healthcare providers would use the AIIMS Clinical Decision Support Systems (CDSS) service for hypertension and diabetes, which is being provided free for all ABDM-integrated software. This CDSS helps improve patient care by supporting doctors in making better diagnoses and treatment. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2156603

Question 149

Antitrisuloides catocalina, which was recently in news, is a:

Answer 149

Moth Explanation : Recently, scientists have recorded the presence of the rare nocturnal moth species Antitrisuloides catocalina in Choolannur Peafowl Sanctuary in Palakkad district, Kerala. It is a nocturnal moth species belongs to genus Antitrisuloides. It is found in the Western Ghats for the first time. It is part of the Noctuidae family, the genus comprises two known species worldwide. The specimen found in Kerala was identified as, a species previously reported only from North-East India. Its detailed analysis further revealed it to be the subspecies Antitrisuloides catocalina cyclica. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/rare-nocturnal-moth-discovered-in-western-ghats/article69937875.ece

Question 150

Consider the following statements regarding National Gopal Ratna Award: 1. It is one of the highest national honours in the livestock and dairy sector. 2. It aims to encourage excellence among milk-producing farmers with special focus on promoting indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 150

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, has announced the opening of nominations for the prestigious National Gopal Ratna Awards 2025. It is one of the highest national honours in the livestock and dairy sector. It was launched under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission in 2021, Aim: The National Gopal Ratna Awards aim to encourage excellence among milk-producing farmers, dairy cooperatives, Milk Producer Companies (MPCs), Dairy Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Artificial Insemination Technicians (AITs), with special focus on promoting indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds. Indigenous bovine breeds of India are robust and possess the genetic potential to play a crucial role in the national economy. The National Gopal Ratna Awards will be conferred in the following categories: Best Dairy farmer rearing indigenous cattle/buffalo breeds (list of registered breeds Annexed). Best Dairy Cooperative Society (DCS)/ Milk producer Company (MPC)/ Dairy Farmer Producer Organization (FPO). Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT). There is also a provision of Special award for North Eastern Region (NER) and Himalayan States so as to encourage and boost the dairy development activities in these States/UTs. NGRA 2025 will consist of a Certificate of merit, a memento and monetary prize in first two categories i.e Best Dairy Farmer and Best DCS/FPO/MPCs as under. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2156488#:~:text

Question 151

Consider the following statements regarding Ionic Liquids (ILs), recently seen in the news: 1. They are a category of salt which are in liquid state at room temperature. 2. They are highly volatile and flammable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 151

1 only Explanation : Scientists have found life can exist on rocky super-earths with volcanic activity and little water thanks to ionic liquids. About Ionic Liquids (ILs): ILs are a category of salt which are in liquid state at room temperature and made up entirely of ions. ILs are restricted to salts whose melting point is below 100°C (212°F). Any salt that melts without decomposing or vaporizing usually yields an ionic liquid. While ordinary liquids such as water are predominantly made of electrically neutral molecules, ILs are made of ions and short-lived ion pairs. Examples: Tetrabutylammonium nitrite, 1-(Cyanomethyl)-3-methylimidazolium chloride, Choline acetate, etc. ILs are variously called liquid electrolytes, ionic melts, ionic fluids, fused salts, liquid salts, or ionic glasses. General Properties: Non volatile Non-flammable Stable at high temperature (up to 200°C / 392°F or 400°C /752°F depending on the product) and Chemical (water and oxygen) Hydrophobic or Hydrophilic Good conductors (electrolytes) Broad electrochemical range The physico chemical properties of ionic liquids depend on the type and the size of the two ions forming them. Because of their highly tunable nature and exceptional properties, ILs have become essential players in the fields of synthesis and catalysis, extraction, electrochemistry, analytics, biotechnology, etc. ILs have emerged as an environmentally friendly alternative to various organic solvents and catalysts. As they are involatile and highly heat-resistant, they can be used in processes subjected to high temperatures. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/144300/OPS/GB8EPCOPC.1+G1LEPDRKE.1.htm

Question 152

What are the building blocks of peptides? A. Fatty acids B. Amino acids C. Nucleotides D. Monosaccharides

Answer 152

Amino acids Explanation : A study of population-specific responses to fermented food shows that the health effect of the bioactive peptides they contain, differ across populations and can personalise nutrition for India's diverse population. About Bioactive Peptides (BAPs): Peptides are strings of molecules called amino acids, which are the "building blocks" of proteins. The amino acids are joined by covalent bonds known as amide or peptide bonds. For a peptide to be considered bioactive, it should have a physiological effect in a positive manner. Although some BAPs exist free in their natural source, the vast majority of known BAPs are encrypted in the structure of the parent proteins and are released mainly by enzymatic processes. Most of the BAPs are derived from plants and animals. The source of BAPs includes milk, cheese, pickles (fermented fruits and vegetables), plants, egg, fish, meat, and soybean products. Some BAPs have been prepared by chemical synthesis. BAPs play a significant role in human health by affecting the digestive, endocrine, cardiovascular, immune, and nervous systems. BAPs are considered the new generation of biologically active regulators; they can prevent oxidation and microbial degradation in foods and also improve the treatment of various diseases and disorders, thus increasing the quality of life. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2156371

Question 153

Sulawesi Island, recently seen in the news, is part of which country?

Answer 153

Indonesia Explanation : An earthquake of magnitude 5.7 struck Sulawesi in Indonesia recently. About Sulawesi Island: Sulawesi, formerly known as Celebes, is a large island in Southeast Asia, in the Indonesian archipelago. It is part of the island chain known as the Greater Sunda Islands. It is the 11th largest island in the world. It covers an area of 180,680.7 sq. km. The island consists almost entirely of four interconnecting peninsulas. The island is surrounded on all sides by other big islands: Borneo to the west, Philippines to the north, the Maluku Islands to the east, and Flores and Timor to the south. The island is highly mountainous, with some active volcanoes. Sulawesi is known for its rainforests, which once covered the entire island until human activity led to mass deforestation. The highest peak on the island of Sulawesi is Mt. Ratenkombola, which is also known simply as Mario. It reaches a height of 3,455 meters. The island contains thirteen freshwater lakes including the deepest lake, Matano, in Southeast Asia. Seven major ethnic groups inhabit Sulawesi: the Toala, Toraja, Buginese, Makassarese, Minahasan, Mori, and Gorontalese. Makassar is the largest city on the island. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/57-magnitude-earthquake-strikes-indonesias-sulawesi-101755386592544.html

Question 154

The industrial process used to combine hydrogen with nitrogen to produce ammonia is called:

Answer 154

Haber–Bosch process Explanation : Larsen & Toubro’s (L&T), green molecules arm L&T Energy Greentech, recently bagged the tender for building India’s biggest green hydrogen plant at Indian Oil Corporation Ltd’s (IOCL) Panipat refinery. About Green Ammonia: Ammonia (NH3) is a nitrogen and hydrogen based chemical compound widely used in the production of fertilisers and industrial chemicals. Ammonia is currently produced from natural gas and, in its production process, emits 2 tonnes of CO₂ for every tonne of ammonia. For this reason, conventional ammonia is referred to as grey ammonia. Green ammonia, on the other hand, does not emit CO₂ in its production process. Production Process: To produce green ammonia, green hydrogen must first be obtained through a process of water electrolysis. That is, water is decomposed into hydrogen and oxygen, using electrical energy generated from renewable sources. The hydrogen is then combined with atmospheric nitrogen through a process known as Haber-Bosch synthesis, which allows hydrogen and nitrogen to react at high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst to form ammonia. The end result is the production of green ammonia using green hydrogen and atmospheric nitrogen. Green ammonia production is where the process of making ammonia is 100% renewable and carbon-free. Applications: It is widely used in the production of agricultural fertilisers as ammonia is an essential source of nitrogen for plant growth. It is also used as a raw material in the production of a variety of chemical products, such as nitric acid, synthetic fibres, explosives, dyes, and pharmaceuticals. It can be used in fuel for engines such as locomotives and shipping, replacing diesel and marine fuel oil. It can be used as a fuel source for electricity power generation. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/interview/after-kandla-l-t-to-build-1-8-million-tonne-green-ammonia-facility-at-paradip-port-13439700.html

Question 155

Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve lies in which state?

Answer 155

Madhya Pradesh Explanation : The National Green Tribunal recently criticised Madhya Pradesh for allowing the annual Darshan Yatra in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve's core area. About Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve: It is nestled in the Satpura and Vindhya mountain ranges in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh. It is spread over 1536 sq. km., which includes the 716 sq. km. core zone and 820 sq. km. of the buffer zone. The name “Bandhavgarh” is derived from the ancient Bandhavgarh Fort, which sits atop a hill in the park. According to legend, the fort was gifted by Lord Rama to his brother Lakshmana, hence the name “Bandhavgarh” (Brother’s Fort). It also has several archeological monuments. The reserve features around 39 caves with Pali inscriptions and animal depictions. It also contains ancient structures, including stupas and statues from the 1st century BCE. The density of the tiger population at Bandhavgarh is the highest known in India as well as in the world. The habitat is characterized by valleys, hills, and plains, with the Bandhavgarh fort prominently seen as a major landmark. Flora: The flora of the region comprises majorly evergreen Sal forests, mixed forests, and grasslands. Fauna: Apart from tigers, the park is home to other significant species such as leopards, sloth bears, Indian bison (gaur), Asiatic elephants, and a variety of deer species, including sambar and chital. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhopal/ngt-warns-madhya-pradesh-govt-over-darshan-yatra-in-bandhavgarh-tiger-reserve-core-area-orders-sop-visitor-limits/articleshow/123331741.cms

Question 156

Phoenix roxburghii, recently in news is a:

Answer 156

New palm species Explanation : Recently, researchers have identified new palm species and named it as Phoenix roxburghii. It is a new palm species named after William Roxburgh, considered the father of Indian Botany. Features of Phoenix roxburghii It grows 12 to 16 metres tall. Phoenix roxburghii shares morphological similarities with Phoenix sylvestris, but differs by its taller solitary trunk, larger leaves and leaflets, musty-scented staminate flowers and larger, obovoid orange-yellow fruits, Distribution: It is found on India’s eastern coast and Bangladesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan and Pakistan. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/revisiting-katou-indel-in-17th-century-botanical-treatise-hortus-malabaricus-yields-new-finds-for-researchers/article69940209.ece

Question 157

Consider the following statements regarding Escherichia coli: 1. It is a type of bacteria that can be found in the intestines of humans and animals. 2. It can be transmitted to humans through contaminated food. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 157

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers have shown in a new study that genetically engineered Escherichia coli bacteria can be turned into self-powered chemical sensors that interface directly with electronics. It is commonly known as E. coli, is a type of bacteria that can be found in the intestines of humans and animals. It is a rod-shaped bacterium of the Enterobacteriaceae family. While most strains of E. coli are harmless and even beneficial, some strains can cause illness and infections. Some kinds of E. coli can cause diarrhea, while others cause urinary tract infections, respiratory illness and pneumonia, and other illnesses. Transmission: It can be transmitted to humans through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter from infected individuals or animals. How does E. coli make you sick? The most familiar strains of E. coli that make you sick do so by producing a toxin called Shiga. This toxin damages the lining of your small intestine and causes diarrhea. These strains of E. coli are also called Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC). Symptoms: The most common symptoms of E.coli infection include fever, persistent diarrhoea, bloody diarrhoea, and vomiting. Treatment: Most E. coli infections are self-limiting and resolve on their own without treatment. However, it’s essential to stay hydrated during the course of the illness. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-turn-e-coli-bacteria-into-a-mercury-sensor/article69927260.ece

Question 158

With reference to Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medal, consider the following: 1. It recognizes the distinguished service of the most exceptional order during war and conflict. 2. It is given to all ranks of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force in India. 3. It may not be awarded posthumously. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 158

Only two Explanation : Recently, on the eve of the 79th Independence Day, President of India awarded seven Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medals (SYSM) to the leaders of Operation Sindoor. It was instituted on 26 Jun 1980 to recognize the distinguished service of the most exceptional order during war/conflict/hostilities. Features of Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medal Medal: Circular in shape, 35 mm in diameter and fitted to a plain horizontal bar with standard fittings. The medal shall be of gold gilt. The medal shall have on its obverse the State Emblem and the inscriptions "SARVOTTAM YUDH SEVA MEDAL" (in English). On its reverse, it shall have a five pointed star. Ribbon: Golden colour with one red vertical stripe in the centre dividing it into two equal parts. Bar: If a recipient of the medal is subsequently awarded the medal again, every such further award shall be recognised by a Bar to be attached to the riband by which the medal is suspended. For every such Bar, a miniature insignia of a pattern approved by the Government shall be added to the riband when worn alone. Personnel Eligible: All ranks of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force including those of Territorial Army Units, Auxiliary and Reserve Forces and other lawfully constituted Armed Forces when embodied. And also Nursing officers and other members of the Nursing Services in the Armed Forces. The medal may be awarded posthumously. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://theprint.in/defence/president-awards-1st-set-of-sarvottam-yudh-seva-medals-since-kargil-7-honoured-for-leading-op-sindoor/2721467/

Question 159

Golden Dome missile defence system, which was recently in news, belongs to:

Answer 159

USA Explanation : Recently, US President has announced 175 billion Golden Dome missile defence shield for the United States. It is a ground- and space-based missile defense system designed to safeguard the United States from advanced missile threats. Golden Dome aims to create a network of satellites to detect, track and potentially intercept incoming missiles. The shield could deploy hundreds of satellites for missile detection and tracking. It will protect the US from long-range missiles, including those launched from space or other continents, and will integrate with current defense systems. Key Features of the Golden Dome: Space-Based Interceptors: The system aims to deploy interceptors in space to detect and neutralize incoming missiles at various stages of their trajectory. Advanced Tracking Technologies: Utilizing space-based radars and sensors, the Golden Dome will provide real-time tracking of missile threats. Laser Weapons: The integration of laser technology is intended to enhance the system's capability to intercept and destroy missiles mid-flight. Components of the Golden Dome will be drawn from existing American missile defence assets, including Patriot missile batteries, THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defence), Aegis Ballistic Missile Defence, and Ground-based Midcourse Defence (GMD). Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/what-is-the-golden-dome-missile-defense-shield/

Question 160

Consider the following statements regarding Tonga: 1. It is a member of the Commonwealth Clean Ocean Alliance located in the South Pacific Ocean. 2. It features flat terrain with limestone and coral formations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 160

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, an earthquake with a magnitude of 6.2 jolted the Tonga Islands Region. It is a sovereign country in Polynesia, composed of an archipelago of 169 islands located in the South Pacific Ocean. Neighbouring countries include Fiji to the west, Cook Islands to the east and Samoa north. These islands are divided into three main groups: Tongatapu in the south, Ha‘apai in the center, and Vava‘u in the north. The western islands (making up the Tongan Volcanic Arch) are all of volcanic origin; the eastern islands are nonvolcanic and are composed of coral limestone and sand It features flat terrain with limestone and coral formations. Terrain: Mostly flat islands with limestone bedrock formed from uplifted coral formation; others have limestone overlying volcanic rock. Highest Point: The highest point in this region Kao Island in the Haʻapai group. Tonga is a member of the Commonwealth Clean Ocean Alliance and Marine Protected Areas Action Groups. Capital City: The capital city of Tonga is Nukuʻalofa, situated on the northern shore of Tongatapu Island. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/6-2-magnitude-earthquake-hits-tonga/

Question 161

The Halman Apricot, considered one of the finest apricot varieties in the world, is primarily found in which region of India?

Answer 161

Sham region of Ladakh. Explanation : For the first time, a consignment of 1.5 metric tonnes of Halman apricots has been sent to Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Qatar. About Halman Apricot: It is an apricot (Prunus armeniaca L.) variety found in Ladakh. It is one of the best and finest apricots in the world. It was introduced to the region over a century ago from China or Central Asia. It has a wide range of distribution in different parts of Ladakh with particularly abundant in the Sham (western) part of Ladakh including Dha-Hanu, Garkhon, Skurbuchan, Domkhar, Wanla, Khaltse, and Timosgang villages. Renowned for its rich flavor and versatility, it is deeply embedded in Ladakhi cuisine, traditional medicine, and festive rituals, making it an indispensable part of Ladakh's agricultural heritage. Halman serves as a good source of nutritive compounds. Nutritionally, it is a powerhouse of essential vitamins such as Vitamin C and Vitamin E and minerals like potassium, magnesium, and iron. It also serves as a good source of dietary fiber and antioxidants. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/from-cold-desert-to-hot-demand-ladakh-halman-apricots-enter-gulf/article69929023.ece

Question 162

With reference to the Ravi River, consider the following: 1. In India, it flows through the Himachal Pradesh and Punjab states. 2. The majority of its length flows through India. 3. It finally merges with the Chenab River in Pakistan. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 162

Only two Explanation : Continuous heavy rainfall in the hilly regions has led to a significant rise in water levels in the Ravi River recently. About Ravi River: It is a river in northwestern India and northeastern Pakistan. It is one of the five tributaries of the Indus River that give Punjab (meaning “Five Rivers”) its name. Course: It originates from the northern face of Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh and flows through the junction formed by the BaraBang-Dhauladhar range of the Himalayas as two channels, namely Budhil and Tantgari. After joining, it flows through Himachal Pradesh, mainly the Chamba district, where it receives many tributaries. From there, it flows southwards through India, crossing through Punjab before crossing into Pakistan, where it finally merges with the Chenab River, a major tributary of the Indus River. It is 720 km long. The length of Ravi River in India is 320 km and has a catchment area of 14,442 sq.km The hydrology of the Ravi is controlled by spring snowmelt and the South Asian monsoon that brings heavy rains from June to September. It has several tributaries, including the Siul, Baira, and Ujh rivers. The Ravi River has several dams, primarily for hydropower generation and irrigation. The major ones include the Ranjit Sagar Dam (also known as Thein Dam) and the Chamera Dam complex (Chamera I, II, and III). The Indus Water Treaty of 1960 between India and Pakistan allocated the Ravi River, along with the Beas and Sutlej rivers, to India. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chandigarh/water-level-rises-in-ravi-river-after-heavy-rainfall-alert-issued/articleshow/123347171.cms

Question 163

Consider the following statements regarding Ambergris, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a solid, waxy substance produced in the digestive system of sperm whales. 2. It is primarily used in the textile industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 163

1 only Explanation : The Ahmedabad Rural Special Operations Group (SOG) recently seized 2.97 kg of ambergris, commonly known as sperm whale vomit, worth nearly ₹2.97 crore in the international market and arrested two people. About Ambergris: Ambergris, also known as ‘whale vomit’ is a solid, waxy substance produced in the digestive system of sperm whales (Physeter macrocephalus). It is extremely valuable and has been called the ‘treasure of the sea’ and ‘floating gold’. It is highly valued in the perfume industry as a fragrance enhancer. It is also used in traditional medicines and sometimes even as a spice in eastern cultures. There is a ban on the possession and trade of ambergris in countries like the USA, Australia, and India. In India, the sale and trade of ambergris are strictly prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Formation: It is formed in the intestine of the whale to cover the indigestible objects from the animals on which it feeds (mostly the beaks of squid). Once released, it initially floats on the ocean's surface and is black and sticky. Exposure to sun, air, and salt water oxidizes it, and eventually it becomes grey and waxy, often still embedded with small squid beaks. and losing its unpleasant odour. Ambergris is found in lumps of various shapes and sizes, ranging from 15 grams up to 420 kilograms. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gujarat/ahmedabad-rural-police-seize-ambergris-worth-297-crore-two-arrested/article69943582.ece

Question 164

With reference to the SWAYAM Portal, consider the following: 1. It is India’s own MOOCs (Massive Open Online Course) platform of the Ministry of Education (MoE). 2. It facilitates hosting of all the courses taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation. 3. All the courses are interactive and are available free of cost. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 164

All the three Explanation : The Ministry of Education is offering free Artificial Intelligence (AI) courses on the Swayam Portal to help students stay updated with the rising demand for AI skills. About SWAYAM Portal: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is India’s own MOOCs (Massive Open Online Course) platform of the Ministry of Education (MoE) initiative and was launched during 2017. It seeks to bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge economy. It is an indigenously developed IT platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, anywhere, at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the country, and are available, free of cost, to the residents in India. What is offered in SWAYAM? Courses that are taught in classrooms from 9th class till post-graduation. The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants: video lecture specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes and an online discussion forum for clearing the doubts. Categories of courses include - Engineering, Science, Humanities, Management, Language, Mathematics, Arts and Recreation, Commerce, General, Library, Education. Courses delivered through SWAYAM are available free of cost to the learners. Students wanting certifications need to register and shall be offered a certificate on successful completion of the course, with a little fee. At the end of each course, there will be an assessment of the student through a proctored examination, and the marks/grades secured in this exam could be transferred to the academic record of the students. UGC and AICTE have already issued the UGC (Credit Framework for online learning courses through SWAYAM) Regulation 2016 advising the Universities to identify courses where credits can be transferred on to the academic record of the students for courses done on SWAYAM. National Coordinators of SWAYAM: AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education) for self-paced and international courses. NPTEL (National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning) for Engineering UGC (University Grants Commission) for non technical post-graduation education CEC (Consortium for Educational Communication) for under-graduate education NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) for school education NIOS (National Institute of Open Schooling) for school education IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University) for out-of-school students IIMB (Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore) for management studies NITTTR (National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research) for Teacher Training programme INI (Institutes of National Importance) for Non-Technical Courses Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.ndtv.com/education/ministry-of-education-offers-five-free-artificial-intelligence-courses-on-swayam-portal-9096123

Question 165

The Bering Strait separates which of the following two continents?

Answer 165

Asia and North America Explanation : According to a recent study, mariners in the Bering Strait are following 2018 shipping guidelines, which suggest a quiet form of U.S.-Russia cooperation despite strained political relations. About Bering Strait: It is the northernmost part of the Pacific Ocean, separating the continents of Asia and North America, particularly Russia and the United States. This important waterway is just south of the Arctic Circle. It connects the Bering Sea to the Chukchi Sea of the Arctic Ocean. At the strait’s narrowest point, Asia (Russia) and North America (the US) are just 85 km apart. The narrowest point is between Cape Prince of Wales in Alaska and Cape Dezhnev in Russia. The international boundary between the two countries passes through the Bering Sea and Strait. It is relatively shallow, with an average depth of 50 m. The Strait has numerous islands, including the Diomede Islands and St. Lawrence Islands. St. Lawrence Island is the US's sixth-largest Island. The two Diomede Islands are located in the middle of the strait. The Big Diomede Island belongs to Russia, while the Little Diomede Island is on the US side. The International Date Line runs between the two islands, leaving the American and Russian sides on different calendar days. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.marineinsight.com/shipping-news/ship-movements-in-bering-strait-highlight-u-s-russia-cooperation-amidst-strained-relations/

Question 166

Mt Elbrus, recently in the news, is located in:

Answer 166

Caucasus Mountains Explanation : Recently, a mountaineer of Arunachal Pradesh, climbed Mt Elbrus, the highest peak in Europe. Location: Mount El’brus is located in southwest Russia and is part of the Caucasus Mountains. Formation: It is believed that the Caucasus Mountains were formed due to the northward collision of the Arabian Plate with the Eurasian Plate. Geological studies have revealed that Mount Elbrus was formed over 2.5 million years ago and the volcano had been most active during the Holocene Epoch. It is the highest point in Russia as well as the highest point in all of Europe. It has an elevation of 18,510 feet (5,642 meters).It makes up part of the Prielbrusye National Park. It is one of the Seven Summits of the world, which are the tallest mountains on each of the seven continents. Mount Elbrus is an inactive volcano that consists of two principal summits, both of which are dormant volcanic domes. Climate: The climate of El’brus is generally cold. Even during summer, nighttime temperatures are around -8°C (18°F). Major Glaciers: Bolshoi Azaou and Irik Glacier Major Rivers: Many Russian rivers like the Baksan, Malka, and Kuban rivers originate from Bolshoi Azaou and Irik Glacier glaciers. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/arunachalee-mountaineer-summits-mt-elbrus-highest-peak-in-europe/articleshow/123345385.cms?from=mdr

Question 167

Consider the following statements regarding Jellyfish: 1. It is a highly adaptable marine organism with simple anatomy. 2. It is a resilient gelatinous zooplankton of the phylum Cnidaria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 167

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, one of the largest nuclear power plants in France was forced to temporarily shut down on due to a slimy and spineless adversary: jellyfish. It is a resilient gelatinous zooplankton of the phylum Cnidaria. It is highly adaptable marine organism with simple anatomy, stinging tentacles and efficient jet propulsion. Characteristics of Jellyfish It is a simple invertebrate, members of the phylum Cnidaria, which includes creatures such as sea anemones, sea whips, and corals. The body parts of a jellyfish radiate from a central axis. This “radial symmetry” allows jellyfish to detect and respond to food or danger from any direction. They are pretty simple, lack brains, blood, or even hearts. Anatomy: They are composed of three layers: an outer layer, called the epidermis; a middle layer made of a thick, elastic, jelly-like substance called mesoglea; and an inner layer, called the gastrodermis. Jellyfish have the ability to sting with their tentacles. Ecological Impact: These blooms disrupt marine ecosystems by reducing biodiversity, outcompeting native species and collapsing fish and invertebrate populations. Reasons for Jellyfish’s Bloom Global warming has led to higher ocean temperatures, which, in turn, has resulted in the surge of plankton — the primary food source of jellyfish. With an abundance of food available, jellyfish have been able to increase their population substantially. Overfishing: Recently various kinds of species, such as tuna and sea turtles, that prey on jellyfish have been removed from the ecosystem. These species also feed on plankton, and with their reduced population, jellyfish have more plankton to consume and thrive unchecked. Plastic Pollution: Unlike other marine creatures, jellyfish can tolerate low oxygen levels in water, which is a consequence of pollution. This has also contributed to the increase in their population in recent years. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/nuclear-power-plants-jellyfish-10187058/

Question 168

With reference to Dibru-Saikhowa National Park, consider the following statements: 1. It is designated a Biosphere Reserve and located in the state of Assam. 2. It is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the South. 3. It is the only habitat of feral horses in India. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 168

Only two Explanation : A new study has identified at least two native plants Bombax ceiba and Lagerstroemia speciosa that have joined invasive species to alter the riverine ecosystem of eastern Assam’s Dibru-Saikhowa National Park. Location: It is a national park located in Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts, Assam, India. It was designated a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 1997. Rivers: The Park is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and Dibru River in the south. Vegetation: It mainly consists of moist mixed semi-evergreen forests, moist mixed deciduous forests, canebrakes and grasslands. It is the largest salix swamp forest in north-eastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winter. Flora: It consists of Dillenia indica, Bischofia javanica, Bombax ceiba, Lagerstroemia parviflora, etc. Fauna: Tiger, Elephant, Leopard, Jungle Cat, Bears, Small Indian Civet, Squirrels, Gangetic Dolphin, Slow Loris, Assamese Macague It is the only habitat of feral horses in India. It is an identified Important Bird Area (IBA) having more than 382 species of Birds, some of which are Greater Adjutant Stork, Lesser Adjutant Stork, Greater Crested Grebe. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/grassland-invaders-stifle-assams-island-like-national-park/article69943121.ece

Question 169

Consider the following statements regarding Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis: 1. It is caused by Naegleria fowleri which infects the human brain. 2. It affects mainly young and active people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 169

Both 1 and 2

Question 170

Consider the following statements regarding Almond: 1. It is one of the major and oldest tree nut crops in the world. 2. It is mainly cultivated in the hilly parts of colder regions in Jammu& Kashmir only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 170

1 only Explanation : The almond harvest in Kashmir marks an important seasonal and cultural event, and this year’s bumper crop has brought smiles to farmers’ faces. Almond is one of the major and oldest tree nut crops in the world. There are two types of almond available: Sweet almond and Bitter almond. Required Climatic Conditions Climate: Colder regions climate is suitable for almond farming. Temperature: Temperature ranging between 7°C to 24°C is considered appropriate. Soil: Deep, loamy, well drained soils are ideal for almond growing. Rainfall: Average rainfall needed is 75 to 110 cm. Almond plants can grow easily at an altitude of 750 to 3200 meters above sea level. Major Almond farming Countries: USA, Australia, Spain, Turkey Major Almond farming states : In India Almond cultivation is mainly done in the hilly parts of colder regions, mainly in Jammu& Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala and some hilly regions of Andhra Pradesh. Uses: Almonds are used for various purposes like in sweets, milk, nuts used in the food and used in producing oils. Challenges: Erratic weather patterns, limited access to modern farming techniques, competition from lower-cost imports, shrinking farmlands, and a lack of policy support from authorities. Hence only statements 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jammu-and-kashmir/in-frames-nutty-delight/article69943302.ece#:~:text

Question 171

The Minimum Public Shareholding (MPS) rule in India requires all listed companies to ensure at least certain percentage of their total issued and paid-up equity share capital is held by public shareholders. What is this portion?

Answer 171

25% Explanation : SEBI recently proposed to increase the flexibility of minimum public shareholding (MPS) and minimum public offer (MPO) for companies aspiring to get listed, aimed at “simplifying fund-raising by issuers in India. About Minimum Public Shareholding (MPS): The Minimum Public Shareholding (MPS) rule is a regulatory requirement laid out by SEBI under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957, and reinforced by the Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations. It is applicable to all listed companies in India. As per these rules, all listed companies must ensure that at least 25% of their total issued and paid-up equity share capital is held by public shareholders—i.e., non-promoters and non-promoter group entities. Where promoters are holding more than 75%, they have to mandatorily divest additional shares to the public to comply with the MPS rule. Such stake reduction could be done either by placing shares with institutions or by issuing rights shares to dilute their holdings. The objective is to: Enhance liquidity in the market Promote fair price discovery Ensure broader participation and corporate governance Newly listed companies are expected to meet this requirement within three years from the date of listing. For issuers with a post-issue market cap of over ₹1 trillion, the deadline for 25% MPS is five years. If the public shareholding falls below 25% at any time, such company shall bring the public shareholding to 25% within a maximum period of 12 months from the date of such fall. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/sebi-proposes-to-ease-minimum-shareholding-norms-in-view-of-expanding-market/article69948722.ece

Question 172

Consider the following statements regarding Rubella, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a highly contagious viral infection. 2. There is currently no vaccine available for rubella. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 172

1 only Explanation : The World Health Organization recently announced Nepal has eliminated rubella as a public health problem. About Rubella: It is a highly contagious viral infection best known by its distinctive red rash. It's also called German measles or three-day measles. Rubella isn't the same as measles, but the two illnesses share some signs and symptoms, such as the red rash. Rubella is caused by a different virus than measles, and rubella isn't as infectious or as severe as measles. Rubella is caused by the Rubella virus, an enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus, different from the measles virus. Transmission: The Rubella virus spreads from person to person when you cough, sneeze, or touch surfaces with the virus on them. It can also spread from a pregnant woman to the fetus. You can be contagious with rubella without symptoms. Symptoms: This infection may cause mild or no symptoms in most people. The main symptom of rubella is a spotty rash that starts on the face or behind the ears and spreads to the neck and body. The rash takes 2 to 3 weeks to appear after getting rubella. Rubella can cause serious problems for unborn babies whose mothers become infected during pregnancy. When a woman is infected with the rubella virus early in pregnancy, she has a 90% chance of passing the virus on to her fetus. This can cause the death of the fetus, or it may cause Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). Infants with CRS may excrete the virus for a year or more. Children with CRS can suffer hearing impairments, eye and heart defects, and other lifelong disabilities, including autism, diabetes mellitus, and thyroid dysfunction. Prevention: The measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine is safe and highly effective in preventing rubella. The vaccine provides lifelong protection against rubella. Treatment: There are currently no medications available to treat rubella. Mild symptoms can be managed with bed rest and medicines for fever. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.who.int/southeastasia/news/detail/18-08-2025-nepal-eliminates-rubella

Question 173

Sahariya Tribe resides primarily in which India states?

Answer 173

Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh Explanation : A remarkable genetic study conducted by researchers revealed a possible genetic link associated with the unusually high rate of tuberculosis (TB) in the Sahariya tribe of central India. About Sahariya Tribe: It is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) and is among the most disadvantaged and vulnerable population groups in the country. The six-lakh population (Census 2011) is spread across Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh and sprinkled in a few other states. The Sahariya community is also called by the names Seher, Sair, Savar, Saonar, Sahra, etc. Residing in communities with non-Sahariya members, the Sahariyas mostly live in a separate area in the village, which is called ‘Seharana’. It is generally a cluster of houses. The houses are made of some stone boulders, and the roofing is also made of stone slabs – locally called Patore. In some villages, mud structures are also constructed. In villages, ties to the caste system are very strong, and people belonging to the same caste live in close proximity. They live in small joint families. Language: While the Sahariyas have lost their original language, they speak the local dialects of the regions they inhabit. Religion: The Sahariya practice their traditional ethnic religions. However, they are also aware of Hindu values and use them in defining their own identity. They are known for their dance, the Saharia Swang, which is performed during the month of Holi. The dance is performed to the beats of the dhol, nagari, and matki. It features a male dressed in female attire who dances around the male performers. Livelihood: Predominantly forest dwellers, they live in remote locations and make their living from forest produce, additionally cultivating small plots of land and work as landless labourers. They are particularly skilled in making catechu from khair trees. To supplement their meagre income, seasonal migration is very common in the tribe. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/varanasi/high-rate-of-tb-in-sahariya-tribe-linked-to-mitochondrial-genetic-factors/amp_articleshow/123361552.cms

Question 174

Consider the following statements regarding the Sliteye Shark, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a small-bodied shark species found in inshore waters in the Arctic Ocean. 2. It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 174

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : For the first time, scientists have recorded the sliteye shark in the Great Chagos Bank in the Indian Ocean, the world’s largest coral atoll. About Sliteye Shark: It is a small-bodied shark species found in inshore waters throughout the Indo-West Pacific. It is a species of requiem shark, in the family Carcharhinidae, and the only member of its genus, Loxodon. Scientific Name: Loxodon macrorhinus Named for its distinctive, slit-like eyes—thought to enhance vision in low-light conditions—the sliteye shark is well adapted to deeper, dimly lit environments as well as clear and shallow waters. Distribution: Widespread in tropical waters of the Indian and western Pacific Oceans between 34°N and 30°S off the coasts of Australia, China, Djibouti, Egypt, Eritrea, India, Indonesia, Japan, Kenya, Madagascar, Mozambique, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Sudan, Taiwan, Tanzania, and Yemen. Features: It is a small shark with a very slender body, a long narrow face, large eyes, and short furrows at the corners of the mouth. It can reach a length of about 95 cm. The teeth are small, with a protruding tip and smooth edges. The ridge between the dorsal fins is absent or rudimentary. The coloration of the Sliteye shark is gray, the belly is white, and the edges of the fins are pale (transparent when alive). The caudal and first dorsal fins have dark edges. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Near Threatened Hence both statements are not correct. News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/science/sliteye-shark-discovered-in-remote-indian-ocean-rare-predator-spotted-for-the-first-time-in-chagos-waters-article-13463434.html

Question 175

Which Union ministry has launched the Udyam Sakhi portal?

Answer 175

Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Explanation : The Udyam Sakhi Portal, launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), is helping women entrepreneurs across the country start, build, and expand their businesses, said the Minister of State in a written reply in the Rajya Sabha recently. About Udyam Sakhi Portal: Udyam Sakhi portal (http://udyamsakhi.msme.gov.in/) was launched by the Ministry of MSME in March 2018 to provide information regarding financial schemes, policies, and programmes of the Ministry of MSME to existing/prospective women entrepreneurs in the MSME sector. The portal is a network for nurturing entrepreneurship and creating business models for low-cost products and services in order to empower women and make them self-reliant and self-sufficient. The portal helps women to start, build, and grow their businesses. The portal accords the following services through its programmatic functions: Entrepreneurship learning tools Incubation facility Training program for fund raising Providing mentors One-on-one investor meet Provide facilities for market survey Learning and development; be it by means of education, information, or technical assistance and training. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/udyam-sakhi-portal-helping-women-entrepreneurs-become-self-reliant-over-4500-registered-so-far/

Question 176

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuel: 1. It is produced from renewable biomass and waste resources. 2. Its carbon footprint is significantly more than aviation turbine fuel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 176

1 only Explanation : India’s largest refiner and fuel retailer Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) expects to start producing sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) on commercial scale at its Panipat refinery by December. It is a biofuel, also known as bio-jet fuel is produced from sustainable feedstocks. It has chemistry similar to conventional aviation turbine fuel (ATF) or jet fuel, which is derived from crude oil. This means that existing aircraft engines can easily use the SAF-ATF blend. It is made from renewable biomass and waste resources have the potential to deliver the performance of petroleum-based jet fuel. Various Indian airlines have already operated successfully a few test and demonstration flights using jet fuel doped with SAF in various proportions. Production: It can be produced from a number of sources (feedstock) including waste oil and fats, green and municipal waste and non-food crops. It can also be produced synthetically via a process that captures carbon directly from the air. Significance of Sustainable Aviation Fuel Its carbon footprint is significantly lower than aviation turbine fuel (ATF). It is ‘sustainable’ because the raw feedstock does not compete with food crops or water supplies, or is responsible for forest degradation. It remains the major mature and viable pathway to decarbonise the aviation sector. At the same time, SAF only accounts for 0.3% of the current fuel use for aviation. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/used-cooking-oil-to-fuel-for-planes-indias-first-sustainable-aviation-fuel-plant-to-start-production-by-year-end-10194705/

Question 177

Consider the following statements regarding Sakura Science Programme: 1. It aims to expand scientific curiosity amongst youth and encourage international collaboration. 2. It is the prestigious Japan-Asia Youth Exchange Programme implemented by the Japan Science and Technology Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 177

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A group of thirty-four students from government schools in India are set to visit Japan under the Sakura Science Programme 2025. It is the prestigious Japan-Asia Youth Exchange Program in Science—better known as the Sakura Science Programme. It was launched globally in 2014, aims to expand scientific curiosity amongst youth and encourage international collaboration. India joined the Sakura Programme in 2016. It is implemented by the Japan Science and Technology Agency (JST). The initiative offers young learners a chance to explore cutting-edge science and immerse themselves in Japanese culture. Under this programme, students are invited for short-term visits to Japan, providing them with the opportunity to experience Japan’s cutting-edge science and technology as well as its rich culture. For the upcoming Sakura Programme 2025, JST has invited participants from six other countries Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Nigeria, South Africa and Zambia. The Sakura Science Program's objectives include: To support the development of talented human resources from overseas who have the potential to contribute to innovation in science and technology. To accelerate international brain circulation. To promote continuous collaboration, cooperation and interaction between Japanese educational and research institutes and those overseas. To strengthen good relationships between Japan and other countries and regions that can encourage diplomacy in science and technology. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/sakura-programme-2025-to-host-34-indian-government-school-students-in-japan-2772701-2025-08-18

Question 178

With reference to Palmyra Palm Tree, consider the following: 1. It is a palm tree native to tropical Africa. 2. It thrives particularly well in sandy soil and red soil. 3. It is mainly propagated through vegetative method and not through seeds. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 178

Only two Explanation : Palmyra palm trees in Odisha are providing dual benefits by reducing lightning-related deaths and serving as a food source for elephants during lean seasons. It is commonly named as sugar palm, or toddy palm or fan palm. It is a native of tropical Africa but cultivated and naturalized throughout India. In India, it is planted as a windbreak on the plains. Required Climatic Conditions Soil: It exhibit adaptability to a wide range of soil types, including arid and wastelands. They thrive particularly well in sandy soil, red soil, black soil, and river alluvium. Rainfall: These palms are also suited for semi-arid regions with an annual rainfall of less than 750 mm. They can grow at altitudes from sea level up to 800 meters. Palmyra is mainly propagated through seeds and there is no vegetative method available for its propagation. Benefits of Palmyra Palm Tree It is used as a natural shelter by birds, bats and wild animals. The chief product of the palmyra is the sweet sap (toddy) obtained by tapping the tip of the inflorescence. The toddy ferments naturally within a few hours after sunrise and is locally popular as a beverage. Palmyra palm jaggery (gur) is much more nutritious than crude cane sugar. Traditionally, the Indian 'Nadar' community are the people who make their living from this tree using its wood, fruits, sap, stems, petioles and leaves to process a variety of food products, beverages, furniture, building materials, and handicrafts. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/palmyra-trees-offering-twin-benefits-in-odisha

Question 179

Consider the following statements regarding Periodic Labour Force Survey: 1. It gives estimates of key employment and unemployment Indicators. 2. It is conducted by the Ministry of Labour every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 179

1 only Explanation : According to the Monthly Bulletin of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), India's unemployment rate fell to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025. It gives estimates of key employment and unemployment Indicators like the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), Unemployment Rate (UR), etc. The sample design of the Periodic Labour Survey (PLFS) has been revamped from January 2025. As part of revamping of the sample design monthly rotational panel scheme has been implemented for both rural and urban areas wherein each selected household is visited four times in four consecutive months The redesigned PLFS aims to achieve the following objectives: To generate key employment and unemployment indicators every month for both rural and urban areas at the all-India level under the Current Weekly Status (CWS). To extend the Quarterly PLFS results to rural areas, thereby producing quarterly estimates of labour market indicators for both rural and urban India under the CWS framework. To provide annual estimates of key employment and unemployment indicators in both usual status (ps+ss) and Current Weekly Status (CWS) for rural as well as urban areas. This survey is conducted by the National Sample Survey (NSO), working under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2157501

Question 180

Consider the following statements regarding e-Jagriti Platform: 1. It is a flagship initiative by the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India. 2. It is aimed at strengthening the consumer dispute redressal system across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 180

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Over two lakh users, including NRIs, have registered on the e-Jagriti platform since its launch. e-Jagriti is a flagship initiative by the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India. It is aimed at strengthening the consumer dispute redressal system across the country. The project focuses on the computerization and networking of all Consumer Commissions at the national, state, and district levels to ensure transparency, efficiency, and speedy resolution of consumer disputes. Features of e-Jagriti Platform e-Jagriti enables consumers to file complaints, track case statuses, and access judgments online. The platform plays a vital role in digitizing consumer commissions and empowering citizens by providing easy access to legal remedies. It provides simple, fast and a more cost-effective consumer disputes redressal software solution at all levels. It is envisaged to integrate consumer grievance platforms, namely, Online Case Monitoring System (OCMS), E-Daakhil, NCDRC Case Monitoring System, CONFONET website, mediation application, in a single platform. It has case filing, online fee payment, case monitoring modules for seamless disposal of cases by all the Commissions, has Smart search facility on archived consumer complaints / cases / judgements using AI technology for metadata and keyword creation, and Voice-to-text conversion of judgements, case history and other details using AI / ML technology. With its user-friendly interface and real-time updates, e-Jagriti ensures accountability, reduces paperwork, and fosters a more transparent and accessible justice system for consumers nationwide. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/ten-states-and-ncdrc-achieve-over-100-case-disposal-rate-in-july-boosting-consumer-grievance-redressal/

Question 181

Vihar Lake, recently seen in the news, is located in which Indian city?

Answer 181

Mumbai Explanation : In the wake of heavy rains in Mumbai over the last few days, Vihar Lake, one of the key sources of potable water for the metropolis, started overflowing. About Vihar Lake: It is a man-made reservoir located near Vihar village on the Mithi River within the grounds of the Borivali National Park, which is also known as Sanjay Gandhi National Park, in North Mumbai, Maharashtra. The lake was built from 1856 to 1860 by the British government to overcome the drinking water woes of the people of southern Mumbai. It gets its water from the Powai-Kanheri hill ranges in the catchment area. It is the largest lake in Mumbai in the Salsette group of islands. It is bordered between the Tulsi Lake and the Powai Lake. It partly meets the drinking water needs of the South Mumbai region. It supplies 3% of the Mumbai city’s water requirement, after filtration at Bhandup, where the large water filtration plant is located. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/amid-heavy-rains-mumbai-s-vihar-lake-overflows-6th-to-be-filled-to-brim-125081801427_1.html

Question 182

Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Palm Civet, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a nocturnal mammal endemic to the Western Ghats of India. 2. It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 182

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : In a bizarre incident, Kerala High Court’s Chamber 1 proceedings got disrupted recently due to a foul stench caused by Asian Palm Civet. About Asian Palm Civet: The Asian Palm Civet, also known as the Toddy Cat or Common Palm Civet, is a small, nocturnal mammal that is found throughout South and Southeast Asia, including India, Sri Lanka, Indonesia, and the Philippines. It is a member of the Viverridae family, which also includes other civet and mongoose species. Scientific Name: Paradoxurus hermaphroditus Features: It has a long, slender body, short legs, and a pointed snout. It weighs between 2 to 5 kg (4.4 to 11 lbs) and measures around 53 to 71 cm (21 to 28 inches) in length, including the tail. Its fur is brownish-gray with black spots, and it has a white mask-like marking around its eyes. It is a nocturnal animal and feeds on a variety of prey, including insects, small mammals, and fruits. One of the most distinctive features of Asian palm civets is their ability to digest coffee beans, which makes them an important part of the coffee production process in some countries. They are also known for their strong sense of smell and excellent climbing skills, allowing them to easily climb trees and forage for food. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are not correct. News:https://www.news18.com/india/foul-play-kerala-high-court-proceedings-disrupted-due-to-toddy-cats-stench-ws-l-9514409.html

Question 183

Consider the following statements regarding the Pamba River, recently seen in the news: 1. It is located in the state of Karnataka. 2. It finally joins the Arabian Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 183

2 only Explanation : The central government recently initiated steps to include the Pampa River under the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP), a multi-crore initiative aimed at protecting major rivers in the country. About Pamba River: It is the third longest river in the state of Kerala after the Periyar River and the Bharathappuzha River. Also called the 'Dakshina Bhageerathi' or the Ganga of Kerala, the significance of the river is associated with the Sabarimala temple. Pilgrims visiting Sabarimala take a dip in the river here before and after trekking the hill. Pamba is also called Thriveni Sangam, as it is the meeting point for three rivers-Pamba, Achankovil & Manimala. Course: It rises at an altitude of 1650 m in the Pulachimalai Hill on the Peerumedu plateau of the Western Ghats. After traversing a distance of 176 km, it joins the Arabian Sea branching into a number of channels. The basin extends over an area of 2235 sq.km. The entire catchment area lies in Kerala state. The basin is bounded on the east by the Western Ghats and on the west by the Arabian Sea. The main tributaries of the river are Kakki Ar, Azhuta Ar, Kakkad Ar, Kallar, Manimala, and Achenkovil. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2025/Aug/20/pampa-on-the-path-for-inclusion-in-national-river-conservation-plan

Question 184

Consider the following statements regarding Saltwater Crocodile: 1. It is the largest and heaviest of all living reptiles in the world. 2. It is classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 184

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The estimated population of saltwater crocodiles, one of the largest reptiles in the world, has increased in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve (SBR) from last year, according to a population survey by the State’s Forest Department. About Saltwater Crocodile: It is the largest and heaviest of all living reptiles in the world. Scientific Name: Crocodylus porosus It is also known as the estuarine crocodile, Indo-Pacific crocodile, marine crocodile, sea crocodile, or informally as saltie. It is an opportunistic hypercarnivorous apex predator. Distribution: It is native to saltwater habitats and brackish wetlands from India's east coast across Southeast Asia and the Sundaic region to northern Australia and Micronesia. Features: The average male is 5 m in length and weighs around 500 kg, while females are significantly smaller, with the average female saltwater crocodile measuring a little under 3 m in length and weighing less than 100 kg. Their coloration varies, typically featuring a dark, greenish-brown hue with lighter underbellies, which helps them blend into their aquatic surroundings. They have thick, armored skin made of tough scales that protect them from potential threats. They are solitary creatures, especially when it comes to adult males. They are highly territorial, with large male saltwater crocodiles often controlling extensive stretches of rivers, estuaries, or coastlines. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are correct. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/west-bengal/saltwater-crocodiles-thriving-in-sundarbans-213-direct-sightings-in-2025/article69951404.ece

Question 185

With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2025, consider the following: 1. It provides that leaseholders may apply to the state government for adding other minerals to an existing lease. 2. It allows for a one-time extension of the area under a mining or composite lease. 3. It provides for establishing an authority to register and regulate mineral exchanges. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 185

All the three Explanation : The Rajya Sabha cleared the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill recently, even as the Opposition members walked out. About Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2025: The bill will amend the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. The Bill provides that leaseholders may apply to the state government for adding other minerals to an existing lease. For inclusion of critical and strategic minerals and other specified minerals, no additional amount needs to be paid. These include minerals such as lithium, graphite, nickel, cobalt, gold, and silver. The Act establishes the National Mineral Exploration Trust to fund mineral exploration in the country. The Bill widens the scope of the Trust to also fund the development of mines and minerals. Under the Act, captive mines are allowed to sell up to 50 percent of minerals produced in a year, after meeting end-use requirements. The Bill removes the limit on the sale of minerals. The Bill allows for a one-time extension of the area under a mining or composite lease. This will be applicable for deep-seated minerals. Deep-seated minerals are minerals which occur at a depth of more than 200 metres from the surface of land. The Bill provides for establishing an authority to register and regulate mineral exchanges. The Bill defines mineral exchange as a registered electronic trading platform or marketplace for trading minerals and metals. The central government will frame rules regarding mineral exchanges on matters including: manner of registration levy of fees and other charges prevention of insider trading and market manipulation grievance redressal. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliament-passes-mines-and-minerals-amendment-bill/article69951567.ece

Question 186

Thettekad Bird Sanctuary, is located in:

Answer 186

Kerala Explanation : A comprehensive faunal survey at the Thettekad Bird Sanctuary, Ernakulam, Kerala, has added nine species records to its official biodiversity checklist. It is the first bird sanctuary in Kerala, located on the banks of Periyar River. Thattekad bird sanctuary is also known as Dr. Salim Ali bird sanctuary, named after Dr Salim Ali, the best known ornithologist in India. The sanctuary which spreads across the foot of western Ghats , was notified in 1983 based on previous recommendation by Dr. Salim Ali. Vegetation: It consists of Tropical Evergreen Forests, Tropical Semi-evergreen forests, Moist Decidious forests. It consists of natural habitats which includes Periyar river, lagoons and marshes formed by Bhootattankettu dam reservoir, tropical semi & evergreen forests of the western Ghats. Major peaks in the sanctuary are Thoppimudi and Nyayapillimudi. Flora: Myristica dactyloides, Hopea parviflora, Tetrameles mudiflora, eak, Rosewood, Mahagony Fauna: It is famous for many endemic and rare birds like Ceylon Frogmouth, Black Bazza, Oriental dwarf kingfisher, Bay owl etc. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/biodiversity-of-thattekad-bird-sanctuary-in-kerala-grows-richer-as-survey-reveals-nine-new-species/article69950349.ece#:~:text

Question 187

Consider the following statements regarding NAVYA Initiative: 1. It aims to empower girls aged 16–18 years in aspirational districts by equipping them with relevant skills. 2. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship and the Ministry of Women & Child Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 187

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) informed the the Lok Sabha about the NAVYA Initiative. The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational training for Young Adolescent Girls) aims to empower adolescent girls (AGs) aged 16–18 years in aspirational districts by equipping them with relevant skills for socio-economic independence. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship and the Ministry of Women & Child Development. Objective of NAVYA Initiative Provide demand-driven vocational training aligned with traditional and non-traditional sectors. Facilitate holistic development through modules on health, nutrition, hygiene, financial literacy, life skills, and legal awareness. Promote employability, self-employment, and forward linkages such as internships, apprenticeships, and job opportunities. Strengthen gender-inclusive skilling and create a safe, supportive training environment. Bridge the gap between education and livelihood, particularly for girls in underserved and remote areas. Under the NAVYA initiative, it has been decided to train 3850 adolescent girls under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 (PMKVY 4.0) in non-traditional and modern job roles such as digital marketing, cybersecurity, AI-enabled services, green jobs, and other emerging sectors. Further, training in life skills, financial literacy, and digital competence is to be provided to equip them for both current and future workforce demands. Under the NAVYA initiative, 19 States and 27 districts have been covered. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2157512#:~:text

Question 188

With reference to Snow Leopard, consider the following: 1. It is known as the ‘ghost of the mountains’. 2. It is mainly found in the rugged terrains of Central and South Asia. 3. It is categorized as Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red list. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 188

Only two Explanation : A three-year camera trapping study has confirmed year-round presence and breeding activity of snow leopards in Jammu & Kashmir, especially the significance of Kishtwar Himalayas. It is a medium-sized big cat that resides in the rugged terrains of Central and South Asia. It is adapted to living in a cold, mountainous environment. It is known as the ‘ghost of the mountains’. Distribution: It prefers steep, rugged terrains with rocky outcrops and ravines and are usually found at an elevation of 3,000-5,000 metres or higher in the Himalayas. They are found in 12 countries, including China, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Pakistan, Russia, and Mongolia. In India, they can be largely found in the high-altitude cold, arid, and rugged terrains of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Features of Snow Leopard The snow leopard’s pale grey fur is marked with dark rosettes, serving as camouflage against rocky terrains. The snow leopard reaches a length of about 7 feet (2.1 meters). Almost half of that length is the tail. The tail helps to provide balance when the cat climbs in mountainous terrain and warmth when the cat sleeps. The snow leopard is solitary and lives alone except when mating or raising offspring. Conservation status IUCN: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/year-round-snow-leopard-presence-and-breeding-activity-confirmed-in-jammu-and-kashmir

Question 189

Consider the following statements regarding Anna-Chakra: 1. It is a supply chain optimisation tool under Public Distribution System. 2. It is developed in collaboration with the World Bank and Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 189

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of State for the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution informed about Anna-Chakra. It is a supply chain optimisation tool under Public Distribution System (PDS) It is developed in collaboration with the World Food Programme (WFP) and Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), IIT-Delhi. It is spearheaded by the Department of Food Public Distribution. Working of Anna Chakra The project leverages advanced algorithms to identify optimal routes and ensure seamless movement of food grains across supply chain nodes. An operation of this magnitude involves a complex supply chain, relying on multiple stakeholders starting from farmers to Fair Price Shops. This exercise has covered 4.37 Lakhs Fair Price Shops and approx. 6700 warehouses involved in PDS supply chain. The interstate route optimization tool has been developed for optimization of the PDS movement between the states and it is integrated with the FOIS (Freight Operations Information System) portal of the Railways through Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP). A significant milestone in this effort is the integration of the optimization tool with the PM Gati Shakti platform which now houses geo -locations of FPSs and warehouses across the states. Advantages of Anna Chakra It is unique initiative which helps improve the speed and efficiency of the world’s largest food security program providing food safety net to 81 Crore beneficiaries. Reduces fuel consumption, time, and logistics costs, it also provides environmental benefits of lower carbon footprint due to reduced transportation-related emissions. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2158038

Question 190

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees: 1. It was established by the General Assembly of the United Nations in the aftermath of the Second World War. 2. It started the Nansen Refugee Award for recognition of outstanding service to the cause of refugees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 190

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has temporarily suspended the process of facilitating the repatriation of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees. It is a UN Refugee Agency which protects refugees worldwide and facilitates their return home or resettlement. History: It was established by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1950 in the aftermath of the Second World War to help the millions of people who had lost their homes. It is a global organization dedicated to saving lives, protecting rights and building a better future for people forced to flee their homes because of conflict and persecution. Governance structure It is governed by the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). The UNHCR Executive Committee approves the agency's biennial programmes and the corresponding budget. These are presented by the High Commissioner, who is appointed by the UN General Assembly. Funding: It is funded voluntarily, contributed by governments, private donors, and organisations. It was awarded Nobel Peace Prizes in 1954 and 1981. It started the Nansen Refugee Award in 1954 for recognition of outstanding service to the cause of refugees, displaced or stateless people. Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/unhcr-suspends-repatriation-of-refugees-to-sri-lanka/article69948423.ece#:~:text=Facilitation%20of%20voluntary%20returnees%20put%20on%20hold%2

Question 191

The Didayi Tribe, recently seen in the news, primarily resides in which state?

Answer 191

Odisha Explanation : Champa Raspeda, a student from Odisha’s Malkangiri district, has made history by becoming the first member of the Didayi, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), to clear NEET 2025. About Didayi Tribe: The Didayi tribe, also known as the Didai people or Didiya tribe, is an indigenous tribal community residing in the Malkanagiri district of Odisha. They are one of 13 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) in Odisha. They belong to the Proto-Australoid racial stock. They speak a language which has been included under the Austroasiatic language family. The Didayi’s social structure is patriarchal, and their religious beliefs are rooted in animism, with a deep reverence for the natural world. They live in small, remote forest villages, often in the Eastern Ghats hills. Villages have a traditional council of elders that settles disputes. Houses are typically thatched huts built with mud walls and bamboo. The primary occupation of the Didayi tribe traditionally revolves around agriculture, hunting, gathering, and fishing. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/odishas-champa-raspeda-becomes-first-from-didayi-tribe-to-clear-neet-2774053-2025-08-20

Question 192

Kalai-II Hydroelectric Project is located in which state?

Answer 192

Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : The Arunachal Pradesh State Pollution Control Board (APSPCB) recently conducted a public hearing for environmental clearance for the proposed 1,200 MW Kalai-II hydroelectric project in Anjaw district, being developed by THDC India Limited. About Kalai-II Hydroelectric Project: It is a 1,200 MW hydropower project planned on the Lohit River (a tributary of the Brahmaputra River) in the Anjaw District of Arunachal Pradesh. The project is being developed and currently owned by THDC India Limited (formerly Tehri Hydro Development Corporation Limited). It is a run-of-river with pondage project. The project involves construction of a concrete gravity dam, upstream & downstream coffer dam, diversion tunnel, intake tunnel, pressure Shafts, underground Powerhouse complex, surge chamber, and Tail Race Tunnel, etc. The hydro reservoir capacity is planned to be 318.8 million cubic meters. The gross head of the project will be 125 m. It consists of 6 turbines, each with 190 MW nameplate capacity. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/arunachal-pollution-control-board-holds-public-hearing-for-1200-mw-kalai-ii-hydroelectric-project/articleshow/123416487.cms

Question 193

Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?

Answer 193

Assam Explanation : Aaranyak, a premier biodiversity conservation organisation, in collaboration with partner organisations, organised an awareness programme under the theme “Conservation and Coexistence” at Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam’s Morigaon district recently. About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the eastern region of Guwahati, Assam. This wildlife sanctuary was established in 1998 with a total area of 48.81 sq.km. The Sanctuary consists of the Rajamayong Reserve Forest and Pobitora Reserve Forest. History: Pobitora became a reserved wooded area in the year of 1971 with the approval of the Government of Assam Tourism. The Government of India included Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary with the association of a rhino breeding program named “Indian Rhino Vision 2020”. It is known for holding the highest density of Greater One Horned Rhinoceros in the country. Flora: 72% of Pabitora consists of the wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp. Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface. Fauna: Besides rhinoceros, the other animals are leopard, wild boar, Barking deer, wild buffalo, etc. It is also home to more than 2000 migratory birds and various reptiles. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/story/aaranyak-conservation-programme-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary-assam-1264468-2025-08-20

Question 194

With reference to the Krishna River, consider the following: 1. Ghataprabha 2. Malaprabha 3. Bhima 4. Tungabhadra How many of the above are tributaries of the Krishna River?

Answer 194

All the four Explanation : A flood-like situation prevails across the Krishna River basin as incessant rainfall continues in the region. About Krishna River: It is a river of south-central India. One of India’s longest rivers, it has a total course of about 800 miles (1,290 km). Course: The river rises in western Maharashtra state in the Western Ghats range near the town of Mahabaleshwar, not far from the coast of the Arabian Sea. It passes through the Indian states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh and meets the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast. The Krishna River Basin extends over an area of about 258,948 sq. km, which is nearly 8 percent of the total geographical area of the country. It is bounded by the Balaghat range on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east, and by the Western Ghats on the west. The principal tributaries joining Krishna are the Ghataprabha, the Malaprabha, the Bhima, the Tungabhadra, and the Musi. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/flood-like-situation-at-krishna-river-basin/articleshow/123415923.cms

Question 195

Which among the following best describes INS Aridhaman?

Answer 195

It is a nuclear-powered submarine. Explanation : India is poised to significantly enhance its strategic defence capabilities with the upcoming induction of its third nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), INS Aridhaman. About INS Aridhaman: It is the second Arihant-class submarine. It is the second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) being built by India. It is being built under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project to build nuclear submarines at the Ship Building Centre in Visakhapatnam. Features: It will have a length of 112 m (367 ft) overall, a beam of 15 m (49 ft), and a draft of 10 m (33 ft). The complement is about 95, including officers and sailors. With a displacement of 7,000 tonnes and a length of 125 metres, it has the capacity to carry a larger number of K-4 missiles. Aridhaman will be fitted with a combination of two sonar systems – USHUS and Panchendriya. USHUS is a state-of-the-art sonar meant for Kilo-class submarines. Panchendriya is a unified submarine sonar and tactical control system, which includes all types of sonar (passive, surveillance, ranging, intercept and active). It also features an underwater communications system. The hull features twin flank-array sonars and Rafael broadband expendable anti-torpedo countermeasures. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://defence.in/threads/indian-navys-third-nuclear-ssbn-ins-aridhaman-enters-final-phase-of-extensive-sea-trials-formal-induction-expected-by-2025-end.15299/

Question 196

Consider the following statements regarding Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems Programme: 1. It is an initiative of the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-arid Tropics. 2. It was launched in response to global threats to family farming and traditional agricultural systems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 196

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare informed the Lok Sabha that India currently hosts three Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS). The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is a Food and Agriculture Organization’s programme launched at the World Summit for Sustainable Development in 2002. It was launched in response to global threats to family farming and traditional agricultural systems, such as climate change, community displacements and biodiversity loss. It is aiming to strike a balance between conservation, sustainable adaptation and socioeconomic development, the programme helps to mitigate the threats faced by farmers while enhancing the benefits of farming systems. It uses a multistakeholder approach, GIAHS provides Technical assistance, promotes the value of traditional agricultural knowledge and stimulates markets for agricultural products, agrotourism and other market opportunities. India’s GIAHS Koraput region (Odisha): It is renowned for its subsistence paddy cultivation, predominantly on highland slopes, and is home to a vast diversity of paddy landraces and farmer-developed varieties. It also harbors rich genetic resources of medicinal plants, deeply interwoven with the indigenous tribal communities and their traditional knowledge systems. Kuttanad system (Kerala): It is a unique below-sea-level farming landscape, comprising wetlands for paddy cultivation and fish catching, garden lands for coconut and food crops, and inland water bodies for fishing and shell collection. Saffron Park of Kashmir: It represents a rich agro-pastoral system characterized by traditional saffron cultivation, intercropping, and the use of organic farming practices, all of which contribute to maintaining local biodiversity and soil health. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2158029#:~:text=

Question 197

Consider the following statements regarding Made in India Label Scheme: 1. It aims to strengthen the reputation of the products manufactured in India. 2. It is a voluntary certification scheme led by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 197

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Made in India Label Scheme promotes domestic manufacturing and informs consumers about product origin and Government has proposed INR 995 crores for three years. It is an initiative that lends support to the manufacturing industry by building a brand reputation, stronger identity and wider reach for made in India products. Aim: To strengthen the reputation of the products manufactured in India. It also guarantees authenticity of the products originating from India and/or crafted with locally sourced raw materials. This is a voluntary certification scheme to help manufacturers demonstrate that their products are manufactured in India and are of good quality. The label displays a QR code and a logo with the information around location of manufacturing, validity of the label and other product specific information. The initiative is being led by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). The Quality Council of India and the India Brand Equity Foundation are actively collaborating with DPIIT in an advisory capacity. Objectives of the Made in India Label Scheme The scheme provides identity to the product based on its origin It develops a mechanism to qualify and brand the products of Indian origin It also supports in recognising the products of Indian origin in domestic as well as international market The Made in India Label strength the positioning of the product in the competitive market, as the label would indicate authenticity, quality and differentiation among other products. Eligibility Criteria Manufacturers and producers who manufacture or assemble their products wholly or substantially in India. Each product has a specific quality and manufacturing criteria set by relevant regulatory bodies which needs to be met before obtaining the permission. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=155053&ModuleId=3

Question 198

With reference to Pseudomonas aeruginosa, consider the following: 1. It is a gram-negative and non-spore forming bacterium. 2. It is an opportunistic pathogen causes a wide array of community-acquired infections. 3. It is commonly found in the saltwater environment. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 198

Only two Explanation : Recently, a team of researchers, led by scientists from the Helmholtz Centre for Infection Research in Germany, has reported that a gene in the bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa shows bistable expression. It is a gram-negative, aerobic, non-spore forming rod shaped bacterium. It is capable of causing a variety of infections in both immunocompetent and immunocompromised hosts. It is commonly found in the environment, particularly in freshwater. It can cause a wide array of community-acquired infections like folliculitis, puncture wounds leading to osteomyelitis, pneumonia, otitis externa, and many others. It is commonly an opportunistic pathogen and is also an important cause of nosocomial infections like ventilator-associated pneumonia, catheter-associated urinary tract infections, and others. Most burn victims succumb to secondary P. aeruginosa infections. It is a major cause of keratitis, an eye infection, and also infects urinary catheters. What is Bistable expression in Bacteria? Two bacterial cells with identical genomes — and even from the same colony — can be quite different from each other. One cell might express a particular gene at a high level while the other might express it at a low level or not at all. Each bacterium goes on to transmit its expression level to its offspring in a process called epigenetic inheritance. Such variations among identical cells and organisms are called bistability. Bistability might be a survival strategy that single-celled organisms use to adapt to fluctuating environmental conditions. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/bistable-gene-pseudomonas-aeruginosa-offers-clue-beating-it/article69955435.ece

Question 199

Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India: 1. It is a non-profit autonomous organisation registered under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. 2. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Science and Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 199

1 only Explanation : Recently, the National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL), a constituent board of the Quality Council of India launched its new Medical Application Portal. It is a non-profit autonomous organisation registered under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. It was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations, i.e., Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). It is under the administrative control of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Functions of Quality Council of India: It works as the national accreditation body. It has been established to create a mechanism for independent third-party assessment of products, services, and processes. It also promotes the adoption of quality standards relating to Quality Management Systems, Food Safety Management Systems and Product Certification and Inspection Bodies through the accreditation services provided by the National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB). It plays a pivotal role at the national level in propagating, adoption, and adherence to quality standards in all important spheres of activities. Governance of Quality Council of India: QCI functions through the governing body and other executive bodies (boards/committees) for implementing the strategy, policy, and operational guidelines as set out by its governing council. The council comprises 38 members, with equal representation from the Government, Industries and other stakeholders. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2158005

Question 200

Consider the following statements regarding Agni-5 Missile: 1. It is a nuclear-capable land-based Intercontinental Ballistic Missile. 2. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 200

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, India successfully test-fired its intermediate-range ballistic missile Agni-5 from the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur, Odisha. It is a nuclear-capable land-based Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicle (MIRV) capability. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Features of Agni-5 Missile Range: It is one of India’s most advanced long-range missiles, capable of striking targets well beyond 5,000 kilometers It is designed with modern navigation, guidance, warhead, and engine technologies and is strengthens India’s strategic deterrence capability. Warhead Capacity: It is capable of carrying and firing up to three nuclear warheads simultaneously. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-successfully-test-fires-agni-5-ballistic-missile-from-odisha/article69956842.ece

Question 201

Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) functions under which Ministry of the Government of India?

Answer 201

Ministry of Education Explanation : The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) recently issued a show cause notice to the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS), asking it to disclose the source of funding for its studies on the Election Commission’s Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise and the Maharashtra Assembly polls. About Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR): It is the apex body of the Government of India for research in the social and human sciences. It was established in the year 1969 by the Government of India on the recommendation of Prof. V. K. R. V. Rao Committee. It is an autonomous organisation working under the aegis of the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education. ICSSR plays a pivotal role in advancing knowledge and understanding of various social issues and challenges, and providing research-based solutions to policymakers and stakeholders in the development of the nation through initiatives and schemes such as research projects doctoral, postdoctoral, senior fellowships, and national fellowships research internships; training and capacity building of early career researchers publication grants national and international seminars, conferences, and workshops publication of cutting-edge research national and international collaboration promotion of social science and humanities research through research institutes, recognised institutes, and regional centres. An all-India network of 24 frontline research institutes and six regional centres is maintained, and five recognized institutes are programmatically supported by the ICSSR. The Documentation center of ICSSR – National Social Science Documentation Centre (NASSDOC)-provides library and information support services to researchers in social sciences. ICSSR has developed the ICSSR Data Service to serve as a national data service for promoting a powerful research environment through sharing and reuse of data among the social science community in India. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/icssr-pulls-up-csds-for-data-manipulation-seeks-funding-details-nagpur-nashik-police-cases-add-heat/articleshow/123414068.cms

Question 202

Consider the following statements regarding Huntington's Disease: 1. It is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the cells in your brain. 2. There is currently no treatment that can stop Huntington's Disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 202

2 only Explanation : The union and state governments have yet to include Huntington’s disease in the rare category under the National Policy for Rare Diseases, a demand raised by patients and caregivers in 2024. About Huntington's Disease: It is a genetic condition that affects the cells in your brain. It is an inherited condition that causes brain cells to slowly lose function and die. If one of your parents has HD, you have a 50% chance of also developing it. It affects the cells in parts of your brain that regulate voluntary movement and memory. What causes Huntington’s disease? A genetic mutation of the HTT gene causes Huntington’s disease. The HTT gene makes a protein called huntingtin. This protein helps your nerve cells (neurons) function. If you have HD, your DNA doesn’t have all the information needed to make the huntingtin protein. As a result, these proteins grow in an abnormal shape and destroy (instead of help) your neurons. Your neurons die because of this genetic mutation. The destruction of nerve cells happens in the basal ganglia, or the region of your brain that regulates your body’s movements. It also affects the brain cortex (surface of your brain) that regulates your thinking, decision-making, and memory. How common is HD? Huntington’s disease affects an estimated 3 to 7 out of every 100,000 people, most often people of European ancestry (biological family comes from European descent). Symptoms: Common symptoms include uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behavior, emotion, thinking, and personality. Other symptoms may include tremor (unintentional back-and-forth movement in the person’s muscles) and unusual eye movements. The eye movements can happen early in the disease. These symptoms get worse over time. As HD progresses, you will need constant assistance and supervision because of the debilitating nature of the disease. People usually die from the disease within 15 to 20 years of developing symptoms. Treatment: There is no treatment that can stop or reverse HD, but health care providers can offer medications to help with certain symptoms. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bengaluru/patients-caregivers-struggle-as-cure-govt-support-elude-huntingtons-disease-3691801

Question 203

Jeju Island, recently seen in the news, belongs to which country?

Answer 203

South Korea Explanation : Following complaints from locals about misbehaviour by foreign visitors, police in South Korea's Jeju Island have printed a special type of multilingual notice. About Jeju Island: Jejudo (also known as Jeju Island) is a volcanic island. With a surface area of 1,846 sq.km., it is the largest island 130 km off the coast of the Korean Peninsula and the main island of Jeju Province of South Korea. It lies in the East China Sea 60 miles (100 km) southwest of South Jeolla province, of which it once was a part. The provincial capital is the city of Jeju. Oval in shape, Jeju Island measures 40 miles (64 km) from east to west and 16 miles (26 km) from north to south. The island contains the natural World Heritage Site Jeju Volcanic Island and Lava Tubes. A central feature of Jeju is Hallasan, the tallest mountain in South Korea and a dormant volcano, which rises 1,950 m above sea level. 360 satellite volcanoes are around the main volcano. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.ndtv.com/travel/jeju-island-in-south-korea-issues-guidelines-to-tackle-tourist-misbehaviour-9128736

Question 204

What does the term ‘Blue Carbon’ refer to? A. Carbon stored in glaciers and polar ice caps. B. Carbon stored in fossil fuels. C. Carbon stored in terrestrial forests. D. Organic carbon stored in vegetated coastal ecosystems.

Answer 204

Organic carbon stored in vegetated coastal ecosystems. Explanation : Seaweed farming has emerged as a potential Blue Carbon strategy, yet empirical estimates of carbon burial from such farms remain lacking in the literature. About Blue Carbon: Blue Carbon refers to organic carbon captured and stored by the ocean in vegetated coastal ecosystems such as mangrove forests, saltmarshes, or seagrass meadows. “Blue” refers to the watery nature of this storage. The vast majority of blue carbon is carbon dioxide that has dissolved directly into the ocean. Much smaller amounts are stored in underwater sediments, coastal vegetation, and soils; carbon-containing molecules, such as DNA and proteins; and ocean life from whales to phytoplankton. These ecosystems store massive amounts of carbon, making them an integral part of global efforts to combat climate change. They cover just 2% of the total ocean surface but account for 50% of the ocean’s carbon absorption. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.researchgate.net/publication/388120274_Carbon_burial_in_sediments_below_seaweed_farms_matches_that_of_Blue_Carbon_habitats

Question 205

The Mithi River flows through which Indian city?

Answer 205

Mumbai Explanation : The Economic Offences Wing (EOW) of the Mumbai Police recently arrested a 49-year-old contractor in connection with the multi-crore Mithi river desilting fraud that has caused losses of over ₹65 crore to the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC). About Mithi River: Mithi river is one of the four rivers flowing through the Mumbai city, Maharashtra. The river originates from the overflow of Vihar Lake and also receives the overflows from the Powai Lake about 2 km downstream. It flows for 18 km before discharging into the Arabian Sea at Mahim Creek, flowing through residential and industrial complexes of Powai, Saki Naka, Kurla, Kalina, Vakola, Bandra Kurla Complex, Dharavi and Mahim. The river has an average width of 5 metres in the upper reaches, has been widened to 25 m in the middle reaches and up to 70 m in the lower reaches after the 26 July 2005 deluge (944 mm in 24 h on 26 July 2005) It is a seasonal river, which feeds on the monsoons. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/one-more-contractor-arrested-in-65-crore-mithi-river-desilting-fraud-101755801562771.html

Question 206

Exercise Samanvay Shakti, recently in news is a:

Answer 206

Military-civil Integration Exercise Explanation : Recently, the Exercise Samanvay Shakti 2025 was inaugurated at Laipuli, in Tinsukia district of Assam. It is initiated by Indian Army collaboration with state officials of Assam & Manipur to foster efficient cooperation, cohesion and mutual understanding. It is a military-civil Integration exercise aims at fostering synergy between security forces, government departments and civil institutions to address the region’s complex challenges through a unified and coordinated approach. The inaugural session witnessed participation from the Indian Army, Indian Air Force, District Administration, Police, Intelligence Agencies, NDRF, SDRF, Medical Officials, BRO & GREF, Railways, educational institutions and security officials from OIL India, IOCL and Coal India alongwith representatives of the local media. Objectives of Exercise Samanvay Shakti To take concrete steps towards achieving an improved state of readiness, supported by unhindered channels of communication and refined standard operating procedures through practical rehearsals. It seeks to further strengthen the bond of trust between the people of upper Assam & Manipur and the institutions that serve them, thereby contributing towards preparedness for security challenges, development towards nation building, and reinforcing national integration. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/army-initiates-military-civil-integration-exercise-with-assam-manipur/

Question 207

Consider the following statements regarding Lipulekh Pass: 1. It is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Himachal Pradesh. 2. It is utilized as a trade route, connecting the Indian subcontinent with the Tibetan plateau Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 207

2 only Explanation : India rejects Nepal’s claims over Lipulekh after India, China restart trade through border points. Location: It is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China. It links the Indian state of Uttarakhand with the Tibet region of China. Altitude: It lies at an altitude of approximately 5,334 meters (17,500 feet). Its elevation and strategic location make it a gateway to the higher reaches of the Himalayas. It is the first Indian border post opened for trade with China in 1992. This was followed by the opening of Shipki La Pass, Himachal Pradesh in 1994 and Nathu La Pass, Sikkim in 2006. Significance of Lipulekh Pass Ancient Trade Route: It has been utilized for centuries as a trade route, connecting the Indian subcontinent with the Tibetan plateau. Religious Significance: It also has religious significance, being an integral part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, a sacred pilgrimage for Hindus. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-refutes-nepals-objection-over-lipulekh-trade-agreement-with-china/article69957893.ece

Question 208

With reference to Euglena, consider the following: 1. It is a unicellular, flagellated microorganism. 2. It thrives in nutrient-rich, oxygen-poor environments. 3. It cannot photosynthesise its food and completely dependent on other species for food. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 208

Only two Explanation : In India, Euglena and its relatives are now widespread indicators of deteriorating water quality. Euglena is a unicellular, flagellated microorganism belongs to the group Euglenophyta. Habitat: These are commonly found in stagnant or slow-moving freshwater ponds, ditches, and urban lakes. Characteristics: These protists are highly adaptable, capable of both photosynthesis (like plants) and feeding on organic matter (like animals). This flexibility helps them thrive in nutrient-rich, oxygen-poor environments. Three of the most common euglenoid genera observed in Indian water bodies are: Euglena, Phacus, Trachelomonas sp. These species often dominate surface waters, especially during warmer months. The striking red or pink colour seen during blooms is due to a pigment called astaxanthin, produced by many euglenoids. Astaxanthin is a fat-soluble xanthophyll that gives these organisms their bright red colour. Impact of Euglena on Biodiversity: Oxygen depletion: Euglena photosynthesises, but at night it consumes oxygen, leading to diurnal oxygen fluctuations. This can result in hypoxia (low oxygen levels), which is dangerous for fish and other aquatic life. Dense surface scums: Euglenoid blooms form thick mats on the water surface, which block sunlight from reaching submerged plants. This reduces the lake’s productivity and alters its ecological balance. Fish mortality: Euglenophyte blooms can stick to fish gills, making it hard for them to breathe. Some species also produce toxins like euglenophycin, which directly kill fish or indirectly affect them by disrupting the food chain and oxygen levels. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/red-algal-blooms-are-a-biological-red-flag-a-signal-that-our-water-bodies-are-in-distress

Question 209

Consider the following statements regarding Dal Lake: 1. It is a natural lake located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. 2. It is popular for the floating market where vendors have their own Shikaras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 209

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the iconic Dal Lake in Srinagar hosted the first-ever races under rowing, kayaking, and canoeing categories under the Khelo India Water Sports Festival. Location: It is a mid-altitude urban lake located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains. It is integral to tourism and recreation in Kashmir and is named the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir” or “Srinagar’s Jewel”. It is one of the world’s largest natural lakes and also known as the Lake of Flowers. The shoreline of the lake is encompassed by a boulevard lined with Mughal-era gardens, parks, houseboats, and hotels. The wetland is divided by causeways into four basins; Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin (although Nagin is also considered an independent lake). Lokut-dal and Bod-dal each have an island in the centre, known as Rup Lank (or Char Chinari) and Sona Lank, respectively. Dal Lake is also popular for the floating market where vendors have their own Shikaras/wooden boats and approach tourists. Key Facts about Khelo India Water Sports Festival It is organised jointly by the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the J&K Sports Council underthe government’s ‘Khelo Bharat’ policy. It is aimed at boosting grassroots sports, generating livelihoods, and rejuvenating local infrastructure. It is the first consolidated Open-age category championships where all 14 kayaking and canoeing events and the 10 rowing events are Olympic events. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sport/srinagars-dal-lake-hosts-first-ever-khelo-india-water-games-with-eyes-on-talent-for-olympics/article69960969.ece

Question 210

Consider the following statements regarding Charge-Coupled Device: 1. It operates using the photoelectric effect. 2. It is used in medical diagnostics, including in X-ray imaging and computed tomography. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 210

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A charge-coupled device (CCD) is a remarkable electronic component whose invention marked a significant milestone in technology and influenced many fields. It was a pioneering technology that converted light into electrical signals using an array of capacitors that transferred electric charges in a sequence. A CCD consists of an integrated circuit made up of an array of small picture elements called pixels. Each pixel acts like a small light sensor that collects photons (the particles of light) and converts them into electrical charges. These charges are then transferred across the device, one pixel at a time, to be read and processed into a digital image. Working of Charge-Coupled Device It operates using the photoelectric effect, where light that falls on the device generates electron-hole pairs in the semiconductor material. Specifically, when photons enter a CCD, they strike the semiconductor material beneath each pixel. This energy knocks electrons loose, creating a small group of electrons proportional to the intensity of light in that pixel. Each pixel is essentially a small capacitor that holds these electrons. The amount of charge in each pixel varies depending on how much light the pixel has received. A voltage is applied to electrodes placed over the pixels in a sequence that moves the charges from one pixel to the next, like passing buckets of water along a line. This is why it’s called a “charge-coupled” device, and this process continues until all the charge has reached a readout register. The accumulated charge from each pixel is then converted into a voltage signal, which can be amplified and digitised by connected electronics to form a digital image. This sequential transfer and reading process allows the CCD to create a precise and high-quality representation of a scene being captured. Applications of Charge-Coupled Device Household: CCDs made possible the rise of digital cameras by replacing film with sensors that captured images electronically. They’re also used in CCTV cameras to provide high-quality video feeds for security in places like banks, shopping malls, and hospitals. Medical diagnostics: CCDs play a vital role in medical diagnostics, including in X-ray imaging, computed tomography (CT) scans, and endoscopy. These CCDs are also used in microscopes, spectrometers, and particle detectors where they allow scientists to analyse images in detail. Astronomy: Telescopes fit with CCDs can capture faint and distant celestial objects with more sensitivity and accuracy than traditional photographic plates. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-charge-coupled-devices-revolutionised-digital-imaging/article69956129.ece

Question 211

The Matua community, recently seen in the news, primarily resides in which Indian state?

Answer 211

West Bengal Explanation : A social outfit recently organised a march with members of the Matua community in Habra of North 24-Parganas to protest against the proposed special intensive revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Bengal. About Matua Community: The Matua community, a marginalized Hindu sect with roots in the 19th century, holds a significant socio- religious presence in the Bengal region, particularly across Bangladesh and West Bengal. Founded by Harichand Thakur in the 1860s, the Matua movement arose as a response to the deep-seated caste discrimination present within Hindu society at the time. As followers of the Matua faith, the community primarily belongs to the "Namashudra" caste, traditionally regarded as a lower-caste group within Hinduism. Harichand Thakur’s teachings centered on principles of social equality, human dignity, and the empowerment of marginalized groups through education and religious reform, making the Matua movement a powerful counterforce to caste oppression. Following the partition of Bengal in 1947, the Matua community experienced profound socio-political shifts. Many Matua families migrated to India to escape religious and political persecution, although a large portion of the community remained in what later became Bangladesh. Today, Matuas constitute the second largest SC population of West Bengal. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/apolitical-matua-march-against-sir-citizenship-worries-for-community-prnt/cid/2119580

Question 212

India conducts Exercise Maitree with which of the following country?

Answer 212

Thailand Explanation : The 14th edition of Exercise Maitree, a joint military exercise between India and Thailand, is scheduled to be held in Umroi, Meghalaya, from September 1 to 14, 2025. About Exercise Maitree: It is a joint military exercise between India and Thailand. It will enable the two sides to share their best practices in tactics, techniques, and procedures for the conduct of joint operations. The 14th edition of Exercise Maitree is designed to further sharpen the operational capabilities of both the armies in undertaking joint company-level counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban terrain. It is set to take place in Meghalaya's Umroi from September 1 to 14. This edition is significant as the exercise returns to India after a gap of five years. The last Maitree exercise was held in Tak Province, Thailand, where both sides had deployed 76 soldiers each, including India’s Ladakh Scouts and Thailand’s 1st Battalion of the 14th Infantry Regiment. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://m.economictimes.com/news/defence/india-thailand-joint-military-exercise-to-be-held-from-september-1-14/amp_articleshow/123475301.cms

Question 213

Who was the first Indian to become President of the Central Legislative Assembly?

Answer 213

Vithalbhai Patel Explanation : The Delhi Legislative Assembly held a two-day conference on ‘Vithalbhai Patel: His Role in Shaping India's Constitution and Legislative Institutions’ in New Delhi recently. About Vithalbhai Patel: Vithalbhai Patel, born on 27 September 1873, was an Indian legislator and political leader, co-founder of the Swaraj Party, and elder brother of Sardar Patel. Much before Vallabhbhai Patel could enter politics, Vithalbhai got into the political world and became a prominent name in the Indian independence movement. Despite not being completely in sync with Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy and practices, Vithalbhai joined Congress and began his struggle for India's independence. He managed to win a seat in the Bombay Legislative Council with the help of a band of supporters. After the incident of Chauri Chaura and the end of the Non-cooperation Movement in 1922, Vithalbhai left Congress and established his own party called Swaraj Party, along with Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. The basic aim of the party was to enter the councils and abolish the government run by the British. He became popular amongst the masses through his oratorical and witty speeches. Thereafter, he was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 and later in 1925, became the Assembly's president. He was the first Indian to hold the post of the President/Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly. Vithalbhai Patel drew the attention of the world towards the importance and need of India’s freedom. Thus, he lit the flame of the Indian freedom struggle not only in the country but also abroad. He died in Geneva, Switzerland, on October 22, 1933. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/himachal/speaker-vithalbhai-patel-pioneer-in-empowering-legislative-institutions/

Question 214

With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements: 1. It is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate). 2. It has six members. 3. It takes decisions based on a majority vote. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 214

All the three Explanation : Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently appointed Indranil Bhattacharyya, executive director, as a member of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). About Monetary Policy Committee (MPC): Monetary policy refers to the use of monetary instruments under the control of the central bank to regulate magnitudes such as interest rates, money supply, and availability of credit with a view to achieving the ultimate objective of economic policy. The RBI is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth. In May 2016, the RBI Act, 1934, was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework. The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) constituted by the central government under Section 45ZB determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target. Function: The MPC is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level. The MPC replaced the previous arrangement of the Technical Advisory Committee. Composition: MPC will have six members: the RBI Governor (Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official nominated by the RBI Board, and the remaining three members would represent the Government of India. The external members hold office for a period of four years. The quorum for a meeting shall be four Members, at least one of whom shall be the Governor and, in his absence, the Deputy Governor, who is the Member of the MPC. The MPC takes decisions based on a majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote. The decision of the MPC would be binding on the RBI. RBI’s Monetary Policy Department (MPD) assists the MPC in formulating the monetary policy. The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.livemint.com/economy/rbi-appoints-indranil-bhattacharyya-as-new-mpc-member-ahead-of-october-policy-meeting-who-is-he-11755865211799.html

Question 215

Consider the following statements: 1. It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve. 2. It is located in Tamil Nadu. 3. The Moyar River runs through the reserve. The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?

Answer 215

Mudumalai Tiger Reserve Explanation : A 12-year-old tigress, which had been sick and roaming near the forest boundary in the Singara forest range of the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) died recently. About Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR): It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, spread over 321 sq. km. at the tri–junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. It lies on the Northeastern and Northwestern slopes of the Nilgiri hills, which is a part of the Western Ghats. It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first biosphere reserve in India. It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the west, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the north, the Nilgiris North Division on the south and east, and Gudalur Forest Division on the south-west. The name Mudumalai means ”the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when the Western Ghats were formed. Terrain: The terrain is undulating, with the elevation ranging from 960m to 1266m. Habitat: A variety of habitats ranging from tropical evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, moist teak forest, dry teak forest, secondary grasslands, and swamps are found here. River: The Moyar River runs through the reserve. Flora: It has tall grasses, commonly referred to as “Elephant Grass”, bamboo of the giant variety, and valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc. It has wild relatives of cultivated plants, viz. wild rice, ginger, turmeric, cinnamon, etc. The habitat also has swampy areas (Vayals) and grasslands. Fauna: The faunal assemblage includes: elephant, gaur, sambar, four-homed antelope, spotted deer, barking deer, blackbuck, wild pig, mouse deer, and predators like tigers, leopards, and wild dogs. Around 8% of the total bird species in India can be found in the region. The Oscar-winning ‘Elephant Whisperers’ was filmed at the Theppakadu Elephant Camp, located inside the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2025/Aug/25/sick-tigress-found-dead-in-singara-forest-range-at-mudumalai-tiger-reserve

Question 216

Consider the following statements regarding INS Kadmatt: 1. It is an indigenous stealth anti-submarine warfare corvette. 2. It is built by the Garden Reach Shipbuilders under Project 17A. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 216

1 only Explanation : Recently, Indian Naval Ship INS Kadmatt, successfully completed a three-day port call at Surabaya, Indonesia. It is an indigenous stealth anti-submarine warfare corvette. It is the second of four anti-submarine warfare corvettes built for the Indian Navy by the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers of Kolkata under Project 28. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in January 2016. The ship was inducted into the Eastern Naval Command of the Indian Navy. It has been named after the Kadmat Island of India's Lakshadweep Islands. Role: The primary role of the INS Kadmatt is in anti-submarine warfare—to protect ships in convoys and ports from enemy submarine attacks. Features of INS Kadmatt The ship is fitted with state-of-the-art weapons, sensors, and machinery and is also designed to embark on the Sea king anti-submarine helicopter. The ship also has on-board early warning, navigation, and fire control radars, besides underwater sensors and integrated communication and electronic warfare systems. It produces low levels of radiated underwater noise, which reduces its chances of detection. It is equipped with anti-aircraft guns, torpedoes, and rocket launchers. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2160195

Question 217

Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Food Security Phase Classification: 1. It is an independent body widely recognised as the main global system for measuring the severity of hunger crises. 2. It does not formally declare famine, but provides analysis for governments to do so. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 217

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : According to a new Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) analysis more than half a million people in Gaza are trapped in famine, marked by widespread starvation, destitution and preventable deaths. It is an independent body funded by Western countries and widely recognised as the main global system for measuring the severity of hunger crises. It was set up to sound the alarm so that famine and mass starvation could be prevented and to help organisations respond. The IPC is overseen by 19 major humanitarian organisations and regional bodies. It typically partners with national governments to analyse data. It is an innovative multi-stakeholder global initiative aimed at enhancing food security and nutrition analysis to inform decisions. How is Famine determined? The IPC system charts acute food insecurity on a five-phase scale. Its most extreme warning is Phase 5, which has two levels, catastrophe and famine. If the IPC or one of its partners finds that at least one area is in famine, a famine review committee, led by up to six experts, is activated. For an area to be classified as in famine, at least 20% of people must be suffering extreme food shortages, with one in three children acutely malnourished and two people out of every 10,000 dying daily from starvation or malnutrition and disease. The IPC says it does not formally declare famine, but provides analysis for governments and others to do so. The IPC relies on the U.N. World Food Programme and other relief organisations and government agencies to provide data. The protocols used by the IPC are harmonized across the three individual scales (IPC Acute Food Insecurity, IPC Chronic Food Insecurity, and IPC Acute Malnutrition). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/un-declares-full-blown-famine-in-gaza-amid-israels-calls-for-expanded-ground-ops-10204804/

Question 218

With reference to Bloom Syndrome, consider the following: 1. It is a genetic disorder in which the protein-coding BLM gene does not function. 2. It is seen most commonly in the South East Asian population. 3. It increases the risk of developing cancer at an early age. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 218

Only two Explanation : Recently, a 12-year-old girl diagnosed with the Bloom Syndrome, underwent a bone marrow transplant using stem cells from her younger brother at a private hospital in Chennai. Bloom Syndrome or BSyn is a genetic disorder, in which the BLM gene, a protein-coding gene does not function as it should. It leads to growth delays, increased vulnerabilities to infections, sensitivity to the sun and an increased risk for certain cancers. The BLM gene is a gene that makes a protein involved in maintaining the structure of DNA, when DNA is copied in a cell, and in repairing damaged DNA. Mutations in the BLM gene may cause cells to lose their ability to repair damaged DNA, which may lead to abnormal cell growth. Other names for Bloom Syndrome are Bloom-Torre-Machacek syndrome and congenital telangiectatic erythema. How does it occur? It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that if both parents have a mutation in one of their two BLM genes and and if the child inherits two of the disease-causing variants of the gene, then the disorder occurs. It is seen most commonly in the Eastern European (Ashkenazi) Jewish population. Signs and Symptoms Poor growth is a common clinical feature -- this happens during the development of the foetus and after birth. Below normal average height and head circumference may be seen. There may be abnormalities in certain features such as narrowing of the head and face, prominent ears and nose, long arms and legs and high-pitched voices. Skin lesions: The skin is very sensitive to sunlight and red rashes may develop after exposure. Insulin resistance which leads to an increased risk of diabetes, while other issues include immune deficiencies. People with Bloom Syndrome are at a higher risk of contracting infections such as ear and lung infections and also chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In adults, male sterility and female infertility may occur. Bloom Syndrome increases the risk of developing cancer, and at an early age. Treatment: It involves a multi-disciplinary approach. Since there is no specific treatment, the goal is to manage symptoms. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-you-need-to-know-about-bloom-syndrome/article69955319.ece

Question 219

Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Air Defence Weapon System: 1. It involves only Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missiles and Very Short Range Air Defence System missiles. 2. It is controlled by a Centralised Command and Control Centre, developed by the Defence Research and Development Laboratory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 219

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully conducted the first flight-tests of an Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS). It is a multi-layered air defence system, which includes three components — Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missiles (QRSAM), the advanced Very Short Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missiles, and a high-power laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW). The three components of the IADWS QRSAM: It is a short-range Surface to Air Missile (SAM) system, primarily designed to provide a protective shield to moving armoured columns of the Army from enemy aerial attacks. The entire weapon system is configured on highly mobile platforms. It has search and track capability and can fire on short halts. The system has an operation range of three to 30 kilometers. The QRSAM weapon ensemble consists of a fully automated command and control system, two radars — Active Array Battery Surveillance Radar and Active Array Battery Multifunction Radar — and one launcher. Both the radars have a 360-degree coverage with ‘search on move’ and ‘track on move’ capabilities. VSHORADS: It is a fourth-generation, technically advanced miniaturised Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD). This missile system has the capability to meet the needs of all the three branches of the Armed Forces — Army, Navy and Air Force. Directed Energy Weapon (DEW): Earlier this April, the CHESS facility conducted a successful field demonstration of the land version of the Vehicle mounted Laser DEW MK-II(A). It defeated fixed wing UAV and swarm drones, causing structural damage and disabling their surveillance sensors. With this, India has joined the exclusive club of global powers who possess such a system. DEW is said to have a range of less than three kilometers. QRSAM has been designed and developed by the DRDO, VSHORADS and DEW have been developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI) and Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS) respectively, both Hyderabad-based facilities of the DRDO. The integrated operation of all these weapon system components is controlled by a Centralised Command and Control Centre, developed by the Defence Research and Development Laboratory, Hyderabad. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/drdo-home-grown-air-defence-system-iadws-10208538/?ref=explained_pg

Question 220

Consider the following statements regarding NAMASTE Scheme: 1. It has an objective of institutionalising the persons engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks. 2. It is jointly implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 220

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the union minister of Social Justice & Empowerment, Government of India shared information about the NAMASTE scheme. The objective of the “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) scheme is to formalize and institutionalised the persons engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks and promoting safe and mechanized cleaning through trained sanitation workers. Ministries involved: It is jointly being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Implementing agency: It is implemented by the National Safai Karmacharis Finance Development Corporation (NSKFDC) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) Duration: It would be implemented for three years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2025-26. Target Groups: Sewer and septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) and waste pickers in urban areas of India Aims of NAMASTE Scheme Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter Sanitation workers are collectivized into SHGs and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) have access to alternative livelihoods. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2160203

Question 221

What is the main focus of Psephology?

Answer 221

Study of elections and voting behavior. Explanation : The Supreme Court recently stayed criminal proceedings initiated against psephologist Sanjay Kumar for a social media post concerning an erroneous analysis of the 2024 Maharashtra Assembly election. About Psephology: Psephology is a branch of political science that deals with the scientific analysis of elections or polls. This field is dedicated to offering a meticulous quantitative analysis of elections. The toolbox of psephology encompasses a variety of instruments employed for the statistical examination of election data. These invaluable tools include voting data, opinion polls, campaign insights, and related datasets. Those who wield the expertise of psephology are known as Psephologists. Psephologists study the patterns of elections, using past voting figures and their percentage, public opinion polls and other related information. They estimate the results of the public opinion for the future elections using statistical applications. India does not have an actual post called ‘Psephologist’. However, some major parties have in-house analysts who can be called Psephologists. Several accomplished media editors, political analysts, and marketing research scientists double up as Psephologists. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-protects-psephologist-sanjay-kumar-from-arrest-in-ecis-firs/article69974615.ece

Question 222

Exercise Aarogya Setu, recently seen in the news, was organised by which organisation?

Answer 222

Indian Army Explanation : In a landmark initiative, the Indian Army recently organised the maiden Exercise Aarogya Setu at Rupai, Doomdooma in the Tinsukia district of Assam. About Exercise Aarogya Setu: It was organised by the Indian Army at Rupai, Doomdooma, in the Tinsukia district of Assam. A first of its kind, it marked a civil-military medical fusion exercise in the region. The event aimed at strengthening cooperation between the Army Medical Corps, reputed senior civil doctors from leading hospitals, and PHCs of Tinsukia and the Northern Frontier Railway Hospital, Tinsukia. The focus of the exercise was on how Army and Civil medical fraternities can work together during disasters and war-like situations. A special highlight was the participation of a doctor from the Northern Frontier Railway Hospital, who introduced the concept of train ambulances —a life-saving facility. The presentation drew great interest and sparked discussions on innovative methods of large-scale casualty evacuation. Doctors from both sides discussed how civil institutions can extend crucial support to Army medical authorities. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://nenow.in/north-east-news/assam/aarogya-setu-heralds-maiden-civil-military-medical-fusion-in-tinsukia-assam.html

Question 223

Consider the following statements regarding Fiji, recently in the news: 1. It is a country located in the Caribbean Sea. 2. It does not share land borders with any other country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 223

2 only Explanation : India will provide training and equipment to upgrade Fiji’s maritime security, Prime Minister said recently. About Fiji: It is a country located in the South Pacific Ocean, surrounding the Koro Sea, to the northeast of New Zealand and southwest of Hawaii. It is an archipelago consisting of some 300 islands and 540 islets scattered over about 1,000,000 square miles (3,000,000 sq.km). It does not share land borders with any other country. Of the 300 islands, about 100 are inhabited. The capital, Suva, is on the southeast coast of the largest island, Viti Levu (“Great Fiji”). Viti Levu accounts for more than half of Fiji’s land area. This region is characterized by rugged terrain, with a central mountain range that includes the country’s highest peak, Mount Tomanivi, standing at 1,324 m (4,344 ft). Fiji has a complex geologic history and the islands are largely the product of volcanic action, sedimentary deposit, and formations of coral. Almost half of Fiji’s total area remains forested, while dry grasslands are found in western areas of the large islands. The majority of Fijians are of mixed Melanesian-Polynesian ancestry, with a large South Asian minority. Languages: English (official), Fijian. Currency: Fiji dollar. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-fiji-decide-to-boost-defence-ties/article69974463.ece

Question 224

With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements: 1. It functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. 2. It became a statutory body under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 (AMASR Act). 3. The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments, archaeological sites, and remains of national importance. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 224

All the three Explanation : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has once again drawn public scrutiny following the controversial transfer of archaeologist K. Amarnath Ramakrishna. About Archaeological Survey of India (ASI): ASI, under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, is a premier organisation for archaeological research and protection of the tangible heritage of the nation. It was established in 1861 by Sir Alexander Cunningham, with its headquarters in New Delhi. After independence, it was established as a statutory body under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 (AMASR Act). The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments, archaeological sites, and remains of national importance. Besides, it regulates all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the AMASR Act. It also regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972. The Central Government has declared 3679 monuments and sites as of national importance, and ASI shoulders the responsibility of protecting and maintaining them. The organization has a large workforce of trained archaeologists, conservators, epigraphists, architects, and scientists for conducting archaeological research projects through its Circles, Museums, Excavation Branches, Prehistory Branch, Epigraphy Branches, Science Branch, Horticulture Branch, Building Survey Project, Temple Survey Projects, and Underwater Archaeology Wing. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-asi-is-facing-a-credibility-crisis/article69971421.ece

Question 225

Consider the following statements regarding Minicoy Island: 1. It is the southernmost island in Lakshadweep. 2. It lies near the 11-degree channel, which is one of the busiest shipping routes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 225

1 only Explanation : A 12-year-old tigress, which had been sick and roaming near the forest boundary in the Singara forest range of the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR), died recently. About Minicoy Island: Minicoy, locally known as Maliku, is the second largest and southernmost island in Lakshadweep. Minicoy is famous for coral reefs and white sand beaches amidst the vast expanse of the Arabian sea. It is crescent-shaped and has an area of 4.80 sq.km. This island lies near the 9-degree channel, which is one of the busiest shipping routes and is about 130 km from the northernmost island of the Maldives. It has a very large lagoon on the western side, measuring about 6 km across the two entrances, one on the west and the other on the northernmost point. The lagoon area is 30.60 sq.km. The island is about 2 m above the mean sea level on the western side and about 3 to 4 m on the eastern side, and is 11 km long. The lighthouse of the island is one of the oldest and was constructed in 1885. Minicoy is set apart from the Northern group of islands by its culture. The main attraction of the island is its carefully arranged villages, known as ‘Avah’. Each Avah has its own internal organization headed by a Moopan, around which the life of the community rests. Every village has its own village house. In total there are 10 villages on the island. The languages spoken are Hindi, English, Malayalam, and Mahal. Minicoy being the only people in India speaking Mahal as a linguistic minority. The folk dances of Minicoy are ‘Lava’, Thaara’, ‘Dandi’, ‘Fuli’ and ‘Bandiya’. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kochi/fire-reported-in-minicoy-island/articleshow/123511175.cms

Question 226

Consider the following statements regarding Vaquita: 1. It is mainly found in the northern part of the Gulf of California. 2. It is categorized as Vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 226

1 only Explanation : A report by the North American Environmental Commission has criticized Mexico for failing to protect the endangered vaquita porpoise, with only 10 remaining. It is a shy member and the smallest of the porpoise family. Vaquitas are the most endangered of the world’s marine mammals. Distribution of Vaquita It is the smallest range of any whale, dolphin, or porpoise. It lives in the northern part of the Gulf of California, an area that is rich in fish and shrimp. It is most commonly sighted in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep. Features of Vaquita Vaquitas are the smallest cetaceans—the group that includes dolphins, porpoises, Although they do visually resemble dolphins, their closest relatives, vaquitas, have chunkier bodies and rounded heads with no snouts. Their dorsal fins are unique in that they are taller and wider than most other porpoises. Known for their elusive nature, vaquitas tend to shy away from boats and human activity. Vaquitas communicate using echolocation (or sonar) by emitting high-frequency clicks. Conservation Status: Critically Endangered (IUCN) Threats: The decrease in the vaquita population is also related to the totoaba, a large fish that also only lives in the Gulf of California. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/just-10-vaquitas-remain-worldwide-now-a-report-has-blamed-mexico-for-leading-the-rare-porpoise-towards-extinction

Question 227

Consider the following statements regarding INS Udaygiri: 1. It is built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders under the Project 17. 2. It holds the distinction of being the fastest ship of her class. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 227

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Indian Navy is set to commission the latest state of the art Project 17A multi-mission stealth frigates Udaygiri and Himgiri at Naval Base, Visakhapatnam, on 26 Aug 2025. Udaygiri and Himgiri are built under the Project 17 (Shivalik) class frigates. Udaygiri, built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. (MDL), Mumbai, and Himgiri, constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, showcase the nation’s growing shipbuilding prowess, as well as, the synergy between India’s premier defence shipyards. Both frigates were designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau (WDB). Features of INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri The ships feature modern Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion plants, state of the art Integrated Platform Management System and a suite of advanced weapons and sensors developed by Indian manufacturers. The ships, with about 75% indigenous content, supported by hundreds of indigenous MSMEs, align with the Government’s vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat in defence manufacturing. Udaygiri also holds the distinction of being the fastest ship of her class to be delivered post-launch, a result of the modular construction methodology adopted by Indian shipyards. Significance: The commissioning of these two will augment the Navy’s combat readiness and reaffirm India’s resolve to achieve self-reliance in warship design and construction. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2160573

Question 228

With reference to Anamalai Tiger Reserve, consider the following: 1. It is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. 2. It shares border with Eravikulum National Park on the eatern side. 3. It is inhabited by Kadar and Muduvar indigenous communities. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 228

Only two Explanation : A year-long study by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department has identified that at least eight species of fireflies light up Anamalai Tiger Reserve forests with their bioluminescence. Location: It is a protected area located at an altitude of 1400 m in the Anamalai Hills of Pollachi and Coimbatore District of Tamil Nadu. It lies south of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats. It is surrounded by the Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the east, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, and Eravikulum National Park on the southwestern side. The reserve is also surrounded by the Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur, and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala. It was declared a tiger reserve in the year 2007. It is inhabited by six indigenous communities viz., Kadar, Muduvar, Malasar, Malai malasar, Eravalar and Pulayar. Vegetation: It supports diverse habitat types, viz. Wet evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous, dry deciduous, dry thorn, and shola forests. Other unique habitats like montane grasslands, savannah and marshy grasslands are also present. Flora: The reserve is rich in wild relatives of cultivated species like mango, jackfruit, wild plantain, ginger (Zingiber officinale), turmeric, pepper (Piper longum), cardamom, etc. Fauna: The important wild animals of the reserve include: Tiger, Asiatic elephant, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Jackal, Leopard, Jungle cat, etc Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/anamalai-tiger-reserve-is-home-to-eight-species-of-fireflies/article69975913.ece

Question 229

Consider the following statements regarding National Youth Award: 1. It is given to Indian youth for their tremendous and outstanding work in social service. 2. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Youth Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 229

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, Government of India, invited nominations for the National Youth Award (NYA) 2024. It is sponsored by the Ministry of Youth Affairs. It is for the Indian youth for their tremendous and outstanding work in social service. This award is to motivate young persons to achieve excellence in the field of national development or social service It aims to motivate young persons (aged between 15 – 29 years) to achieve excellence in the field of national development or social service; To encourage young people to develop a sense of responsibility to the community and thus to improve their own personal potential as good citizens; and To give recognition to the outstanding work done by voluntary organizations working with the youth for national development and/or social service. The National Youth Awards are conferred usually during the National Youth Festival. The award is given in two categories: Individual Category and Organisation Category The number of awards given each year would ordinarily not exceed 20 for individual category and five for organization category. It may, however, vary at the discretion of the sanctioning authority in deserving case. Prize money: Award to individuals will comprise a medal, a certificate and award money of ₹1,00,000/-. Award to voluntary youth organizations will comprise a medal, a certificate and award money of ₹3,00,000/-. Eligibility for Award: Individuals/organisations who have shown identifiable excellent work for youth in different fields of development activities and social service such as health, research and innovation, culture, promotion of human rights, art and literature, tourism, traditional medicine, active citizenship, community service, sports and academic excellence, and smart learning are encouraged. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2160502

Question 230

Shipki-La Pass, recently in news, connects India with:

Answer 230

China Explanation : China has agreed in principle to the proposal of resuming trade through Shipki-La in Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh during the recent visit of its Foreign Minister Wang Yi to India. It is a motorable mountain pass situated at an altitude of 3,930 meters, bordering India and China in tribal district of Kinnaur in Himachal Pradesh. It also serves as the boundary post on the frontier between China and India. It is one of the highest motorable passes. Through this pass the Sutlej River (known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet) enters India, has long served as a vital trade corridor between India and Tibet. The old name of Shipki La was Pema La, or Shared Gate, also known as Shared Pass. It was declared the Line of Actual Control post-1962, and later, the Indo-Tibetan Border Police named it Shipki La. Shipki La Pass Significance: The opening of Shipki La to tourists is part of a broader strategy to stimulate economic growth in Kinnaur and Lahaul-Spiti, which share a 240-km border with China. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/china-has-agreed-in-principle-to-resume-trade-with-india-through-shipki-la-himachal-government/article69971792.ece

Question 231

Super Garuda Shield is a multinational joint military exercise primarily led by which countries?

Answer 231

United States and Indonesia Explanation : Indonesia and the United States recently launched the annual joint military exercise, Super Garuda Shield 2025. About Super Garuda Shield: It is a large-scale, multinational joint military exercise designed to enhance interoperability, build mutual trust, and strengthen collective readiness among the participating armed forces of partner nations. Originally established in 2006 as a bilateral information and training exchange between the United States and Indonesia under the name Garuda Shield, the exercise expanded in 2022 to include additional partner nations, reflecting the growing importance of defense cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region. The “Super” was added to the title of the exercise in 2022. The exercise has been held annually in Jakarta, Indonesia. With more than 4,100 Indonesian and 1,300 American troops taking part, the 2025 edition of Super Garuda Shield will be the largest ever. This year’s participating nations include Australia, Brazil, Canada, France, Germany, Indonesia, Japan, the Netherlands, New Zealand, the Republic of Singapore, South Korea, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Observing nations include Cambodia, India, and Papua New Guinea. It will feature maritime and field training events to include engineering construction activities, staff training exercises, airborne operations, jungle training, air assault operations, an amphibious exercise, a large field training exercise and combined arms live fire exercises, and a High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS) live fire exercise. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://thediplomat.com/2025/08/us-indonesia-kick-off-largest-ever-super-garuda-shield-exercise/

Question 232

The Sutlej River enters India through which one of the following passes?

Answer 232

Shipki La Explanation : With the Sutlej swelling due to incessant rain in its catchment areas and heavy releases from dams, evacuation in several low-lying villages of Fazilka and Ferozepur districts began late Tuesday afternoon. About Sutlej River: It is an important tributary of the Indus River. It is the longest of the five big rivers that flow through the Punjab region in northern India and Pakistan. It is also known as “Satadree”. It is located north of the Vindhya Range, south of the Hindu Kush segment of the Himalayas, and in Pakistan. Course: Origin: It rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in Lake Rakshastal in southwestern Tibet at an elevation above 15,000 feet (4,600 metres). It is one of only three Trans-Himalayan rivers originating in the high Tibetan Plateau that cuts across the mighty Himalayan ranges. The other two are the Indus and the Brahmaputra. The Sutlej enters India by flowing west and south-westwards through the Shipki La Pass in Himachal Pradesh at an altitude of 6,608 metres. The river then flows through Punjab near Nangal before meeting the Beas River. The merger of these two rivers goes on to form 105 Km of the India-Pakistan border. The river continues to flow for another 350 Km before joining the Chenab River. The combination of the Sutlej and Chenab Rivers forms the Panjnad, which finally flows into the Indus River. Length: It has a total length of 1550 km, out of which 529 km is in Pakistan. The hydrology of the Sutlej is controlled by spring and summer snowmelt in the Himalayas and by the South Asian monsoon. Tributaries: Spiti River, Baspa River, Soan River, and the Nogli Khad are the major tributaries of the Sutlej River. The waters of the Sutlej are allocated to India under the Indus Waters Treaty between India and Pakistan, and are mostly diverted to irrigation canals in India. There are many hydroelectric and irrigation projects across the river, such as the Bhakra-Nangal Dam, Kol Dam, Nathpa Jhakri Project, and Baspa Hydel Scheme. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/sutlej-in-spate-fazilka-ferozepur-villages-being-evacuated-10213673/

Question 233

What does an inverted duty structure under GST mean?

Answer 233

When the tax rate on inputs exceeds the tax rate on outputs. Explanation : Tax experts have broadly welcomed the Centre’s proposal for a two-tier GST rate structure while cautioning that critical issues such as inverted duty structure need to be addressed for the reform to be fully effective. About Inverted Duty Structure under GST: An inverted duty structure in GST occurs when the tax rate on inputs exceeds the tax rate on output. For example, in the textile industry, the input tax rate ranges from 12 to 18%, while most finished products are taxed at 5%. This implies that sellers have fewer options for offsetting the cost of input taxes. This situation might result in an accumulation of input tax credit (ITC), which can’t be used for the output tax liability. The accumulation of ITC due to unutilized ITC will have to be carried over to the next financial year until it can be utilized by the registered taxpayer for payment of output tax liability. This can result in higher tax costs for businesses and/or an increase in the hidden tax cost for consumers. To solve this issue, the GST law allows for a refund or reversal of ITC. The refund is determined using a method including the turnover of the inverted rated supply, the net ITC, and the overall turnover. Exceptions where the refund of the unutilised input tax credit cannot be claimed, are as follows: Output supplies are nil-rated or fully exempt supplies except for supplies of goods or services or both as may be notified by the Government on the recommendations of the GST Council. If the goods exported out of India are subject to export duty. If the supplier claims a refund of output tax paid under the IGST Act. If the supplier avails duty drawback or refund of IGST on such supplies. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/tax-experts-welcome-proposed-two-tier-gst-but-caution-on-inverted-duty-structure/article69960201.ece

Question 234

Consider the following statements regarding the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP), recently seen in the news: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. 2. It aims for the comprehensive development of villages along India’s coastal states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 234

1 only Explanation : Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation recently inaugurated a two-day workshop on the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) in New Delhi, organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs. About Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP): It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented over the financial years 2022-23 to 2025-26. Objective: Comprehensive development of the 2,967 villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts abutting the northern border in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, and UT of Ladakh. This will help in encouraging people to stay in their native locations in border areas and reversing the outmigration from these villages, adding to improved security of the border. The programme will provide funds for the development of essential infrastructure and the creation of livelihood opportunities. The programme envisages focused areas of intervention in the select villages for the creation of opportunities for livelihood generation through promotion of tourism and cultural heritage, skill development and entrepreneurship, and development of cooperative societies, including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs, etc. Interventions also include providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing and village infrastructures, energy including renewable energy, television and telecom connectivity. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats, and 100% saturation of Central and state schemes will be ensured. There will be no overlap with the Border Area Development Programme. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/border-villages-should-not-remain-the-last-but-the-first-villages-of-india-amit-shah/

Question 235

Consider the following statements regarding the National Designated Authority (NDA) to Enable Carbon Emissions Trading Regime, recently seen in the news: 1. The creation of an NDA is a mandatory requirement under the Paris Agreement. 2. NDA in India will be headed by the Secretary of the Environment Ministry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 235

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently announced a National Designated Authority (NDA), a mandatory requirement under the provisions of the 2015 Paris Agreement, to enable a carbon emissions trading regime. About National Designated Authority (NDA) to Enable Carbon Emissions Trading Regime: Within the Paris Agreement, a section called Article 6 defines the contours under which such an emissions trading regime or a market can take shape. A long-standing bone of contention among countries, Article 6 was finally passed at the 29th edition of the climate Conference of the Parties (COP29) in Baku, Azerbaijan, in November 2024. The creation of an NDA is a mandatory requirement under Article 6. NDA will be a 21-member committee headed by the Secretary of the Environment Ministry. Representatives include officials from the Ministries of External Affairs, Steel, and Renewable Energy, and NITI Aayog. The NDA’s responsibilities include recommending to the Union government a list of activities that can be considered for the trading of emission reduction units from projects under Article 6; modifying them from time to time in line with national sustainable goals, country-specific criteria, and other national priorities; receive projects or activities for evaluation, approval, and authorisation; authorise the use of emission reduction units from projects for use towards achievement of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC). The NDC refers to commitments by countries to reduce emissions by diverting their energy consumption towards renewable energy sources and taking action to reduce carbon concentrations in the atmosphere. India’s NDC commits to reducing its GDP’s emission intensity by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels, achieving 50% electric power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, and creating an additional carbon sink equivalent to 2.5-3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide by 2030 through afforestation. Hence both statements are correct. News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/145704/OPS/GUVEQO30E.1+GFCEQQB3H.1.html

Question 236

Consider the following statements regarding Tawi River: 1. It is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab River. 2. It originates from Man Sarvoar in Tibet region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 236

1 only Explanation : Recently, India forewarned Pakistan as a “humanitarian gesture” about a potential flood in the Tawi river. It is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab River and an important river in the Jammu region. It is considered sacred and holy. The Tawi River is also called "Surya Putri" in ancient texts. Origin: It rises from Kalpas Kund of Seo Dhar in the Bhaderwah in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, and then descends to Sudh Mahadev. It traverses steep hills and plains before entering Pakistan's Punjab province and merging with the Chenab River. The catchment area of the river up to the Indian border (Jammu) is 2168 sq.km. And falls in the districts of Jammu, Udhampur, and a small part of Doda. Tributaries of Tawi River: On the way, many tributaries such as Bhuteshwari (Birma), Duddhar, Jajjhar, etc., join this river. The Tawi River traverses through and divides the city of Jammu into two segments. The water of the river is the main source of water for the entire city. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/why-india-warned-pakistan-about-a-potential-flood-in-river-tawi-10211415/

Question 237

Consider the following statements regarding New World screwworm: 1. It is a type of blue-grey blowfly found in South America and the Caribbean. 2. It infests warm-blooded animals by entering through open wounds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 237

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Department of Health and Human Services reported the first human case of the flesh-eating parasite, the New World screwworm, in the United States. Screwworms are a type of blue-grey blowfly, typically found in South America and the Caribbean. The parasites are named after the screwlike way they burrow into the tissue. Screwworms — specifically females — are attracted to and lay eggs on and in open wounds or another entry point like a nasal cavity in warm-blooded animals and, rarely, humans. One female can lay up to 300 eggs at a time and may lay up to 3,000 eggs during her 10- to 30-day lifespan. These eggs hatch into larvae (known as maggots), which burrow into the wound using their sharp mouth hooks to feed on the living flesh, leading to infestation. After feeding, the larvae fall into the ground, burrow into the soil and emerge as adult screwworm flies. What are the symptoms of infestation? Symptoms of infestation include: wounds or sores that do not heal; bleeding from open sores; feeling larvae movement within a skin wound or sore; and a foul-smelling odour from the site of the infestation. Its infestations can be extremely painful, especially in humans, with a high mortality rate if left untreated. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/us-human-flesh-eating-new-world-screwworm-10212507/

Question 238

With reference to Kani Tribe, consider the following: 1. They mainly reside in the forests of the Agasthyamalai hills of the Western Ghats. 2. They speak Kanikaran as their language. 3. They have vast knowledge about medicinal plants. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 238

Only two Explanation : Recently, Kuttimathan Kani belongs to Kani tribal community who revealed Arogyapacha, has died. The Kani tribals or Kanikarars are a traditionally nomadic community, who now lead a settled life in the forests of the Agasthyamalai hills of the Western Ghats in the Thiruvananthapuram district of Kerala. Every Kanikkarar settlement has a community council for maintaining social control. It consists of the Mootukani (chief), the Vilikani (convenor) and the Pilathi (physician and priest). All these offices are hereditary. The traditional structure of the community was that of a highly coordinated unit under the control of a tribal chief, called the Moottukani. Traditionally the Moottukani combined the roles of the law giver, protector and dispenser of justice, physician and priest. Pilathi are believed to have magical powers and perform various rituals and chant mantras with the help of an instrument named ‘Kokara.” Today, the Kanis live in several tribal hamlets, each consisting of 10 to 20 families disbursed in and around the forest areas of Thiruvananthapuram district. Occupation: The Kani tribe’s traditional occupations include the production of handicrafts seasonal collection of minor forest products such as honey and beeswax, and cultivation of edible plants such as tapioca, banana, millets and cash crops. Language: They speak Tamil and Malayalam as their language. They have vast knowledge about medicinal plants. According to Kani tribal customs, only the Plathies have the right to transfer and disseminate their traditional medical knowledge. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/remembering-kuttimathan-kani-the-forest-elder-who-gave-a-wonder-herb-to-the-world-but-died-in-poverty

Question 239

Consider the following statements regarding National Awards to Teachers: 1. It was instituted to honour the unique contribution of some of the finest teachers in the country. 2. It is awarded only to teachers working in Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) run by Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 239

1 only Explanation : Recently, the department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education selects 16 teachers in Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) and Polytechnic for National Awards to Teachers (NAT) 2024. It was first instituted in the year 1958 to felicitate remarkable teachers and head masters in their quest to improve the quality of school education and enrich their students’ learning experiences. This Award program is designed to honour and celebrate the unique contribution of some of the finest teachers in the country. These awards are given away by the President of India (or) the Vice President of India on 5th September (Teacher's Day) every year to give public recognition to meritorious teachers working in primary, middle and secondary schools. The NAT is being executed under the overall supervision of the Ministry of Education (MOE). Eligibility Criteria for National Awards to Teachers School teachers and Heads of Schools working in recognized primary / middle / high / higher secondary schools under the following categories: Schools run by State Govt./UTs Administration, schools run by local bodies, schools aided by State Govt. and UT Administration and Private schools affiliated to State/UTs Board. Central Govt. Schools i.e. Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs), Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs), Sainik Schools run by Ministry of Defence (MoD), Schools run by Atomic Energy Education Society (AEES) and Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) run by Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Normally retired teachers are not eligible for the award but those teachers who have served a part of the calendar year (at least for four months i.e. upto 30th April in the year to which National Awards relate) may be considered if they fulfill all other conditions. Educational Administrators, Inspectors of Education, and the staff of training Institutes are not eligible for these awards. Teacher / Headmaster should not have indulged in tuitions. Only regular Teachers and Heads of Schools with minimum ten years of services are eligible. Contractual Teachers and Shiksha Mitras are not eligible. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049495

Question 240

Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth Magnet: 1. These are type of permanent magnet made from alloys of rare earth elements. 2. These are used in medical applications such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 240

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Automakers too are cutting down on certain non-essential equipment in their vehicles to reduce the usage of rare earth magnets. Rare earth magnets are a type of permanent magnet made from alloys of rare earth elements. Properties: They are known for their exceptional magnetic strength, high energy density, and superior performance compared to other types of magnets. These magnets are widely used in various industries due to their ability to generate strong magnetic fields in compact sizes. Their global supply chain is currently dominated by China, which accounts for about 90% of processing capacity. Rare Earth Magnets Types Neodymium (Nd-Fe-B) and Samarium Cobalt (SmCo) are the two most common types of rare earth magnet materials. Both types are extremely strong. Neo magnets are composed primarily of neodymium, boron and iron, and samarium cobalt is composed of samarium and cobalt. Both materials come in different grades, or strengths, and have different magnetic and physical properties. These magnets tend to be brittle and are vulnerable to corrosion. Manufacturers typically nickel-plate the material to protect it from oxidation. Rare Earth Magnets Uses These are used in medical applications such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines, as well as X-Rays and positron emission tomography (PET) imaging. They are also utilized in aviation, national defense, electronic devices, smartphones, consumer goods, jewelry, hard drives, and electric vehicles (EVs), to name several applications. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/automakers-try-temporary-fixes-cut-equipment-from-vehicles-to-drive-around-rare-earth-magnets-shortage-10210977/

Question 241

Gorumara National Park is located in which state?

Answer 241

West Bengal Explanation : The population of one-horned rhinos has risen at the Gorumara National Park in Jalpaiguri with the birth of two rhinos recently. About Gorumara National Park: It is located in the Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal. It was declared a national park in 1992 and covers an area of approx 79.45 sq.km. It is situated on the bank of the Murti and Raidak rivers in the Terai region of Dooars on the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas. The park is known for its rich diversity of flora and fauna and is home to many endangered species, especially the one-horned rhinoceros. Flora: Typical flora include: Sal forests with Common Teak, Rain Tree (Shirish or Albizia lebbeck), and Silk Cotton (Shimul or Bombax malabaricum) trees, Bamboo groves, Terai grassland vegetation, and tropical riverine reeds It is also home to numerous tropical orchids. Fauna: It is home to many animals such as Indian rhinoceros, Asian elephant, Indian bison, leopard, sambar deer, barking deer, spotted deer, wild boar, and many species of birds, including peafowl, red jungle fowl, and the Indian hornbill. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/two-rhino-calves-boost-gorumaras-population-a-rare-win-for-conservation-prnt/cid/2120088#goog_rewarded

Question 242

Pong Dam, recently seen in the news, is constructed on which river?

Answer 242

Beas Explanation : The water level breached the danger mark at Pong Dam recently. About Pong Dam: The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is an earth-fill embankment dam constructed on the river Beas in the wetland of Shivalik hills in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. The purpose of the dam is water storage for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. The construction of the dam began in the year 1961 and was completed in 1974, and at that time it was known as the tallest of its type in the country. The raised water level thus invariably created an artificial lake called the Maharana Pratap Sagar, after the great ruler of Mewar. It was declared a bird sanctuary in 1983 due to its waterfowl diversity. Over time, the reservoir emerged as a sanctuary for migratory birds, leading to its designation as a Ramsar Wetland Site in 2002. It is home to several species of avifauna, some of which include Barheaded Geese, Red-neck Grebe, northern lapwing, common teal, spot-billed duck, Eurasian coot, black stork, egrests, etc. It is the most important fish reservoir in the foothills of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh. Features of Dam: The Pong Dam is a 133 m tall and 1,951 m long earth-fill embankment dam with a gravel shell. It is 13.72 m wide at its crest, which sits at an elevation of about 435.86 m above sea level. The base of the Pong Dam is about 610 m wide and has a total volume of 35,500,000 metre cube. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/jalandhar/water-level-crosses-danger-mark-at-pong-dam/

Question 243

Consider the following statements regarding Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project, recently seen in the news: 1. It is located in Nepal. 2. It is funded by the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 243

2 only Explanation : The 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project in Bhutan has been successfully completed with the synchronisation of its last and final unit, Unit 6 (170 MW), with the power grid, the Embassy of India in Thimphu said recently. About Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project: It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric power generating facility located in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan. It is located on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River. The project is being developed by the Punatsangchhu II Hydroelectric Project Authority, under an Inter-Government Agreement (IGA) between the Royal Government of Bhutan and the Government of India. It is funded by the Government of India (GoI): 30% grant and 70% loan at 10% annual interest, repayable in 30 equated semi-annual installments commencing one year after the mean date of operation. With the completion of the Punatsangchhu-II project, Bhutan's installed power generation capacity has increased by about 40 percent to over 3500 MW. Features: The project involves the construction of a 91 m-high and 223.8 m-long concrete gravity dam, along with an 877.46 m-long and 12 m-diameter diversion tunnel with a discharge capacity of 1118 cubic metres per second. The project also involves a 168.75 m-long and 22 m-high upper cofferdam and a 102.02 m-long and 13.5 m-tall downstream cofferdam. The main dam will have seven sluice gates measuring 8m-wide and 13.20 m- high each. It will comprise an underground powerhouse measuring 240.7 m-long, 23 m-wide and 51 m-high. The powerhouse will be equipped with six Francis turbines of 170MW capacity each. The turbines will operate at a water head of approximately 236m. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/world/bhutan-completes-punatsangchhu-ii-hydroelectric-project-power-capacity-rises-40-per-cent/

Question 244

Consider the following statements regarding Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), recently seen in the news: 1. It is a genetic disorder affecting red blood cell production. 2. There is no known cure for GBS. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 244

2 only Explanation : Gaza has recently seen a surge in Guillain-Barre syndrome, which can cause full-body paralysis in extreme cases. About Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): It is a rare autoimmune condition in which the body’s immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system. This is the part of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord. It controls muscle movement, pain signals, and temperature and touch sensations. GBS is also called acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP). It can occur at any age, but it most commonly affects people between 30 and 50. Causes: The exact cause of the disease remains unclear, but it is often observed following a viral or bacterial infection, vaccination, or major surgery. At such times, the immune system becomes hyperactive, leading to this rare condition. Symptoms: Patients often begin with an unknown fever, followed by weakness and other nervous system-related symptoms. It can increase in intensity over a period of hours, days, or weeks until certain muscles cannot be used at all. Some cases of GBS are very mild and only marked by brief weakness. Others cause nearly devastating paralysis, leaving the person unable to breathe on their own. Treatment: There's no known cure for GBS. Several treatment options can ease symptoms and help speed recovery. Most people recover completely from GBS, but some serious illnesses can be fatal. While recovery may take up to several years, most people are able to walk again six months after symptoms first began. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2025/8/25/what-is-gbs-the-rare-paralytic-disease-in-gaza-amid-israeli-blockade

Question 245

Which of the following are the two sub-schemes under the Export Promotion Mission, recently seen in the news?

Answer 245

Niryat Protsahan and Niryat Disha Explanation : The government is considering support measures worth about Rs 25,000 crore for exporters under the Export Promotion Mission, announced in the Budget, for six financial years (2025-2031) About Export Promotion Mission: It is a flagship initiative announced in the Union Budget 2025-26. It seeks to enable broad-based, inclusive, and sustainable export growth over six years (FY 2025-31) by exploring approaches beyond conventional mechanisms to address key bottlenecks faced by Indian exporters, especially MSMEs. It is driven jointly by the Ministries of Commerce and Industry, the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and the Ministry of Finance to enhance export competitiveness by facilitating improved access to export credit, enabling cross-border factoring, and assisting MSMEs in addressing non-tariff barriers in global markets. The Department of Commerce is the lead department for the Mission. The mission is proposed to be implemented through two sub-schemes - Niryat Protsahan (over Rs 10,000 crore) and Niryat Disha (over Rs 14,500 crore). The main elements under the Niryat Protsahan scheme being considered by the government, include interest equalisation support worth over Rs 5,000 crore for six financial years (2025-2031), support for alternative trade finance instruments, a credit card for e-commerce exporters, and other financing mechanisms to bridge liquidity gaps faced by exporters. Similarly, under Niryat Disha, the proposed components include support for export quality compliance (about Rs 4,000 crore), overseas market development (over Rs 4,000 crore), branding, export warehousing and logistics, and capacity building to integrate more Indian enterprises into global value chains. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/govt-considering-support-measures-worth-rs-25000-cr-for-exporters-for-6-years-under-export-promotion-mission/articleshow/123481284.cms?from=mdr

Question 246

Consider the following statements regarding Exercise BRIGHT STAR: 1. It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Egypt. 2. It is held biennially and the last edition took place in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 246

2 only Explanation : Personnel from the Armed Forces & Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff are set to participate in the Multilateral Exercise ‘BRIGHT STAR 2025’. It is a multilateral exercise hosted by Egypt in conjunction with the US since 1980. It is amongst the largest Tri-Service multilateral exercises in the region. The exercise is held biennially, with the last edition having taken place in 2023, which witnessed the participation of a host of nations including India along with troops. The upcoming edition will feature a comprehensive spectrum of military activities, including: Live Firing by the three Services showcasing the operational capabilities of the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force. Command Post Exercise to enhance joint planning, decision-making and operational coordination. Short Training Exercises by all three Services focusing on varied aspects of modern warfare. Subject Matter Expert Interactions on multiple domains of contemporary military operations. Significance: Participation of the Indian Armed Forces in this exercise underscores India’s commitment to regional peace, stability, and security while enhancing Jointness, interoperability and cooperation with friendly foreign countries. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161242

Question 247

Consider the following statements regarding Matsya Shakti Project: 1. It is designed to empower minority fishing communities. 2. It is conceived under the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 247

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The ‘Matsya Shakti’ project will be launched by the Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. It is designed to empower minority fishing communities. It aims to equip participants with comprehensive skills for improved livelihoods and community welfare. The initiative will be implemented by the Vizhinjam Regional Centre of the ICAR–Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. It is conceived under the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) scheme. Features of Matsya Shakti Project The project seeks to enhance the socio-economic well-being of minority fisherfolk families in the district. It promises a year-long, phased training programme for members of the community, focusing on sustainable livelihood practices and modern skill development. Through hands-on training in areas such as integrated aquaculture, seed production, and advanced fisheries technologies. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161221#:~:text

Question 248

With reference to Glanders, consider the following: 1. It is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei. 2. It primarily affects equines such as horses, mules, and donkeys. 3. It is only found in African and South American countries. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 248

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying has issued the Revised National Action Plan on Glanders. It is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei. It primarily affects equines such as horses, mules, and donkeys, and poses risks to other animals as well as humans. Signs: The disease causes nodules and ulcerations in the respiratory tract and lungs in animals. A skin form, known as ‘farcy’, also occurs. Glanders is commonly contracted via the following routes: Ingestion of food or water contaminated with nasal discharge from infected (carrier) animals Contact with contaminated harness components Ingestion of infected horse meat Glanders has traditionally been clinically categorized into nasal, pulmonary and cutaneous forms based on the most commonly affected organ systems in equines. Geographical Distribution: It remains sporadically reported in a number of Asian, African, Middle Eastern, and South American countries. Glanders is an WOAH-listed disease as described in the Terrestrial Animal Health Code of the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH). As indicated in the WOAH Terrestrial Animal Health Code any occurrence of glanders must be notified to the WOAH. The disease is notifiable under the Prevention and Control of Infectious and Contagious Diseases in Animals (PCICDA) Act, 2009. Revised National Action Plan Rolled Out to Eradicate Glanders; Govt Steps Up Equine Disease Control Measures Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161305

Question 249

Consider the following statements regarding Project Aarohan: 1. It has an objective of to support the educational aspirations of the children of toll plaza employees. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 249

1 only Explanation : Recently, the National Highway Authority of India launched the Project Aarohan. It has an objective of to support the educational aspirations of the children of toll plaza employees. It was launched by the National Highway Authority of India. The nationwide project will reach a community of toll-plaza personnel that are deployed at a vast network of toll plazas on National Highways. The initiative aims to address financial barriers, bridge socio-economic divides and provide equal access to quality education for students from economically weaker sections, including girls from low-income households, first-generation learners and those from Economically Weaker Sections/Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Other Backward Classes and minority communities. The program combines financial aid with structured mentorship, skill-building workshops, and career guidance to holistically prepare students for higher education, employment and entrepreneurship. It will be implemented by SMEC Trust’s Bharat Cares. Funding for Project Aarohan The first phase of ‘Project Aarohan’ will have a fund allocation of Rs. 1 Crore and will span from July 2025 to March 2026. The project aims to cover 500 students from Class 11 to the final year graduation, each receiving an annual scholarship of Rs.12,000 during FY 2025–26. Additionally, 50 bright students aspiring for postgraduate and higher studies will be supported with scholarships of Rs. 50,000 each. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=216093

Question 250

Consider the following statements regarding PM SVANidhi Scheme: 1. It was launched to support street vendors. 2. It is implemented jointly by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and Department of Financial Services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 250

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the “Restructuring and extension of the lending period beyond 31.12.2024 of Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme”. It was initially launched on 1st June 2020 to support street vendors who faced unprecedented hardships during the COVID-19 pandemic. It is implemented jointly by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and Department of Financial Services (DFS), with DFS being responsible for facilitating access to loan/ credit cards through banks/financial institution and their ground level functionaries. Key facts about the Restructured PM SVANidhi Scheme The scheme’s coverage is being expanded beyond statutory towns to census towns, peri-urban areas etc.. The enhanced loan structure includes first tranche loans increased up to ₹15,000 (from ₹10,000) and second tranche loans increased up to ₹25,000 (from ₹20,000), while the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000. The introduction of UPI-linked RUPAY Credit Card would provide immediate access of credit to the street vendors in order to meet any emergent business and personal requirements. In order to give boost to digital adoption, the street vendors can avail cashback incentives upto ₹1,600 on making retail & wholesale transactions. The scheme also focuses on building the capacity of the street vendors with a focus on entrepreneurship, financial literacy, digital skills, and marketing through convergence. Standard hygiene and food safety trainings would be conducted for street food vendors, in partnership with FSSAI. In order to ensure holistic welfare & development of the street vendors and their families, the ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ component will be further strengthened, through monthly Lok Kalyan Melas. Significance: It envisages the holistic development of street vendors by offering a reliable source of finance to support business expansion and opportunities for sustainable growth. This will not only empower street vendors but will also foster inclusive economic growth, socio-economic upliftment of street vendors and their families. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161157

Question 251

With reference to the National Annual Report and Index on Women’s Safety (NARI) 2025, consider the following: 1. Pune topped the NARI 2025 as the safest for women. 2. Patna is the lowest-ranked city in the NARI 2025 in terms of safety of women. 3. 60% of the surveyed women felt “safe” in their city. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 251

Only one Explanation : The National Annual Report & Index on Women’s Safety (NARI) 2025, released recently, has shed new light through its latest report on how safe Indian cities really are for women. About National Annual Report and Index on Women’s Safety (NARI) 2025: Released by the National Commission for Women, NARI 2025 offers the telling reality of the urban safety landscape. The report, a collaborative effort by the Group of Intellectuals and Academicians (GIA), Pvalue Analytics, The NorthCap University, and Jindal Global Law School, is based on a survey of 12,770 women across 31 cities in all states. Highlights of the Report: It placed the national safety score at 65%, categorising cities as “much above”, “above”, “below” or “much below” this benchmark. Kohima, Visakhapatnam, Bhubaneswar, Aizawl, Gangtok, Itanagar, and Mumbai have emerged as the safest cities in the country for women, while Patna, Jaipur, Faridabad, Delhi, Kolkata, Srinagar, and Ranchi were ranked the lowest. Kohima and other top-ranked cities were associated with stronger gender equity, civic participation, policing, and women-friendly infrastructure. At the other end of the spectrum, cities like Patna and Jaipur fared poorly due to weak institutional responsiveness, patriarchal norms, and gaps in urban infrastructure. Overall, six in ten women surveyed felt “safe” in their city, but 40% still considered themselves “not so safe” or “unsafe”. Prevalence of harassment remains high, with 7% women reporting at least one incident of harassment in public spaces in 2024. The highest risk group is women under 24 years of age (14% reported harassment). Verbal harassment was most common (58%), with physical, psychological, economic, and sexual harassment reported less frequently. Neighborhoods (38%) and transport (29%) were the main hotspots for harassment. In terms of response, 28% of women confronted harassers, 25% left the scene, 21% sought safety in crowds, and 20% reported to authorities. The study revealed sharp drops in perceptions of safety at night, particularly in public transport and recreational spaces. While 86% of women felt safe in educational institutions during daylight hours, safety perceptions fall sharply at night or off-campus. The report shows low levels of faith in the redressal mechanism. Only one in three victims of harassment filed a formal complaint. Only one in four women expressed confidence that authorities would take effective action on their safety complaints. A concerning 53% were unaware whether their workplaces had a Prevention of Sexual Harassment (POSH) policy in place. Even when incidents are reported, only 22% are formally registered, and action is taken in a mere 16% of those cases. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Aug/29/womens-safety-report-fear-runs-deeper-than-nos

Question 252

The Nimbrix Missile, recently seen in the news, is primarily designed for which purpose?

Answer 252

Counter-unmanned aircraft systems (C-UAS) Explanation : Swedish defense company Saab recently announced the development of a new missile named Nimbrix. About Nimbrix Missile: It is a counter-unmanned aircraft system (C-UAS) missile. The missile is being developed to counter the growing battlefield threat posed by small unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs). It was developed by the Swedish defense company Saab. It is its first dedicated C-UAS missile. Saab designed the missile to minimize costs, including through the use of additive manufacturing and low-cost commercial and military off-the-shelf parts. Features: It is a “fire-and-forget” guided missile. The missile will offer a range of up to 5 km and use an active seeker to track targets. It uses an air-burst warhead designed to detonate in the vicinity of small drones or other UAS, bringing down multiple at a time. Nimbrix is intended for ground-based use, operating either independently or as part of wider air defence systems. With adaptable mounting options, it can be fitted to vehicles or fixed positions to meet different customer requirements. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.investing.com/news/company-news/saab-unveils-nimbrix-missile-to-counter-drone-threats-93CH-4214223

Question 253

Consider the following statements regarding Gangotri Glacier: 1. It is one of the largest glaciers in the Himalayas, located in Uttarakhand. 2. It has a length of more than 100 km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 253

1 only Explanation : A study by IIT Indore and international collaborators reveals that the Gangotri Glacier has lost 10% of its snowmelt flow over four decades due to climate change. About Gangotri Glacier: It is one of the largest glaciers in the Himalayas and is the primary source of the Ganges, the largest river in India. It is situated in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand in the Garhwal Himalayas. It originates at the northern slope of the Chaukhamba range of peaks. It is fed by snow and ice from several peaks, including Shivling, Thalay Sagar, Meru, and Bhagirathi III. It lies at an altitude of around 4,000 meters bordering Tibet. The glacier is around 30 km in length and 4 km in width. Popularly known as Gaumukh, the terminus of the glacier resembles a cow’s mouth. From its snout at Gaumukh, the Bhagirathi River emerges, which later joins the Alaknanda River to form the Ganges at Devprayag. The Gangotri Glacier holds immense religious significance in Hinduism and is visited by thousands of pilgrims every year, who trek up to Gaumukh, the source of the Ganges. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/gangotri-glacier-has-lost-10-per-cent-snow-melt-flow-in-four-decades

Question 254

Consider the following statements regarding Mount Fuji: 1. It is an active stratovolcano. 2. It is located in Indonesia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 254

1 only Explanation : The Japanese government recently released a video created by artificial intelligence (AI) to illustrate what would happen if Mount Fuji were to erupt. About Mount Fuji: Mount Fuji, also called Fuji-san, is Japan’s tallest mountain, with a height of 3,776 meters. It is situated close to the Pacific coast in the Yamanashi and Shizuoka prefectures in the heart of the large island of Honshu. Tokyo, Japan’s capital, lies 60 miles (100 kilometers) to the east. It is an active stratovolcano, which last erupted from 1707 to 1708. It is part of the Fuji Volcanic Zone. The mountain is considered the world’s 7th highest mountain peak of an island and Asia’s 2nd highest volcano that is situated on an island. Mount Fuji is one of Japan’s “Three Holy Mountains” along with Mount Tate and Mount Haku. The mountain is the major feature of Fuji-Hakone-Izu National Park (1936), and it is at the centre of a UNESCO World Heritage site designated in 2013. The age of Fuji is disputed, but it seems to have formed during the past 2.6 million years on a base dating from up to 65 million years ago; the first eruptions and the first peaks probably occurred sometime after 700,000 years ago. The earliest precursors to Mount Fuji were Komitake (which forms the mountain’s north slope) and Ashitaka-yama (which sits southeast of the mountain). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/japanese-government-shares-ai-video-to-show-what-would-happen-if-mount-fuji-erupts-9171819

Question 255

Prairies are mainly found in which region?

Answer 255

North America Explanation : Recent efforts—including a newly launched database—aim to ensure that the prairies are restored much more comprehensively. About Prairies: Prairies are flat, temperate grasslands found in North America. Most North American prairies are in locations with a low amount of annual rainfall. Prairie vegetation is maintained by grazing, fire, drought, and low temperatures. Although grasses dominate, lichens, mosses, forbs, and low- to mid-size shrubs also comprise prairie vegetation. Taller shrubs and trees, mostly willows and poplars, including aspen and cottonwoods, are found in depressions and valleys where there is sufficient moisture and nutrients. Prairie, like other temperate grasslands, is among the most productive and diverse of earth’s terrestrial ecosystems. Grasses, the predominant cover in prairie vegetation, have the following adaptations: Deep or extensive roots. Growing points at or near the soil surface that are tucked in the crown of the plant. Narrow leaves. Small flowers in dense heads that are pollinated by wind. Tough stems and leaves hardened with silica phytoliths (plant stones). Strategies to optimize photosynthesis without losing moisture. Wildlife species living in prairies have adapted to a semi-arid, windy, open environment. Species found here include elk, deer, coyote, bobcat, Badgers, jackrabbits, ground squirrels, pocket gophers, etc Similar temperate grasslands in South America are called Pampas, while in Africa they are described as velds and in Asia are known as steppes. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-08-database-species-latest-effort-prairies.html

Question 256

Consider the following statements regarding Burmese Python: 1. It is a non-venomous, solitary and mainly nocturnal snake. 2. It is only found in the northeastern India and Myanmar region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 256

1 only Explanation : Authorities in Florida have turned to robot rabbits for help to control the population of Burmese pythons. It is one of the largest snake species in the world. It can grow up to 20 feet and weigh more than 250 pounds, with females being larger than males. It is a non-venomous, solitary and mainly nocturnal forest dweller snake. It is also an excellent swimmer and is able to stay submerged for up to half an hour. Burmese pythons spend the majority of their time hidden in the underbrush and will usually move only when hunting or when threatened. Until 2009, it was considered a subspecies of Python molurus, but is now recognized as a distinct species. Habitat of Burmese Pythons: They live in grasslands, marshes, swamps, wet rocky areas, caves, woodlands, rainforests, mangrove forests, river valleys, and jungles with open clearings. Distribution of Burmese Pythons It is native to the tropical rainforests and subtropical jungles of eastern and northeastern India, Myanmar, southern China, Southeast Asia, and some extent of the Indonesian archipelago. Its distribution also encompasses eastern Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh. It is an invasive species in Florida as a result of the pet trade. Conservation Status of Burmese Pythons: IUCN: Vulnerable Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/why-florida-is-using-robot-rabbits-to-capture-pythons-10216513/

Question 257

Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency: 1. It is an intergovernmental organisation for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field. 2. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and the UN Security Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 257

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The head of the UN's nuclear watchdog International Atomic Energy Agency has said a team of its inspectors are "back in Iran," It is the world’s leading intergovernmental organisation for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field. The IAEA Statute was approved on 23 October 1956 and came into force on 29 July 1957. It is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and the UN Security Council. Its primary goal is to ensure that nuclear energy is not diverted for weapons purposes. Member Countries: The agency currently has 180 member states, reflecting its wide international mandate and credibility. Institutional Structure of the IAEA General Conference: The General Conference, composed of all member states, meets annually to approve budgets and set general policy directions. Board of Governors: The Board of Governors, comprising 35 members, meets about five times a year to: Approve safeguards agreements, Carry out statutory functions, and Appoint the Director General. Secretariat: The Secretariat, led by the Director General, handles the IAEA’s daily operations. Functions of the IAEA The IAEA works to ensure that nuclear technology is used solely for peaceful purposes. It applies comprehensive nuclear safeguards, including: Monitoring, On-site inspections, Information analysis, and other techniques to verify peaceful use. Headquarters: Vienna, Austria. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/amp/story/world/2025/Aug/27/un-nuclear-watchdog-chief-says-inspectors-back-in-iran

Question 258

With reference to the Unified District Information System for Education Plus, consider the following: 1. It is an educational management information system under the Ministry of Education. 2. It provides only information about students and not teachers. 3. Under this each onboarded school is provided a unique 11-digit UDISE code. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 258

Only two Explanation : The Ministry of Education released a report on Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) 2024-25 on school education of India which says that, since the beginning of UDISE +, total number of teachers has crossed the 1 crore mark in 2024–25. It is an educational management information system under the Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education under the Government of India. UDISE+ functions as a central platform that enables respective schools to efficiently record and submit data related to its profile (infrastructure & facilities), individual students and teachers’ details. This is done in real-time mode by all recognised schools that provide formal, and special education in any of the school categories (that is, from pre-primary to higher secondary levels) throughout the country each academic year. The recorded data is validated by the MIS and other designated officials at the block, district and state levels; and monitored at four levels, including the national. Features of the UDISE+ Each onboarded school is provided a unique 11-digit UDISE code & login credentials to complete data entry and its modification in real-time. School User Directory module enables onboarding of schools, and management of designated users who can submit data on the UDISE+. This module enables block, district, state and national level user overall management of the UDISE+. The data on school profile, students and teachers is reported in three distinct but integrated modules: School profile & facilities: Infrastructure details and, services and facilities available in schools are recorded in this module. Student module: General and academic profile of each student, including extracurricular activities, are recorded and maintained in this module using the Permanent Education Number Teacher Profile: General, academic and appointment details of all teaching and non-teaching staffs are recorded and maintained individually in this module. Hence only statement 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2161543#:~:text=

Question 259

Consider the following statements regarding UMEED Portal: 1. It is a centralised digital platform to register Waqf properties across the country. 2. Under this portal each registered properties must include full details such as measurements and geotagged locations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 259

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Minority Affairs launched an additional module on the UMEED Portal which enables widows, divorced women, and orphans to apply for maintenance support from Waqf-alal-aulad properties. The ‘Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development (UMEED) Portal is a centralised digital platform to register Waqf properties across the country. It aims to promote better management and enhance transparency. The portal is being launched against the backdrop of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Registrations will be facilitated by respective State Waqf Boards. Legal Support: Rule 8(2) of the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Rules, 2025, framed under Section 3(r)(iv) of the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Minority Affairs Key Features of UMEED Portal Under the new plan, all Waqf properties must be registered on the portal within six months of its launch. Each registration must include full details such as measurements (length and width) and geotagged locations. Properties that are registered under women’s names will not be eligible to be classified as Waqf properties. However, women, children, and people from economically weaker sections will continue to be key beneficiaries of Waqf assets. Properties not registered within the stipulated timeframe due to technical or other significant reasons may be granted an extension of one to two months. However, properties that remain unregistered beyond the permitted period will be considered disputed and referred to the Waqf Tribunal for resolution. Key features of the module include Aadhaar-based authentication of beneficiary details, online application and approval process managed by respective State/UT Waqf Boards and Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of maintenance support to beneficiaries’ bank accounts. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2161348

Question 260

Salina aurantiamaculata and Salina pseudomontana, recently in news, are:

Answer 260

Springtails species Explanation : Recently, scientists at the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) announced the discovery of two new Collembola, or springtails species -- Salina aurantiamaculata and Salina pseudomontana. Salina aurantiamaculata is named for its striking bright orange markings – an unusual pigment pattern among its peers. Its counterpart, Salina pseudomontana, looks very similar to the already known Salina montana. Both species belong to the cosmopolitan “celebensis” group of Collembola. The last time a Salina species was recorded in India was in 1979. After more than four decades, these two new additions bring the country’s tally to 17 species. What are Collembola Springtails? These are among the oldest land-dwelling hexapods on Earth, dating back hundreds of millions of years. They improve soil structure, aid nutrient cycling, and serve as indicators of ecosystem health. Their role, though often overlooked, is fundamental for the ecosystem. Habitat: They are found in leaf litter, decaying wood, and soil, they thrive quietly in habitats most of us overlook. Significance: Their abundance and sensitivity make them invaluable in monitoring pollution, climate change, and agricultural sustainability. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/kolkata/after-4-decades-zoological-survey-of-india-records-discovery-of-2-new-springtail-species-in-west-bengal-10212642/

Question 261

Consider the following statements with reference to India's first EMI-driven credit card: 1. It has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). 2. It does not require a joining fee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 261

2 only Explanation : BharatPe and Unity Small Finance Bank (Unity Bank) recently launched the Unity Bank BharatPe Credit Card—India's first EMI-driven credit card on the RuPay network. About India's First EMI-Based Credit Card Launch: Unity Small Finance Bank (Unity Bank) and BharatPe have jointly launched a credit card that allows customers to either pay in full or convert their spends into equated monthly instalments (EMIs). This is being introduced as India’s first EMI-driven credit card on the RuPay network. Partnership: The Unity Bank BharatPe Credit Card has been developed in association with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). UPI Linkages: The card can be linked to Unified Payments Interface (UPI), enabling payments at a wide range of merchants nationwide. Eligibility: The card will be available to both salaried and self-employed individuals. Applications can be made through the BharatPe app, where users can complete onboarding, KYC, and credit eligibility checks digitally before card activation. Key features of First EMI-Based Credit Card Auto-EMI Conversion: Purchases can be instantly split into EMIs up to 12 months, with flexible repayment options. Zero Fees: No joining, annual, or foreclosure charges—lifetime free card. UPI Integration: Linked to UPI for widespread merchant acceptance and instant payments. Reward Program: Earn flat 2% rewards on EMI transactions, redeemable through the BharatPe app. Premium Benefits: Complimentary domestic and international lounge access, and preventive health checkups. Digital Onboarding: Seamless application, KYC, and activation via the BharatPe app. News: Unity Bank joins hands with BharatPe to roll out first EMI credit card: Check details | Mint Hence option b is the correct answer.

Question 262

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): 1. It has been established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. 2. It is chaired ex officio by the Prime Minister of India. 3. It is mandated to lay down the plans and guidelines for Disaster Management in the country. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 262

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The Prime Minister of India has nominated two people as new members of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and re-nominated three existing members for three years. About National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Establishment: The NDMA, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, is the country's apex body for disaster management and is chaired ex officio by the Prime Minister of India. Objectives: NDMA is responsible for laying down the national policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management, coordinating and enforcing implementation of these policies, and approving plans developed by ministries, states, and other agencies to ensure integrated responses to disasters. Vision: NDMA's vision is to build a safer and disaster-resilient India through proactive, technology-driven, and sustainable strategies involving all stakeholders. NDMA Organisation Structure Composition: The NDMA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, assisted by a Vice-Chairperson (Cabinet Minister rank) and up to eight Members (Minister of State rank). Divisions: It operates through specialized divisions, including Policy & Plans, Mitigation, Operations, Communications & IT, Administration, and Finance. Institutional Mechanism: At the state and district levels, State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) and District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs) function under NDMA’s overall framework and guidelines. NDMA Functions and Responsibilities NDMA, as the apex body, is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management to ensure timely and effective response to disasters. Towards this, it has the following responsibilities:- Laying down policies, approving the National Disaster Management Plan. Framing guidelines for central and state authorities, integrating mitigation measures into development plans. Coordinating the enforcement and implementation of disaster management policies and plans. Recommending provision of funds for mitigation efforts and capacity building. Supporting international disaster relief as directed by the central government. Overseeing the functioning of the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM). Training officials, conducting preparedness drills, and developing community resilience strategies. News: PM Modi nominates 2 people as new members of NDMA, 3 existing members renominated - The Hindu Hence option d is the correct answer.

Question 263

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Monetary Fund (IMF): 1. It was created in the Bretton Woods Conference, 1944. 2. It acts as a lender of last resort and often requires policy reforms from borrowing countries, called “structural adjustment” programs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 263

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Urjit Patel has been appointed as Executive Director at the International Monetary Fund (IMF) for a three-year tenure, representing India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and Bhutan at IMF headquarters in Washington, D.C. About International Monetary Fund (IMF) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a global financial body aimed at strengthening international monetary cooperation and maintaining financial stability. Members: It currently has 191 member nations, with Liechtenstein joining as the newest member on October 21, 2024. Creation: Created in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it works through a quota system, with countries contributing funds and receiving voting power proportional to their quotas. Mission: The core mission of the IMF is to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty worldwide. Role: The IMF acts as a lender of last resort and often requires policy reforms from borrowing countries, called “structural adjustment” programs. International Monetary Fund Governance Structure Board of Governors: It is the IMF’s highest decision-making authority, comprising one governor and one alternate governor from each member country. It meets annually to decide on quota revisions, Special Drawing Rights (SDR) allocations, new memberships, or expulsion of members. International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC): IMFC advises the Board of Governors on matters related to the management of the international monetary and financial system. It has 24 members drawn from the governors. Executive Board: They are responsible for conducting the day-to-day business and work closely with the Managing Director. News: Former RBI Governor Urjit Patel appointed IMF executive director Hence option c is the correct answer.

Question 264

Cordualadensa acorni, recently seen in the news is a/an:

Answer 264

new dragonfly species Explanation : Recently, researchers from McGill University identified a new dinosaur-era dragonfly fossil named Cordualadensa acorni from Alberta’s Dinosaur Provincial Park. About Cordualadensa acorni It represents the first Mesozoic dragonfly fossil in Canada and fills a 30-million-year evolutionary gap in dragonfly history. The fossil is a partial wing impression fossil preserved in the 75-million-year-old Dinosaur Park Formation (UNESCO World Heritage Site, Alberta, Canada). The fossil led to the creation of a new family, Cordualadensidae, highlighting its unique anatomical features. Features of Cordualadensa acorni Wingspan: Roughly the width of a human hand. Anatomy: The wing structure indicates adaptation for gliding flight, a feature common in migratory dragonflies today. Ecological Role: Though small, it would have been an important part of the Cretaceous ecosystem, possibly serving as prey for raptors. Distribution & Significance First dinosaur-aged dragonfly fossil discovered in Canada. It is the first North American member of the dragonfly group Cavilabiata. Before this, only one insect fossil (a microscopic aphid in amber) had been reported from the region. News: Canada's first dinosaur-era dragonfly fossil fills an evolutionary gap Hence option c is the correct answer.

Question 265

Consider the following statements with reference to the Mitochondria: 1. It generates ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the universal cellular energy currency. 2. It originated through endosymbiosis between a primitive archaeal cell and a bacterium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 265

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, researchers at Caltech University have uncovered new rules governing mitochondrial protein import, revising the long-standing understanding of how proteins are transported into mitochondria. About Mitochondria Mitochondria are double-membraned organelles that generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the universal cellular energy currency. They originated over a billion years ago through endosymbiosis between a primitive archaeal cell and a bacterium. Over time, mitochondria transferred most of their genes to the host nucleus, making them dependent on the host cell for protein supply. Traditional Model of Protein Import Earlier, it was believed that mitochondrial proteins are imported only after translation is completed in the cytosol. Proteins were thought to fully synthesize on ribosomes before passing through mitochondrial membrane channels. New Findings by Caltech Scientists Around 20% of mitochondrial proteins are cotranslationally imported, i.e., they are imported while still being synthesized by ribosomes. This mechanism mainly applies to large and structurally complex proteins that require assistance during folding. If these proteins fully fold in the cytosol, they risk forming irreversible structures that block import channels. Mechanism of Cotranslational Import Such proteins contain a mitochondrial targeting sequence, but this alone is insufficient for cotranslational delivery. A second signal is required – the first large protein domain that emerges during translation. This domain acts like a “code to unlock the boarding pass”, ensuring the protein is guided into mitochondria early. Experiments confirmed that transplanting these domains onto other proteins rerouted them for cotranslational import. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:​ https://phys.org/news/2025-08-biochemists-uncover-mitochondrial-protein-import.html

Question 266

Consider the following statements regarding LUPEX Mission: 1. It is jointly developed by ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). 2. It has an objective of exploring the planet Mar’s southern region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 266

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister of India welcomed the agreement between the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency for the Chandrayaan-5 mission under the Lunar Polar Exploration (LUPEX) programme. It is jointly developed by ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Objective: To explore the moon’s southern polar region, investigating the presence of water and other elements, potentially in the form of surface ice. It aims to showcase innovative surface exploration technologies. The special focus is on vehicular transport and lunar night survival. It features both a lander and a rover. JAXA is responsible for developing and operating the rover, and ISRO for developing and operating the lander that will carry the rover. The rover will drive on its own to search for areas where water is likely to be present and sample the soil by digging into the ground with a drill. The plan is to acquire data by analyzing the collected samples in detail with observation equipment mounted on the rover. The rover will be equipped with instruments for measuring the water content of regolith (lunar sand), drilling, and sampling, as well as with other world-first and world-leading technologies for the driving system and batteries. The rover will carry not only the instruments of ISRO and JAXA but also those of the US space agency NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/pm-modi-welcomes-isro-jaxa-collaboration-for-chandrayaan-5-lupex-mission/

Question 267

Consider the following statements regarding State Energy Efficiency Index: 1. It is developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with the Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE). 2. It serves as a key policy tool for guiding state-level actions and accelerating India’s energy efficiency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 267

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), released the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2024. It is developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with the Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE). The index assesses the energy efficiency performance of 36 States and Union Territories (UTs) for FY 2023-24, supporting data-driven monitoring, best practice sharing, and healthy competition among states. This year it is the sixth edition features a new implementation-focused framework with 66 indicators covering Buildings, Industry, Municipal Services, Transport, Agriculture, DISCOMs, and Cross-Sector initiatives, reflecting evolving priorities like EV policies, star-rated buildings, and DSM strategies. SEEI 2024 serves as a key policy tool for guiding state-level actions and accelerating India’s energy efficiency and climate goals. States are classified into four performance categories: Front Runners (>60%), Achievers (50-60%), Contenders (30-50%), and Aspirants (<30%). News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161803 Hence both statements are correct.

Question 268

With reference to Extended Range Attack Munitions (ERAM) Missile, consider the following statements: 1. It is an air-launched, precision-guided missile. 2. It has a range between 240 and 450 kilometers. 3. It can carry a 5000-pound high-explosive warhead. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 268

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Trump administration has approved the sale of 3,350 Extended Range Attack Munitions (ERAM) missiles to Ukraine. It is a next-generation, air-launched, precision-guided missile. It blends the destructive power of a heavy bomb with the standoff range of a cruise missile. Features of Extended Range Attack Munitions (ERAM) Missile Range: Depending on flight profile, ERAM can reach between 240 and 450 kilometers. Warhead: Each carries a 500-pound high-explosive warhead, able to destroy hardened bunkers, fuel depots, or ammunition storage. Guidance: A combination of GPS, inertial navigation, and a terminal seeker provides accuracy within about ten meters, Launch platforms: Compact and modular, ERAMs can be mounted on Western fighter jets such as the F-16s Ukraine is now receiving, or potentially retrofitted on existing Soviet-era aircraft. ERAM is designed for volume, cheaper to produce, and compatible with multiple aircraft types. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/trump-administration-approves-sale-of-3350-eram-missiles-to-ukraine/

Question 269

Consider the following statements regarding Nanjangud Rasabale Banana: 1. It is mainly grown in Karnataka. 2. It was awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 269

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has announced that the Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR) will soon take up a study on protecting the Nanjangud Rasabale variety of banana from diseases. It is a variety of banana grown in and around the Mysore district and Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. It was awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2006 for its thick pulp and distinct taste and aroma. The taste and pulp of this banana cannot be found in any other variety and anywhere else. Soil required: Black clay alluvial saline soil has given a unique aroma to this banana. These bananas possess medicinal properties and are believed to cure neurological ailments. Threats: The Panama Wilt disease, a fungal infection caused by the Fuserium Wilt pathogen has been the bane of rasabale farmers. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/icar-scientists-to-make-efforts-to-protect-disease-prone-nanjangud-rasabale-union-minister-chouhan/article69989545.ece#:~:text

Question 270

Crocothemis erythraea, recently in news, is a:

Answer 270

Dragonfly Explanation : Recently, odonatologists have reconfirmed the presence of the elusive dragonfly species, Crocothemis erythraea, in the high-elevation regions of the southern Western Ghats. It is a species of dragonfly in the family Libellulidae. Its common names include broad scarlet, common scarlet-darter, and scarlet darter. The genus Crocothemis in India includes two known species—C. servilia and C. erythraea. While C. servilia is common across lowland areas, C. erythraea is known from high-elevation habitats in parts of Europe and Asia, including the Himalayas. The molecular analysis showed that the high-elevation specimens from the Western Ghats match C. erythraea found in the Himalayas. Habitat: The study confirmed that the Western Ghats hosts both the species, C. erythraea, which is restricted to cool, high-elevation habitats (>550 m), while C. servilia is common in lowland habitats (<600 m). The researchers explain that C. erythraea colonised southern India during the Pleistocene Ice Age, when cooler climatic conditions allowed temperate fauna to extend their range southward. As the climate warmed, these populations became stranded in montane locations like the Sholas and grasslands of Munnar and Parambikulam, where they survived in isolation. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/ice-ages-winged-relic-rediscovered-in-western-ghats/article69989752.ece

Question 271

Consider the following statements regarding Vrindavani Vastra, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a silk textile woven in Rajasthan. 2. It depicts the childhood stories of Lord Krishna in Vrindavan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 271

2 only Explanation : Assam is likely to get the revered 16th-century “Vrindavani Vastra” from the British Museum in London for exhibition in 2027. About Vrindavani Vastra: The Vrindavani Vastra is a silk textile woven in Assam. The childhood stories of Lord Krishna in Vrindavan, his divine pastimes, and various events are woven with thread on this cloth. It was created under the guidance of Srimanta Sankardeva, at the request of Koch king Nara Narayan, who ruled over parts of modern-day Assam and West Bengal. Notably, Nara Nararan had sheltered Sankardeva after the Vaishnav saint was targeted by the Ahom kingdom on the instigation of Brahmin priests in the state. The textile serves as a testament to Assamese weaving, incorporating elements from various artistic traditions, and travelled from Assam to Tibet before being acquired by the British Museum in 1904. The exhibit, acquired by the British Museum, is nine and a half metres long and is made up of several pieces of silk drapes and originally featured 15 separate pieces that were later assembled. A masterpiece of sacred art, the Vrindavani Vastra is a central part of Assamese Vaishnavism. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Aug/30/assam-to-bring-home-revered-textile-vrindavani-vastra-from-british-museum-for-exhibition

Question 272

Consider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme in India: 1. Automotive fuel blends comprising 20% ethanol and 80% gasoline are referred to as E20 fuel. 2. India achieved its ethanol blending target of 20% in 2022, which was initially set to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 272

1 only Explanation : India’s auto industry lobby has said that carmakers will continue to honour warranties even if older vehicles, not originally designed for higher ethanol fuels, use E20 fuel, Reuters reported recently. About E-20 Fuel: Automotive fuel blends comprising 20% ethanol and 80% gasoline are referred to as E20 fuel. What is Ethanol Blending? Ethanol blending is a process of mixing or blending ethanol, a renewable biofuel, with petrol to create a cleaner and more sustainable fuel. Since ethanol is a viable biofuel that can be derived by processing biomass sources such as sugarcane, the practice of ethanol blending has largely reduced India’s dependence on fossil fuels and the high-value import of crude oil. Moreover, by adding ethanol to petrol, the oxygen content of fuel is increased, leading to lower emissions and cleaner burning. Additionally, since ethanol in India is largely derived from sugarcane molasses, rice, maize, and other agricultural sources, ethanol blending has also elevated the agricultural sector in India. With ethanol-blended petrol, India aims to tackle its ever-increasing fossil fuel dependence in a greener and more sustainable way. India’s Journey of Ethanol Blending: With several countries widely adopting ethanol blending, India’s journey towards achieving ethanol-blended petrol began in 2003, when the Government of India officially launched its Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme. Since then, the ethanol blending in India has come a long way, achieving a 10% ethanol blend target in 2021-22, which was further increased to 12.06% in 2022-23, 14.06% in 2023-24, and 20% in July 2025, which was initially set to be achieved by 2030. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/auto/carmakers-assure-warranty-cover-for-older-vehicles-using-e20-fuel-125083000861_1.html

Question 273

Mashco Piro Tribe, recently seen in the news, resides in which continent?

Answer 273

South America Explanation : The Mashco Piro tribe, an uncontacted group in the Peruvian Amazon, has been sighted near a village, raising concerns about logging activities encroaching on their territory. About Mashco Piro Tribe: The Mashco-Piro, or Mascho Piro, also known as the Cujareño people and Nomole, are an indigenous tribe of nomadic hunter-gatherers who inhabit the remote regions of the Amazon rainforest. They live deep in the rainforests of southeast Peru close to the border with Brazil and Bolivia. They are believed to have fled into the recesses of the jungle during the Amazon Rubber Boom in the late 1800s, a time of enslavement and death for many tribes. They live on the banks of the Las Piedras River in the Alto Purús National Park in huts constructed of palm leaf. In the rainy season, they retreat to huts in the rain forest. Their movements across their territory are highly dynamic, dictated by dry and rainy seasons. They speak a dialect of the Piro language. Way of Life: Members of the tribe wear very little clothing. Men, women, and children alike wear only a yellowish-brown cloth above the waist and perhaps arm and leg bands of the same color. They have medium stature and an athletic build. All have straight black hair worn shoulder length or longer. Men probably hunt with the weapons they have been seen carrying, such as bows and arrows, as well as spears. Peru’s government has forbidden all contact with the Mashco Piro, fearing the spread of a disease among the population to which it has no immunity. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/amazon-tribe-uncontacted-mashco-piro-tribe-seen-close-to-peru-village-logging-project-sparks-alarm/articleshow/123583715.cms

Question 274

Consider the following statements: 1. It is located in Chhattisgarh. 2. In general, the landscape is conflict-ridden owing to the left-wing extremism. 3. It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo. The above statements correctly describe which protected area?

Answer 274

Indravati Tiger Reserve Explanation : A leopard was recently found dead inside the Bhairamgarh Sanctuary of the Indravati Tiger Reserve in Bastar. About Indravati Tiger Reserve: It is located in the Bijapur District of Chhattisgarh. The perennial river ‘Indravati’ forms the boundary of the reserve on the northern and western sides, which also happens to be the interstate boundary between Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra. The total area of the reserve is 2799.07 sq.km. The tiger reserve and the Bhairamgarh and Pamed Wildlife Sanctuaries constitute the Indravati landscape. It has connectivity with several tiger reserves, viz. Kawal (Telangana), Tadoba (Maharashtra), and Kanha (Madhya Pradesh). In general, the landscape is conflict-ridden owing to the left-wing extremism. The landscape is undulating, with most of the area covered with small hills – Kutroo, Kandlapatru, and Matti Murka being noteworthy. Vegetation: Southern Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest with Teak, Southern Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest without Teak, and Southern Dry Mixed Deciduous Forest are the major forest types found in the Reserve. Flora: Some common species include teak, achar, karra, kullu, shisham, semal, haldu, arjun, bel, and Jamun. Fauna: It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo, the state animal of Chhattisgarh. Other animals include Nilgai, Black Buck, Sambar, Gaur, Tiger, Leopard, Chital, Sloth bears, etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/leopard-found-dead-in-indravati-reserve-cause-under-probe/articleshow/123607258.cms

Question 275

With reference to Diatoms, consider the following: 1. These are microscopic algae. 2. They can photosynthesize. 3. They are found in almost all aquatic habitats. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 275

All the three Explanation : A team of Indian and international researchers discovered a new species of diatom, named Climaconeis heteropolaris. About Diatoms: These are photosynthetic, single-celled organisms. These are microscopic algae and serve as the base of the aquatic food chain. They are a major group of algae and form one of the most common forms of phytoplankton. Habitat: They are found in almost all aquatic habitats, including lakes, ponds, streams, rivers, and the ocean. Most diatoms live as free-floating cells in the open water, but some live on the bottom (benthos), attached to surfaces such as plants or rocks, or in the bottom sediment. These surface-attached diatoms represent a significant part of the periphyton, which is a mixture of algae, cyanobacteria, microbes, and detritus that is attached to submerged surfaces. Due to their sensitivity towards any water chemistry changes, they are excellent indicators of aquatic health. Like other algae, diatoms have no leaves, stems, roots, or flowers, but the cell of every diatom contains chlorophyll, the substance that is responsible for the green color of leafy plants. They are the only organism on the planet with cell walls composed of transparent, opaline silica. Diatom cell walls are ornamented by intricate and striking patterns of silica. Each species has a distinct pattern of tiny holes in the cell wall (frustule) through which they absorb nutrients and get rid of waste. Diatoms can photosynthesize which means they can convert dissolved carbon dioxide in the water into oxygen that is essential for the survival of fish and other aquatic organisms. They also serve as a major source of atmospheric oxygen for the planet, and a key food source for higher organisms in the food chain, such as zooplankton, molluscs, and fish. Collectively, they are responsible for generating up to 50% of the oxygen produced globally each year. Diatoms also play a crucial role in the nutrient cycling of marine and lake waters. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mangaluru/new-diatom-species-discovered-in-udupis-estuarine-waters/articleshow/123605421.cms

Question 276

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Naval Symposium: 1. It aims to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the Indian Ocean Region countries. 2. It is an initiative of the United Nation’s Security Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 276

1 only Explanation : Recently, the 'Emerging Leaders Panel Discussion' under the aegis of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) was held at Southern Naval Command, Kochi. It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. It was conceived by the Indian Navy in 2008 as a forum which seeks to enhance maritime co-operation among Navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. The inaugural edition of IONS was held in Feb 2008 at New Delhi, with Indian Navy as the Chair for two years (2008 – 2010). There are 36 littoral in the Indian Ocean which have been geographically grouped into the following four sub-regions South Asian Littorals: Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and United Kingdom (British Indian Ocean Territory) West Asian Littorals: Iran, Oman, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates East African Littorals: France (Reunion), Kenya, Mauritius, Mozambique, South Africa and Tanzania. South East Asian and Australian Littorals: Australia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand and Timor-Leste. Observers: China, Germany, Italy, Japan, Madagascar, the Netherlands, Russia and Spain. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2161893

Question 277

Consider the following statements regarding Purple Notice: 1. It is one of eight coloured notices published by Interpol organization. 2. It provides member countries with information on modus operandi and concealment methods used by criminals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 277

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : In a first, the Enforcement Directorate has secured an Interpol Purple Notice on trade-based money laundering modus operandi. It is one of eight types published by Interpol organization. Purpose: It provides member countries with information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used by criminals. Unlike notices that target specific individuals (such as Red Notices), Purple Notices focus on practices and tools that pose a threat to public safety. Other notices of Interpol: Red, yellow, blue, Black, green, Orange, Silver Notice (pilot phase) Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/ed-secures-first-interpol-purple-notice/articleshow/123592590.cms

Question 278

With reference to Conocarpus Tree, consider the following: 1. It is an invasive mangrove species. 2. It can withstand harsh environmental conditions such as high and low temperatures. 3. It is found only in Western Ghats region of India. How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer 278

Only two Explanation : Recently, the government-appointed expert panel on environment has recommended the Supreme Court to ban a fast-growing exotic tree species called Conocarpus tree. It is a flowering plant belonging to the family of Combretaceae. It is an invasive mangrove species. Geographical Distribution of Conocarpus Tree The plant species has two types, one which is native to the coastal areas of tropical America, ranging from Bermuda and the Bahamas to Brazil, and extending along the Pacific coasts and parts of West Africa; Other found in arid coastal zones of Somalia and Yemen and across eastern and northern Africa and the Arabian Peninsula. In India, the growth of the tree was found prevalent in Gujarat’s coastal and arid districts such as Kachchh. This tree is famous for its dark green leaves color throughout the year and withstands harsh environmental conditions such as high and low temperatures. It is very adaptive and could grow even in areas with extreme salinity. It absorbs more water from soil than other species and is a threat to groundwater. This species goes deep into the ground and grows too much to damage the communication cables, drainage lines and drinking water pipelines. During flowering seasons, the tree releases pollen, which may aggravate respiratory conditions such as asthma, rhinitis, and other allergic reactions, particularly in children and the elderly. It also poses safety risk as its dry, brittle wood is highly flammable during the summer months. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/scmandated-panel-seeks-ban-on-conocarpus-trees-101756491232696.html

Question 279

Consider the following statements regarding Mela Patt festival: 1. It was first celebrated by King Nag Pal when Bhaderwah was known as Bhadarkashi. 2. It is celebrated by the Naga Tribe in the state of Nagaland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 279

1 only Explanation : Recently, in Jammu and Kashmir the annual three-day Mela Patt festival started in Doda district. It is dedicated to Lord Vasuki Nag, the presiding deity of Bhaderwah Valley. History: The festival, rooted in the Nag culture, marks the historic meeting between Mughal Emperor Akbar and King Nag Pal of Bhaderwah. The festival is being celebrated since the 16th century. This festival was first celebrated by King Nag Pal when Bhaderwah was known as Bhadarkashi, It is observed every year on Nag Panchami, seven days after the conclusion of the Kailash Yatra, and is renowned for its inclusive nature. The unique ‘Dikko Dance,’ a traditional folk performance where men and women of all religions and backgrounds participate, serves as a symbol of peace, pride, and communal harmony. Dhakku dance also known as traditional dance of Dogras has a respectable place in the folk dances of India. Significance: The festival not only honors religious traditions but also showcases the proud historical legacy of Bhaderwah. Mela Patt holds a special place in the cultural and religious fabric of the region. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/jk-annual-mela-patt-festival-begins-in-bhaderwah/#:~:text

Question 280

Consider the following statements regarding Adi Vaani: 1. It is India’s first AI-powered translator for tribal languages. 2. It provides interactive language learning for students and early learners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 280

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, is launching the Beta Version of “Adi Vaani” language translator. It is an AI-based translation tool that serves as the foundation for a future large language model dedicated to tribal languages. It is India’s first AI-powered translator for tribal languages. It is developed under the banner of Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh. It is designed to bridge communication gaps between tribal and non-tribal communities, while safeguarding endangered tribal languages using advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI). The project combines advanced AI technologies with community-driven approaches to protect, promote, and revitalize tribal languages and cultures across India. It is developed by a national consortium of premier institutions led by IIT Delhi with BITS Pilani, IIIT Hyderabad, and IIIT Nava Raipurin collaboration withTribal Research Institutes (TRIs) in Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Meghalaya, The project aims to: Enable real-time translation (text and speech) between Hindi/English and tribal languages. Provide interactive language learning for students and early learners. Digitally preserve folklore, oral traditions, and cultural heritage. Support digital literacy, healthcare communication, and civic inclusion in tribal communities. Awareness on govt. schemes and important speeches Scope & Languages: In its Beta launch, Adi Vaani supports Santali (Odisha), Bhili (Madhya Pradesh), Mundari (Jharkhand), Gondi (Chhattisgarh) Methodology & Features of Adi Vani AI Language Models: Refined deployment of models such as No Language Left Behind (NLLB) and IndicTrans2 for low-resource tribal languages. Community Participation: TRIs, experts, and communities are involved in data collection, validation, and iterative development. Functional Toolkit of Adi Vani Text-to-Text, Text-to-Speech, Speech-to-Text, Speech-to-Speech translations. Optical Character Recognition (OCR) for digitizing manuscripts and primers. Bilingual dictionaries and curated repositories. Subtitles for Prime Minister’s speeches, health advisories (e.g., Sickle Cell Disease awareness), and information on government schemes and initiatives in tribal languages. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2162278

Question 281

With reference to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 and the ongoing debate on the age of consent in India, consider the following statements: 1. Under the POCSO Act, any sexual activity with a person below 18 years of age is treated as an offence, irrespective of consent. 2. The National Crime Record Bureau (NCRB) data indicates that a majority of POCSO cases involve persons known to the victim. 3. The Calcutta High Court has highlighted the dilemma of “non-exploitative consensual sexual relationships” involving minors, questioning the blanket criminalisation under POCSO. 4. Reducing the age of consent without nuance may push vulnerable girls further into invisibility and harm. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 281

All four Explanation : The SC is currently hearing Nipun Saxena and Anr vs Union of India, a PIL examining whether the age of “consensual” sexual relationships under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 should be reduced from 18 years. POCSO criminalises all sexual activity under 18, regardless of consent. So, statement 1 is correct. NCRB data shows most perpetrators are known persons (partners, friends, neighbours, or family members). So, statement 2 is correct. The Calcutta HC acknowledged the dilemma in non-exploitative consensual relationships. So, statement 3 is correct. Blanket reduction may weaken safeguards and increase vulnerability. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 282

With reference to social security reforms in India, consider the following statements: 1. The “One Nation, One Social Security” governance model seeks to integrate both central and state schemes into a unified, federated framework. 2. Institutions like Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) are proposed to serve as scalable platforms for implementing integrated welfare delivery. 3. The G20 New Delhi Declaration emphasized the need for sustainably financed universal social protection coverage. How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 282

All three Explanation : India’s welfare ecosystem is vast but fragmented, with multiple central and state schemes leading to duplication, inefficiencies, and access barriers. The "One Nation, One Social Security" model is a proposed governance framework for integrating and streamlining India's fragmented social security systems into a unified, citizen-centric platform, as advocated by the G20 New Delhi Declaration. So, statement 1 is correct. Institutions like the EPFO (30 crore accounts, 8 crore active contributors) and ESIC already deliver services at scale. So, statement 2 is correct. The G20 New Delhi Declaration called for sustainably financed universal social protection. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Question 283

Match the following groups of states as classified under the Constitution of India, 1950:

Answer 283

Explanation : Four-Part Division under the 1950 Constitution Part A States: These included nine former British governor’s provinces like Bombay, Madras, and Uttar Pradesh, each with an elected legislature and a governor. Part B States: Comprising eight former princely states or their groupings, these were governed by an elected legislature and a rajpramukh (a governor-like figure), and included states like Hyderabad, Jammu & Kashmir, and Rajasthan. Part C States: Ten territories including both former Chief Commissioners’ provinces and some princely states were placed under the direct control of the President through a Chief Commissioner. Examples: Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, and Manipur. Part D State: The sole territory under this category was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 284

Assertion (A): The U.S. decision to hike tariffs on Indian exports to 50% is creating significant strategic strain in U.S.–India relations beyond just economic repercussions. Reason (R): These tariffs undermine India’s strategic autonomy and position within partnerships such as the Quad, pushing New Delhi closer to Russia and China. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer 284

Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A Explanation : The U.S. has escalated tariffs on Indian imports up to 50%, triggering both economic and strategic fallout. This abrupt policy shift has unsettled bilateral ties, with evident strains even within broader frameworks like the Quad. So, Assertion (A) is true. By targeting India over its continued trade with Russia, especially in oil, the tariffs are perceived as attacks on India’s strategic autonomy. Analysts warn the move risks pushing India closer to Russia and China, potentially undermining its role as a balancing power and diminishing trust within strategic alignments. So, Reason (R) is true and provides the correct Explanation:.

Question 285

The annual "Special 301 Report," which identifies countries with inadequate protection of intellectual property rights, is published by which of the following? A. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) B. World Trade Organization (WTO) C. Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) D. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

Answer 285

Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) Explanation : The Special 301 Report is produced annually by the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR). Mandated by the Trade Act of 1974, the report evaluates global intellectual property protection and market access issues faced and classifies US trading partners based on their compliance. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Question 286

Consider the following statements regarding the difference between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA): 1. GDP is calculated by adding Gross Value Added at basic prices across sectors along with product taxes and subtracting product subsidies. 2. GVA measures the value of goods and services produced in the economy minus the value of intermediate consumption, reflecting sectoral contributions. 3. While GDP is a measure of the supply side of the economy, GVA is a demand-side concept used for estimating expenditure components of national income. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Answer 286

1 and 2 only Explanation : By definition, GDP = GVA + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies. GDP is measured at market prices, while GVA is measured at basic prices. So, statement 1 is correct. GVA = Output – Intermediate Consumption, and hence it reflects the contribution of each sector (agriculture, industry, services) to the economy. So, statement 2 is correct. GDP is a demand-side measure as it is often broken down into consumption, investment (business spending), government spending, and net exports. GVA, in contrast, is supply-side, since it shows sectoral contributions. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Question 287

With reference to the geographical location of Gaza, consider the following statements: 1. Gaza is part of the Arabian Peninsula and directly shares a border with Jordan. 2. The Gaza Strip is a narrow piece of land located along the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea, bordered by Israel and Egypt. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 287

2 only Explanation : Gaza lies in the Levant region of the Middle East and does not share a border with Jordan. Jordan lies farther east, separated by Israel and the West Bank. So, statement 1 is not correct. The Gaza Strip is a densely populated territory located on the eastern Mediterranean coast, bordered by Israel to the north and east, and Egypt (Rafah crossing) to the southwest. So, statement 2 is correct.

Question 288

With reference to drones (Unmanned Aerial Vehicles, UAVs) in India and globally, consider the following statements: 1. India’s Drone Rules, 2021 liberalized the regulatory framework by abolishing most approvals such as unique authorization numbers, though “No Permission – No Takeoff” (NPNT) remains mandatory for all categories in regulated zones. 2. Beyond Visual Line of Sight (BVLOS) drone operations are currently restricted in India, with only pilot projects permitted under regulatory sandbox approvals. 3. Drones have been integrated into India’s agriculture sector under the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), where financial assistance is provided for spraying pesticides and nutrients. 4. Counter-drone systems deployed by the armed forces rely exclusively on hard-kill measures such as laser weapons, since electronic jamming is ineffective against UAVs. Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer 288

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : The Drone Rules, 2021 replaced the earlier restrictive system and eliminated many approvals (like unique authorization numbers, unique prototype approvals), but NPNT digital permission remains a requirement for take-off in regulated zones. So, statement 1 is correct. BVLOS operations (like delivery drones) are not yet allowed commercially in India. Only sandbox trials are being conducted under the Ministry of Civil Aviation with selected consortia. So, statement 2 is correct. Under SMAM, the government promotes agri-drones for spraying nutrients/pesticides, with financial subsidies provided to farmer cooperatives and FPOs. So, statement 3 is correct. India’s and global counter-UAV systems use both soft-kill (jamming, spoofing, directed energy) and hard-kill (kinetic, lasers, nets) measures. Electronic jamming is very much effective against command-and-control links of UAVs. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Question 289

The "Rhisotope Project," often seen in news, primarily aims at: A. Using Radio-isotopes to track illegal trafficking of rhinoceros horns and render them useless for human consumption. B. Developing genetically modified rhinos resistant to poaching-related injuries C. Radioactive tagging of rhinos for monitoring their migration patterns across national parks D. Employing isotope hydrology to restore wetlands in African rhino habitats

Answer 289

Using Radio-isotopes to track illegal trafficking of rhinoceros horns and render them useless for human consumption. Explanation : The Rhisotope Project is a world-first initiative launched in South Africa (2021), which involves inserting harmless radioactive isotopes into live rhino horns. The goal is to make rhino horns traceable at borders using radiation detection equipment and to deter poaching and trafficking. It combines wildlife conservation and nuclear science, with collaboration between universities, conservation groups, and the nuclear industry. This makes rhino horns effectively worthless on black markets (since traceability raises the risk of detection).

Question 290

With reference to 5th Generation fighter aircraft, consider the following statements: 1. Stealth capability, advanced avionics, and sensor fusion are defining features of 5th generation aircraft, distinguishing them from earlier generations. 2. India’s AMCA (Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft) project aims to develop an indigenous 5th generation fighter jet, while the Sukhoi Su-57 of Russia and F-35 Lightning II of the U.S. are operational examples worldwide. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 290

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The key defining features of 5th generation fighters include stealth technology (reduced radar cross-section), advanced avionics, sensor fusion, supercruise capability, and network-centric warfare compatibility. So, statement 1 is correct. India’s AMCA is under development by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and HAL as a 5th generation stealth multirole fighter. Operational examples globally include the U.S. F-22 Raptor and F-35 Lightning II, and Russia’s Sukhoi Su-57. So, statement 2 is correct.

Question 291

Consider the following statements regarding the enforcement powers under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981: 1. Section 33A of the Water Act, 1974 empowers State Pollution Control Boards to issue directions, including closure, prohibition or regulation of any industry, operation, or process, and stoppage or regulation of electricity, water or any other service. 2. Section 31A of the Air Act, 1981 confers similar powers on State Pollution Control Boards, but such directions require prior approval from the Central Government to be legally enforceable. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 291

1 only Explanation : Section 33A of the Water Act, 1974 explicitly authorises the State Pollution Control Board to issue binding directions for closure, prohibition, regulation of any industry, or for the stoppage of electricity, water or other services, for preventing or controlling water pollution. So, statement 1 is correct. Section 31A of the Air Act, 1981 provides identical powers to State Pollution Control Boards in relation to air pollution control. These powers do not require prior approval of the Central Government; the directions issued by the Boards are legally binding in themselves. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 292

With reference to the origin and formation of the river Ganga, consider the following statements: 1. The Bhagirathi stream, emerging from the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh, is traditionally regarded as the source stream of the Ganga. 2. The Alaknanda, which meets the Bhagirathi at Devprayag, has major tributaries like Dhauli Ganga, Nandakini, Pindar, and Mandakini joining it at various confluences. 3. The Mandakini joins the Alaknanda at Rudraprayag, after flowing past Kedarnath. 4. The official recognition of the river as the “Ganga” begins at Rishikesh, where both Bhagirathi and Alaknanda merge into the plains. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 292

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : The Bhagirathi rises from the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh, and is considered the mythological source of the Ganga. So, statement 1 is correct. The Alaknanda has several major tributaries: Dhauli Ganga joins at Vishnuprayag, Nandakini joins at Nandprayag, Pindar joins at Karnaprayag, Mandakini joins at Rudraprayag. So, statement 2 is correct. The Mandakini River, originating near Kedarnath, indeed joins the Alaknanda at Rudraprayag. So, Statement 3 is correct. The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi at Devprayag is where the river is officially designated as the Ganga. At Rishikesh, the Ganga simply enters the plains, but its name begins earlier at Devprayag. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Question 293

With reference to the Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) issued by the Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements: 1. An ECIR is the ED’s internal document, broadly analogous to an FIR, registered when a scheduled offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 is suspected. 2. As per Supreme Court rulings, the ED is legally bound to provide a copy of the ECIR to the accused in all money laundering investigations, just like an FIR under the CrPC. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 293

1 only Explanation : The ECIR is prepared by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) when it records information related to offences under the PMLA, 2002. It is comparable in function to an FIR, though it is primarily an internal document to initiate investigation. So, statement 1 is correct. In Vijay Madanlal Choudhary vs Union of India (2022), the Supreme Court held that the ED is not bound to supply a copy of the ECIR to the accused. Disclosure of the ECIR is not mandatory, since it is an internal document, though the grounds of arrest must be conveyed to the accused in writing. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 294

Match the following pesticides with their types:

Answer 294

Explanation : Glyphosate → Herbicide A widely used broad-spectrum herbicide, effective in killing weeds and unwanted grasses. Malathion → Insecticide An organophosphate insecticide, used to control a variety of insects in agriculture, public health (mosquito control), and gardening. Mancozeb → Fungicide A dithiocarbamate fungicide, used to control fungal diseases in crops such as potatoes, tomatoes, and fruits.

Question 295

Biochar, often discussed in the context of sustainable agriculture and climate change mitigation, is best described as: A. A synthetic fertilizer derived from industrial by-products to enhance soil fertility B. A form of charcoal produced by pyrolysis of biomass, used to improve soil health and sequester carbon C. A microbial consortium designed to degrade agricultural residues into humus D. A petrochemical additive that increases soil organic carbon content

Answer 295

A form of charcoal produced by pyrolysis of biomass, used to improve soil health and sequester carbon Explanation : Biochar is a stable, carbon-rich form of charcoal produced through pyrolysis (heating biomass like crop residues, wood, or manure in limited oxygen). It improves soil fertility, water retention, and microbial activity. Crucially, biochar acts as a long-term carbon sink, making it significant for climate change mitigation strategies. It is different from fertilizers (which supply nutrients) or compost (which decomposes organically).

Question 296

The term “Goldilocks Economy”, sometimes used in economic discourse, refers to which of the following situations? A. An economy that experiences rapid GDP growth driven mainly by high inflationary demand. B. An economy that maintains moderate growth with low inflation and stable employment levels. C. An economy in deep recession with deflationary trends but stable external accounts. D. An economy with high growth accompanied by high inflation and trade deficits.

Answer 296

An economy that maintains moderate growth with low inflation and stable employment levels. Explanation : The phrase “Goldilocks Economy” comes from the Goldilocks fairy tale — “not too hot, not too cold, but just right.” In economic terms, it describes an economy that is expanding at a moderate pace, with low inflation and stable employment, avoiding extremes of overheating (high inflation) or cooling (recession/deflation). It is seen as the ideal scenario for policymakers because it provides a stable environment for investment, consumption, and monetary management.

Question 297

With reference to the phenomenon of cloudburst, consider the following statements: 1. It is a sudden and extreme rainfall event, often exceeding 10 mm per hour, usually confined to a small geographical area. 2. It occurs only in the Himalayan region due to the steep orography. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 297

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : A cloudburst is a localised but intense rainfall activity. Short spells of very heavy rainfall over a small geographical area can cause widespread destruction. Not all instances of very heavy rainfall, however, are cloudbursts. A cloudburst has a very specific definition. Rainfall of 10 cm or more in an hour over a roughly 10 km x 10-km area is classified as a cloudburst event. So, statement 1 is not correct. While cloudbursts are most frequent in the Himalayas (due to steep slopes and orographic lift of moisture-laden winds), they have also been reported in other parts of India, such as the Western Ghats and occasionally in central and peninsular regions. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 298

With reference to Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and Maoism in India, consider the following statements: 1. The “Red Corridor” refers to LWE-affected areas spanning across central and eastern India, covering states like Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. 2. The Union Government has launched the SAMADHAN doctrine as a multipronged strategy against LWE, focusing on smart leadership, aggressive strategy, motivation, action, and rehabilitation. 3. The spread of Maoism in India is confined only to forested tribal areas and has no presence in urban centres. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 298

1 and 2 only Explanation : The “Red Corridor” is a term used for LWE-affected regions across central and eastern India, including Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, parts of Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra, and West Bengal. So, statement 1 is correct. The SAMADHAN doctrine represents a comprehensive strategy against LWE. It stands for: Smart leadership Aggressive strategy Motivation and training Actionable intelligence Dashboard-based KPIs Harnessing technology Action plan for each theatre No access to financing So, statement 2 is correct. Maoist influence is not confined to tribal or forested rural belts. The concept of “Urban Maoism” refers to Maoist ideological and logistical support networks operating in cities, universities, and civil society groups, which play a role in propaganda, recruitment, and resource mobilisation. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 299

Global Capability Centers (GCCs), often seen in news, are primarily: A. Institutions under the United Nations that coordinate international disaster relief operations B. Offshore units set up by multinational corporations in India and other emerging markets to provide technology, business, and R&D support services C. Indian government-funded incubation hubs for promoting domestic startups in emerging technologies D. Regional centers under WTO to handle global trade disputes

Answer 299

Offshore units set up by multinational corporations in India and other emerging markets to provide technology, business, and R&D support services Explanation : Global Capability Centers (GCCs), earlier called Captive Centers, are offshore offices established by multinational companies in India and other emerging markets. They deliver a wide range of services such as IT, finance, analytics, AI/ML solutions, R&D, business operations, and customer support. India has become a global hub for GCCs, hosting over 1,600 centers employing more than 1.6 million professionals, especially in Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Pune, and Gurugram. They are private sector-led and not UN/WTO/government agencies.

Question 300

With reference to the proposed India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), consider the following statements: 1. The eastern corridor of IMEC connects India’s west coast to the United Arab Emirates, before extending onward to Saudi Arabia, Jordan, and Israel. 2. The northern corridor of IMEC links Israel’s Mediterranean coast with Greece and further into Europe through rail and port infrastructure. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 300

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The eastern leg of IMEC is a maritime corridor beginning from India’s western coast (Mundra/JNPT ports) to the UAE, and further by rail through Saudi Arabia → Jordan → Israel. So, statement 1 is correct. The northern corridor links Israel’s Mediterranean ports (like Haifa) to Europe via Greece, with onward connections to Italy, France, and Central Europe through upgraded ports and rail networks. So, statement 2 is correct.

Question 301

With reference to the use of fuel ethanol in India, consider the following statements: 1. Fuel ethanol is primarily produced from sugarcane and maize, and its blending with petrol helps reduce vehicular emissions and crude oil imports. 2. India has set a target of achieving 20% ethanol blending with petrol (E20) by 2025–26, advancing the earlier deadline of 2030. 3. Ethanol blending in petrol not only reduces greenhouse gas emissions but also enhances the octane number of fuel, thereby improving engine performance. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 301

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : In India, ethanol is mainly derived from sugarcane (molasses-based ethanol) and increasingly from grain sources like maize and surplus rice. Ethanol blending helps cut oil import dependence and reduces vehicular pollution. So, statement 1 is correct. India advanced its target of 20% ethanol blending (E20) from 2030 to 2025–26 under the National Policy on Biofuels (2018, amended 2022). So, statement 2 is correct. Ethanol blending not only lowers CO₂ and particulate emissions, but also raises the octane rating of petrol, leading to better engine efficiency and reduced knocking. So, statement 3 is correct.

Question 302

With reference to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) and the Competition Commission of India (CCI), consider the following statements: 1. The NCLAT is a quasi-judicial body that hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) as well as the Competition Commission of India. 2. Orders of the CCI can be appealed before the NCLAT, and further appeals lie before the Supreme Court of India. 3. CCI is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002 to promote competition and prevent anti-competitive practices. 4. While the CCI has adjudicatory powers, it does not have any regulatory or advisory functions under the law. Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer 302

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : The NCLAT was established under the Companies Act, 2013 to hear appeals against orders of the NCLT. It is also the appellate body for decisions of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI). So, statement 1 is correct. Appeals against CCI’s orders lie before the NCLAT, and a further appeal can be made to the Supreme Court of India. So, statement 2 is correct. The CCI is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002, tasked with promoting competition, preventing anti-competitive practices, and protecting consumer interests. So, statement 3 is correct. The CCI has both adjudicatory and regulatory roles, and it also provides advisory opinions to the government on competition policy matters. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Question 303

With reference to the Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules, 2023 in India, consider the following statements: 1. The ABC Rules regulate the capture, sterilisation, vaccination, and release of stray dogs and cats, aiming to control their population humanely. 2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, is responsible for issuing and implementing the ABC Rules. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 303

1 only Explanation : The ABC Rules, 2023 lay down procedures for the capture, sterilisation, immunisation, and release of stray dogs and cats as part of humane population management and rabies control. So, statement 1 is correct. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (FAHD) is responsible for issuing the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023, not the MoEFCC. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answe

Question 304

Assertion (A): The National Sports Governance Bill proposes to designate the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) as a ‘public authority’ under the RTI Act. Reason (R): The BCCI performs public functions and has enjoyed de facto recognition as the national governing body for cricket in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer 304

A is false, but R is true Explanation : The Rajya Sabha passed the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025, a day after its clearance in the Lok Sabha. The bill grants the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) most favoured treatment by keeping it outside the scope of national laws like the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The Bill specifies that only sports bodies receiving direct financial assistance from the government are deemed “public authorities” under the RTI Act. Since the BCCI does not get such funding, it will remain excluded. So, Assertion (A) is false. The Supreme Court in 2016 (BCCI v. Cricket Association of Bihar) held that the BCCI performs public functions such as regulating cricket in India, selecting the national team, and representing India at the ICC, thereby warranting public accountability. So, Reason (R) is true.

Question 305

With reference to different types of rainfall, consider the following statements: 1. Convectional rainfall is common in equatorial regions, occurring due to intense heating of the land surface that leads to rapid vertical uplift of moist air. 2. Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air ascends mountain barriers, cooling adiabatically, while the leeward side of the mountain often experiences a rain-shadow effect. 3. Cyclonic (frontal) rainfall is typically associated with the convergence of air masses of similar temperature and density, leading to gradual uplift and heavy rainfall. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 305

1 and 2 only Explanation : Convectional rainfall occurs mainly in tropical/equatorial regions due to intense heating, which makes warm moist air rise, cool, and condense into heavy rainfall, often accompanied by thunderstorms. So, statement 1 is correct. Orographic rainfall (relief rainfall) occurs when moist winds are forced to rise over mountains, cooling and condensing on the windward side, while the leeward side (rain shadow region) remains comparatively dry. So, statement 2 is correct. Cyclonic (frontal) rainfall occurs when two air masses of contrasting temperature and density (warm and cold) converge. The warm air is forced to rise over cold air, causing condensation and precipitation. So, statement 3 is not correct

Question 306

With reference to Brent Crude Oil, consider the following statements: 1. Brent crude, extracted from the Baltic Sea, is one of the leading global benchmarks for oil pricing. 2. India imports a significant share of its crude oil from the North Sea, making Brent the primary source of its energy security. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Answer 306

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Brent crude is a major classification of light, sweet crude oil, extracted from the North Sea. It serves as one of the world’s two primary oil price benchmarks (the other being West Texas Intermediate – WTI). So, statement 1 is not correct. Although Brent crude is used as a pricing benchmark for about two-thirds of global crude oil trade, India primarily imports crude oil from West Asia (Iraq, Saudi Arabia, UAE, etc.), not directly from the North Sea. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 307

With reference to common variants of plastics, consider the following statements: 1. Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) is widely used in packaging beverages due to its strength, lightweight nature, and recyclability. 2. Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) is commonly used in water pipes, credit cards, and medical equipment, but its disposal raises concerns of toxic emissions. 3. Polystyrene (PS) is a biodegradable plastic derived from natural starch and is mainly used in making eco-friendly packaging materials. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 307

1 and 2 only Explanation : PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate) is used in soft drink bottles, food containers, and packaging materials because it is lightweight, strong, and recyclable. So, statement 1 is correct. PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride) is used in pipes, wires, credit cards, and medical devices. However, its incineration releases toxic dioxins, making its disposal problematic. So, statement 2 is correct. Polystyrene (PS) is not biodegradable; it is derived from petroleum and is widely used for disposable cups, cutlery, insulation, and packaging foam, but is criticized for plastic pollution. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 308

With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) in India, consider the following statements: 1. MAT under the Income-tax Act, 1961 is applicable to companies, while AMT applies to non-corporate taxpayers like LLPs, partnership firms, and individuals claiming certain deductions. 2. Both MAT and AMT are calculated on “book profit” as shown in the company’s profit and loss account prepared under the Companies Act. 3. MAT is levied at around 15% (plus surcharge & cess), whereas AMT is generally levied at 18.5% on adjusted total income (plus surcharge & cess), with some relaxations for small taxpayers. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 308

1 and 3 only Explanation : MAT (Section 115JB, Income-tax Act, 1961) applies to companies whose normal tax liability is less than a prescribed percentage of their “book profit.” AMT (Section 115JC) applies to non-corporate taxpayers (LLPs, partnerships, individuals, HUFs, etc.) who claim certain deductions under sections like 10AA. So, statement 1 is correct. MAT is based on book profit (profits as per Companies Act, adjusted for specified items). AMT, however, is based on “adjusted total income”, not book profit. So, statement 2 is not correct. The MAT rate is 15% (plus surcharge and cess), reduced from 18.5% in 2019. AMT is levied at 18.5% of adjusted total income (plus applicable surcharge and cess), with a reduced rate of 9% for units in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) and exemptions for small taxpayers (income ≤ ₹20 lakh). So, statement 3 is correct.

Question 309

With reference to Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF), consider the following statements: 1. SAF is primarily produced from renewable feedstocks such as agricultural residues, used cooking oil, and municipal solid waste, and can significantly reduce lifecycle carbon emissions compared to conventional jet fuel. 2. The use of SAF in aircraft requires a complete redesign of existing jet engines, as it is chemically incompatible with current aviation turbine fuel (ATF). Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 309

1 only Explanation : Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) is derived from renewable biomass sources like agricultural and forestry residues, used cooking oil, municipal solid waste, and non-fossil feedstocks. Compared to conventional aviation turbine fuel (ATF), SAF can reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by up to 80% on a lifecycle basis. So, statement 1 is correct. SAF is designed to be a “drop-in fuel”, meaning it can be blended with conventional jet fuel and used in existing aircraft engines without any modification. Aircraft and airport fueling infrastructure remain largely compatible. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 310

With reference to sovereign credit ratings, consider the following statements: Assertion (A): A downgrade of a country’s sovereign credit rating from ‘BBB–’ to ‘BB+’ increases its cost of borrowing in international markets. Reason (R): Sovereign ratings below ‘BBB–’ are considered non-investment grade (speculative), which raises the risk premium demanded by global investors. Which of the following is correct?

Answer 310

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation: of A Explanation : Sovereign Credit Ratings: Agencies like S&P, Moody’s, and Fitch assign ratings to countries that reflect their ability to repay debt. BBB– is the lowest investment-grade rating (for S&P/Fitch). A downgrade to BB+ moves the country into speculative status. Impact of downgrade: When a country’s rating falls below investment grade, foreign investors perceive higher risk, leading to higher yields (borrowing costs) on government bonds. So, A is true. Ratings below BBB– are indeed labelled speculative grade, prompting investors to demand a higher risk premium or to restrict lending. This directly explains why borrowing costs rise. So, R is also true and correctly explains A.

Question 311

With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), consider the following statements: 1. The NCBC was granted constitutional status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which inserted Article 337B into the Constitution. 2. The NCBC has the power to include or exclude any community directly in the Central List of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) without reference to the President or Parliament. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 311

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by inserting Article 338B. So, statement 1 is not correct. The NCBC has the power to examine matters relating to safeguards for OBCs and to advise the Government, but the power to notify inclusion or exclusion in the Central List of OBCs rests with the President, who acts on the advice of the Union Government. NCBC itself cannot directly include/exclude communities. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 312

With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. It was introduced in 1935 after its first mention in the Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among its members. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India assists the PAC in scrutinising the Appropriation Accounts and the Finance Accounts of the Union Government. Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer 312

2 and 3 only Explanation : The Public Accounts Committee was introduced in 1921 after its first mention in the Government of India Act, 1919 also called Montford Reforms. So, statement 1 is not correct. The Speaker appoints the Chairperson of the PAC from among its members. So, statement 2 is correct. The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the PAC, helping it examine government accounts, audit reports, and financial propriety. So, statement 3 is correct.

Question 313

With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India enforces the MCC to ensure free and fair elections, restricting the ruling party from misusing state machinery for electoral advantage. Reason (R): MCC has the same legal force as a law passed by Parliament and is enforceable through criminal prosecution in courts. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer 313

A is true, but R is false Explanation : The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces the MCC to provide a level playing field. It restricts the ruling party from using government machinery, funds, or official channels to gain an electoral advantage, thus protecting fairness. So, A is true. The MCC is not a law; it is a set of agreed guidelines evolved through political consensus since 1960 and given statutory backing indirectly via the Election Commission’s constitutional powers (Article 324). Violations are generally dealt with through censure, warnings, or invoking existing laws (like IPC, Representation of the People Act, 1951), because MCC itself is not a statute. So, R is false.

Question 314

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, consider the following statements: 1. GST is levied as a destination-based, indirect tax that subsumes multiple indirect taxes such as excise duty, service tax, and VAT. 2. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, with the Union Revenue Secretary as its ex-officio Secretary. 3. Alcohol for human consumption and electricity are presently included under its framework. 4. The power to impose GST on inter-State trade or commerce is vested exclusively in the Union Government. Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer 314

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : GST is a destination-based, comprehensive indirect tax that replaced a host of central and state indirect taxes like excise duty, service tax, VAT, etc. So, statement 1 is correct. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, with the Union Revenue Secretary as its ex-officio Secretary. So, statement 2 is correct. Alcohol for human consumption and electricity are outside the ambit of GST; states continue to levy their own taxes on them. So, statement 3 is not correct. The Union Government has the exclusive power to levy IGST (Integrated GST) on inter-State supply of goods and services. So, statement 4 is correct.

Question 315

With reference to the Airports Authority of India (AAI), consider the following statements: 1. AAI was established under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994 by merging the International Airports Authority of India and the National Airports Authority. 2. While AAI manages airports across the country, it has no role in providing air traffic management (ATM) services, which are handled exclusively by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 315

1 only Explanation : The Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted by merging the International Airports Authority of India (1972) and the National Airports Authority (1986) under the AAI Act, 1994. So, statement 1 is correct. The AAI is responsible not only for managing airports but also for providing Air Traffic Management (ATM) services across the entire Indian airspace and adjoining oceanic areas. The DGCA, on the other hand, is primarily a regulatory body, not the service provider. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 316

With reference to the Aravalli Ridge in India, consider the following statements: 1. It is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, extending across Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi. 2. The Ridge in Delhi is the northernmost extension of the Aravalli Hills and plays a crucial role as the “green lung” of the city. 3. The Aravalli Range forms the watershed between the Indus and Ganga river systems, directing drainage towards both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 316

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The Aravalli Range is geologically very ancient, formed during the Archaean era, and is considered one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world. It extends through Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi, and Gujarat. So, statement 1 is correct. The Delhi Ridge is the northernmost extension of the Aravalli Range. It acts as a green buffer for Delhi, mitigating pollution and influencing the city’s microclimate. So, statement 2 is correct. The Aravalli Range is a watershed that separates the Indus drainage system to the northwest from the Ganga drainage system to the east. So, statement 3 is correct.

Question 317

With reference to inflation measurement in India, consider the following statements: 1. Headline inflation includes all items in the Consumer Price Index (CPI), including food and fuel, whereas core inflation excludes food and fuel due to their price volatility. 2. Headline inflation is considered a better indicator for monetary policy formulation than core inflation, since it captures the immediate impact of supply shocks. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 317

1 only Explanation : Headline inflation measures the total inflation in the economy, capturing all goods and services in the Consumer Price Index (CPI), including volatile food and fuel prices. Core inflation, on the other hand, excludes food and fuel to better reflect the underlying long-term inflationary trend. So, statement 1 is correct. For monetary policy purposes, the RBI gives more weight to core inflation, as it reflects the sustained component of price rise and is less affected by temporary supply shocks in food or fuel. Headline inflation is important for assessing cost of living but is more volatile. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 318

Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Globalisation has significantly increased the scale and diversity of international migration. Reason (R): Liberalisation of economies, growth of global labour markets, and advancements in communication and transportation have facilitated cross-border mobility of workers. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer 318

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation: of A Explanation : Globalisation has intensified the movement of people across borders due to interconnected economies, international labour demand, and cultural linkages. So, Assertion (A) is true. Key drivers include liberalised trade regimes, growth of global labour markets, cheaper and faster transportation, ICT connectivity, and transnational networks, all of which facilitate migration. So, Reason (R) is true & R is the correct Explanation: of A.

Question 319

With reference to the World Travel and Tourism Council (WTTC), consider the following statements: 1. The WTTC is a global forum of governments that formulates binding regulations on international tourism and travel. 2. It is a private sector–led body that represents the travel and tourism industry worldwide and publishes an annual Economic Impact Report assessing the sector’s contribution to GDP and employment. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 319

2 only Explanation : The World Travel and Tourism Council (WTTC) is not an intergovernmental body; it does not issue binding regulations. That role is played by intergovernmental organisations like UNWTO (United Nations World Tourism Organization). So, statement 1 is not correct. WTTC is a forum of the private sector in the global travel & tourism industry, headquartered in London. It represents airlines, hotels, cruise lines, tour operators, airports, etc., and publishes the annual Economic Impact Report, which measures the contribution of travel & tourism to GDP, jobs, exports, and investment worldwide. So, statement 2 is correct.

Question 320

Consider the following pairs:

Answer 320

Explanation : Mercator Projection → A cylindrical conformal projection, developed by Gerardus Mercator in 1569, which preserves shape locally (conformality) but greatly distorts area near poles (e.g., Greenland appears much larger than Africa). Equal Earth Projection → A recent equal-area projection (2018) designed for world maps. It preserves relative area across latitudes, offering a more realistic view of continents’ size, though shapes are somewhat distorted. Orthographic Projection → A perspective projection that shows Earth as it would appear from deep space. It is neither conformal nor equal-area but gives a globe-like appearance, often used for thematic or pictorial maps.

Question 321

Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Wastewater surveillance is increasingly being used as a public health tool to track the spread of infectious diseases such as COVID-19 and poliovirus. Reason (R): Viral fragments excreted in human waste can be detected in sewage even before individuals develop symptoms, enabling early warning and community-level disease monitoring. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer 321

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation: of A Explanation : Wastewater-based epidemiology (WBE) has emerged as a low-cost, community-wide surveillance tool used globally to detect outbreaks of COVID-19, poliovirus, antimicrobial resistance, and other pathogens. So, Assertion (A) is true. Viral RNA, bacterial markers, and chemical residues appear in human excreta and are collected in sewage systems. These signals often precede clinical testing data, providing an early warning system for public health agencies. So, Reason (R) is true & R is the correct Explanation: of A.

Question 322

With reference to the Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM) developed by India, consider the following statements: 1. QRSAM is an all-weather, all-terrain missile system developed by DRDO to provide short-range air defence against aircraft, helicopters, and UAVs. 2. It is equipped with active radar homing guidance, two-way data link, and electronic counter-countermeasure (ECCM) features to defeat jamming attempts. 3. The QRSAM has a strike range of up to 30 km, with the ability to engage multiple targets simultaneously while on the move. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 322

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The QRSAM is an indigenously developed missile system by DRDO. It provides short-range, quick-reaction air defence to protect moving armoured formations against aircraft, helicopters, UAVs, and cruise missiles. So, statement 1 is correct. QRSAM uses active radar homing guidance with two-way data link and ECCM features, making it capable of countering enemy electronic warfare measures. So, statement 2 is correct. It has a range of ~25–30 km and is designed for quick deployment, capable of engaging multiple aerial targets simultaneously while on the move (track-on-move capability). So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 323

With reference to the programmes of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), consider the following statements: 1. The Operation Flood programme launched by NDDB is known as the "White Revolution of India," which transformed India into the world’s largest producer of milk. 2. The NDDB’s National Dairy Plan (NDP) aims to increase milk productivity, strengthen rural milk procurement systems, and provide better access to markets for dairy farmers. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 323

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Operation Flood, launched in 1970 by NDDB, created a nationwide milk grid and is credited as the “White Revolution of India”. It made India self-sufficient in milk and the world’s largest milk producer. So, statement 1 is correct. The National Dairy Plan (Phase I: 2011-12 to 2018-19, Phase II ongoing) focuses on: Increasing milk productivity of milch animals through better breeding and feeding practices. Strengthening village-level milk procurement systems. Ensuring market access to smallholder dairy farmers through cooperatives and producer companies. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Question 324

With reference to the geographical location of Fiji, consider the following statements: 1. Fiji is an archipelago of more than 300 islands located in the South Pacific Ocean, north-east of Australia and north of New Zealand. 2. It lies close to the International Date Line and the Tropic of Capricorn passes through its southern islands. 3. Suva, the capital of Fiji, is located on the island of Viti Levu, the largest island of the group. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 324

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Fiji is a South-Pacific island nation comprising over 300 islands, situated ~1,770 km northeast of Australia and north of New Zealand. So, statement 1 is correct. Fiji lies near the 180° meridian (International Date Line). The Tropic of Capricorn passes through its southern islands, giving it a tropical marine climate. So, statement 2 is correct. Suva, the capital city, is located on Viti Levu, the largest and most populous island of Fiji. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 325

Consider the following statements about India’s Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-1), conducted for the Gaganyaan mission: 1. The test involved dropping a dummy crew module from a Chinook helicopter at an altitude of about 3 km. 2. The purpose of the test was to validate the parachute-based deceleration system for the safe splashdown of astronauts. 3. IADT-1 simulated the entire re-entry from space, including atmospheric re-entry conditions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 325

1 and 2 only Explanation : In IADT-1, ISRO dropped a 4.8-tonne dummy crew module from a Chinook helicopter at 3 km altitude to test safety systems. So, Statement 1 is correct. The test was conducted to validate the parachute-based deceleration system that ensures a safe landing of the crew module after re-entry. So, Statement 2 is correct. The test only simulated the final leg of descent and splashdown, not the full re-entry, as helicopters cannot replicate high-velocity re-entry from space. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Question 326

Consider the following statements regarding cotton cultivation in India: 1. Cotton requires a warm climate with temperatures between 21°C and 30°C for optimal growth. 2. Cotton is a tropical and subtropical crop that grows best in regions with at least 50–100 cm of annual rainfall, preferably well-distributed. 3. Cotton grows best in clayey soil with poor drainage and cannot tolerate black soil conditions. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 326

Only two Explanation : Cotton thrives in a warm climate with temperatures consistently between 21°C and 30°C for optimal growth, and it also requires a long, frost-free period and ample sunshine for maturity. So, statement 1 is correct Cotton thrives in warm, tropical, and subtropical climates, requiring a minimum of 50–100 cm of well-distributed annual rainfall and a long, frost-free growing season of around 200-210 days. So, statement 2 is correct. Cotton grows best in black soil (regur soil), which has high moisture retention. It does not thrive in poorly drained clay soils. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Question 327

With reference to the H-1B visa programme of the United States, consider the following statements: 1. The H-1B visa is an immigrant visa that allows U.S. companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations requiring theoretical or technical expertise. 2. The visa is issued for an initial period of 10 years, with no option for further extension. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Answer 327

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The H-1B is a temporary, non-immigrant visa that enables US employers to hire foreign workers in specialized fields like technology, engineering, and finance. So, Statement 1 is not correct. The H-1B visa is typically issued for an initial period of 3 years, which may be extended up to a maximum of 6 years in most cases. It is not a 10-year visa, and extensions beyond 6 years are linked to Green Card processes. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 328

With reference to Brown Dwarfs in astronomy, consider the following statements: 1. Brown Dwarfs are substellar objects with masses between the heaviest gas giant planets and the lightest stars, typically around 13 to 80 times the mass of Jupiter. 2. Unlike stars, they cannot sustain stable hydrogen fusion in their cores, though some may briefly fuse deuterium or lithium. 3. They are often detected through strong visible light emissions since they radiate energy like main-sequence stars. 4. The study of Brown Dwarfs helps astronomers understand both star formation and exoplanetary atmospheres, as their properties overlap with gas giants. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Answer 328

Only three Explanation : Brown Dwarfs are intermediate-mass objects—too massive to be considered planets, but not massive enough to be stars. Their mass range is roughly 13–80 Jupiter masses (MJ). So, Statement 1 is correct. They cannot sustain stable hydrogen fusion like true stars. However, the more massive ones can undergo temporary deuterium and lithium fusion in their early life. So, Statement 2 is correct. Brown Dwarfs are faint in visible light and are mostly detected through infrared radiation because they are relatively cool compared to main-sequence stars. So, Statement 3 is not correct. Brown Dwarfs provide insights into stellar formation (as they form like stars but fail to ignite hydrogen fusion) and are also analogues to gas giant exoplanets, useful for atmospheric studies. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Question 329

With reference to India’s Matsya-6000 submersible being developed under the Samudrayaan Mission, consider the following statements: 1. It is designed to carry crew members to a depth of about 6,000 metres in Ocean in order to strengthen India’s coastal security. 2. The submersible uses a spherical titanium hull to withstand extreme deep-sea pressure, and is part of a mission under the Ministry of Defence. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 329

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Matsya-6000 is an indigenously developed manned submersible, being designed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, to carry three crew members up to a depth of 6,000 m. Its main purpose is to facilitate human exploration of deep-sea resources, particularly polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin, as part of Samudrayaan, a component of the Deep Ocean Mission. So, statement 1 is not correct. While it is true that Matsya-6000 uses a titanium alloy spherical crew module to resist extreme pressures at 6 km depth, the project is not under the Ministry of Defence. It is spearheaded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) through NIOT. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 330

Arrange the following major islands of Japan in their correct order from north to south: 1. Honshu 2. Hokkaido 3. Okinawa 4. Shikoku 5. Kyushu Options:

Answer 330

2 – 1 – 4 – 5 – 3 Explanation : From north to south, the five main islands of Japan are Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, Kyushu, and Okinawa. The largest and most populous of these is Honshu, often called the Japanese mainland.

Question 331

Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): A persistent rise in inflation erodes the real disposable income of households, even if their nominal wages remain unchanged. Reason (R): Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning households can buy fewer goods and services with the same level of income. Codes:

Answer 331

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation: of A Explanation : When inflation rises, households face higher prices for essential goods and services. Unless nominal wages rise proportionally, their real disposable income (purchasing power after adjusting for inflation) falls. So, Assertion (A) is true. Inflation by definition erodes the purchasing power of money. For example, if income remains ₹10,000 but prices rise 10%, households can now buy 10% fewer goods/services with the same income. So, Reason (R) is true & R is the correct Explanation: of A.

Question 332

With reference to the Gangotri Glacier, consider the following statements: 1. Located in Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, it is the largest glacier of the Himalayas in India. 2. The glacier originates at the Chaukhamba massif and flows northwest, terminating near Gaumukh at about 4,000 meters above sea level. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Answer 332

2 only Explanation : While Gangotri is one of the most significant and one of the largest glaciers in the Himalayas, it is not the largest overall. The Gangotri Glacier is a major source of the Ganges River. It is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, in the Garhwal Himalayas. It is approximately 30 km long and about 2 to 4 km wide. So, statement 1 is not correct. The glacier originates at the Chaukhamba massif (~7,100 m) and flows northwest, terminating at Gaumukh (~4,000 m elevation), which is revered as a sacred spot in Hindu tradition. So, statement 2 is correct.