AVMT 131 Chapter 4A Study Guide

Question 1

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

• review traffic control light signal procedures
• check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
• determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the takeoff and landing distance data for the aircraft

Answer 1

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the takeoff and landing distance data for the aircraft

Question 2

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

• the designation of an alternate airport
• a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use
• an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

Answer 2

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

Question 3

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

• FAA
• pilot in command
• aircraft manufacturer

Answer 3

pilot in command

Question 4

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

• an emergency
• when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion”
• if the clearance contains a restriction

Answer 4

an emergency

Question 5

As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation may you deviate from an ATC clearance?

• In an emergency
• When operating in Class A airspace at night
• If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions

Answer 5

In an emergency

Question 6

What action, if any, is appropriate if you deviate from an ATC instruction during an emergency and are given priority?

• Take no special action because you are pilot in command
• File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested
• File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible

Answer 6

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

Question 7

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, as pilot in command, you may

• deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours
• deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet that emergency
• not deviate from the FARs unless prior approval for the deviation is granted by the Administrator

Answer 7

deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet that emergency

Question 8

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

• Within 7 days
• Within 10 days
• Upon request

Answer 8

Upon request

Question 9

When would a you be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency that caused you to deviate from an ATC clearance?

• When requested by ATC
• Immediately
• Within 7 days

Answer 9

When requested by ATC

Question 10

Before starting each maneuver, you should

• check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications
• visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
• announce your intentions on the nearest CTAF

Answer 10

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

Question 11

What collision avoidance procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

• Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
• Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes
• Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude

Answer 11

Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

Question 12

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

• not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
• be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds
• use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

Answer 12

not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

Question 13

Which technique should you use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

• Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
• Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
• Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

Answer 13

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

Question 14

What is an effective way to scan for traffic in front of your airplane during climb?

• Perform 90 degree turns every 1–2 miles to check for traffic along your flight path
• Use your cockpit display of traffic information (CDTI) to avoid aircraft that cannot be seen in a nose-high attitude
• Lower the nose periodically and clear the area, and then transition to cruise climb when altitude permits

Answer 14

Lower the nose periodically and clear the area, and then transition to cruise climb when altitude permits

Question 15

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

• The other aircraft always appears to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
• The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
• No relative motion is apparent between your aircraft and the other aircraft

Answer 15

No relative motion is apparent between your aircraft and the other aircraft

Question 16

Most midair collision accident occur during

• foggy days
• clear days
• cloudy nights

Answer 16

clear days

Question 17

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

• in Class B airspace
• in conditions of reduced visibility
• within 15 miles of a towered airport

Answer 17

in conditions of reduced visibility

Question 18

What is the appropriate way to use a cockpit display of traffic information (CDTI) to avoid a collision?

• Monitor the CDTI and if you receive a traffic alert, turn away from target shown on the display
• Continuously scan for traffic by looking outside and cross check the CDTI to learn what areas need increased attention
• To avoid complacency, use the CDTI only after you are instrument rated and flying IFR

Answer 18

Continuously scan for traffic by looking outside and cross check the CDTI to learn what areas need increased attention

Question 19

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

• End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
• 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
• Sunset to sunrise

Answer 19

Sunset to sunrise

Question 20

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

• over a densely populated area
• in Class D Airspace under special VFR
• except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

Answer 20

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

Question 21

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other traffic?

• A balloon
• An aircraft in distress
• An aircraft on final approach to land

Answer 21

An aircraft in distress

Question 22

Which action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

• The faster aircraft shall give way
• The aircraft on the left shall give way
• Each aircraft shall give way to the right

Answer 22

The aircraft on the left shall give way

Question 23

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

• Glider
• Airship
• Aircraft refueling other aircraft

Answer 23

Glider

Question 24

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

• The airship
• The airplane
• Each pilot should alter course to the right

Answer 24

The airship

Question 25

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? - Airship - Aircraft towing other aircraft - Gyroplane

Answer 25

Aircraft towing other aircraft

Question 26

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? - The airplane pilot should give way to the left - The glider pilot should give way to the right - Both pilots should give way to the right

Answer 26

Both pilots should give way to the right

Question 27

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft - that has the other to its right - that is the least maneuverable - at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

Answer 27

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

Question 28

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when - flight visibility is less than 5 miles - over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement - less than 2,500 feet AGL

Answer 28

over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement

Question 29

In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited? - Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL - Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL - Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL

Answer 29

Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL

Question 30

What is the lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic flight? - 1,00 feet AGL - 1,500 feet AGL - 2,000 feet AGL

Answer 30

1,500 feet AGL

Question 31

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than - 3 miles - 5 miles - 7 miles

Answer 31

3 miles

Question 32

An approved parachute constructed of natural materials must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding - 60 days - 90 days - 120 days

Answer 32

60 days

Question 33

An approved synthetic parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding - 120 days - 180 days - 365 days

Answer 33

180 days

Question 34

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? - When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers - When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more - When intentionally banking in excess of 30°

Answer 34

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more

Question 35

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? - Flight under IFR - Flight over a densely populated area - Flight within Class D airspace

Answer 35

Flight over a densely populated area

Question 36

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate - beneath the floor of Class B airspace - over a densely populated area or in a congested airway - from the primary airport with Class D airspace

Answer 36

over a densely populated area or in a congested airway

Question 37

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface - An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of1,000 feet

Answer 37

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

Question 38

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? - An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of1,000 feet - An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of2,000 feet

Answer 38

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of2,000 feet

Question 39

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? - An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of2,000 feet - An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of1,000 feet.

Answer 39

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

Question 40

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? - 500 feet - 700 feet - 1,000 feet

Answer 40

500 feet

Question 41

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? - Only in an emergency - If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface - If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration

Answer 41

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

Question 42

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? - Aileron down on the downwind side. - Ailerons neutral. - Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Answer 42

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Question 43

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? - Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. - Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. - Ailerons neutral.

Answer 43

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Question 44

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane? - Quartering tailwind - Direct crosswind - Quartering headwind

Answer 44

Quartering tailwind

Question 45

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? - Left aileron up, elevator neutral. - Left aileron down, elevator neutral. - Left aileron up, elevator down.

Answer 45

Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

Question 46

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? - Right aileron up, elevator up. - Right aileron down, elevator neutral. - Right aileron up, elevator down.

Answer 46

Right aileron up, elevator up.

Question 47

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? - Left aileron up, elevator neutral. - Left aileron down, elevator neutral. - Left aileron down, elevator down.

Answer 47

Left aileron down, elevator down.

Question 48

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of - all passengers - the pilot in command - the right seat pilot

Answer 48

the pilot in command

Question 49

Regarding passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? - The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep safety belts fastened for the entire flight. - The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. - The pilot in command has no obligation concerning passengers’ use of safety belts.

Answer 49

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 50

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during - takeoffs and landings - all flight conditions - flight in turbulent air

Answer 50

takeoffs and landings

Question 51

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? - Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings. - Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. - Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

Answer 51

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

Question 52

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while enroute. - Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while enroute; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Answer 52

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while enroute; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Question 53

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during - taxi, takeoffs, and landings - all flight conditions - flight in turbulent air

Answer 53

taxi, takeoffs, and landings

Question 54

Your instructor has demonstrated a maneuver and wants you to try it. What steps should you complete to assume control of the airplane? - Tell the instructor that you are ready to try the maneuver and start performing the maneuver when the airplane is stabilized. - Start performing the maneuver after your instructor says, “you have the flight controls,” and let the instructor monitor your performance. - After your instructor says, “you have the flight controls”, say “I have the flight controls”, and watch for your instructor to confirm again, “you have the flight controls.”

Answer 54

After your instructor says, “you have the flight controls”, say “I have the flight controls”, and watch for your instructor to confirm again, “you have the flight controls.”

Question 55

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - A forced landing due to engine failure. - Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. - Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Answer 55

Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Question 56

Which incident would require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - An in-flight generator or alternator failure - An in-flight fire - An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability

Answer 56

An in-flight fire

Question 57

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? - An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. - Inadvertent door or window opening in-flight. - An in-flight generator or alternator failure.

Answer 57

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

Question 58

On a postflight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you - must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office. - should notify the NTSB within 10 days. - must file a NASA report immediately

Answer 58

must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

Question 59

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB - within 7 days - within 10 days - when requested

Answer 59

when requested

Question 60

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days? - 5 -7 - 10

Answer 60

10

Question 61

If an aircraft is involved in an accident that results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified - immediately - within 48 hours - within 7 days

Answer 61

immediately

Question 62

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? - Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. - Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. - No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

Answer 62

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

Question 63

Which is an appropriate action to take to manage a cabin door opening after departure? - Immediately attempt to close the door. - Perform a normal traffic pattern and landing and close the door on the ground. - Decrease the airspeed to just above a stall speed to make it easier to close the door.

Answer 63

Perform a normal traffic pattern and landing and close the door on the ground.

Question 64

Which is true regarding emergency equipment and survival gear? - FAR 91.205 requires that a fire extinguisher, ELT, and a survival kit be on board the airplane. - Because items might vary depending on the airplane, you must be familiar with using the specific emergency emergency equipment and survival equipment on board each airplane you fly. - You are required by FAR Part 91 to brief your passengers on the location and use of all emergency equipment and survival gear.

Answer 64

Because items might vary depending on the airplane, you must be familiar with using the specific emergency emergency equipment and survival equipment on board each airplane you fly.

Question 65

When packing a survival kit to have on board the airplane, you should include - only the items required by regulation. - equipment/gear needed for the specific terrain and weather along your route. - no more than a few core items to limit the weight in the baggage area.

Answer 65

equipment/gear needed for the specific terrain and weather along your route.