az/pd Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

primary patho of Parkinson’s disease

A

disease of dopamine depletion, primarily affecting the substantia nigra

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2
Q

when do cardinal symptoms of Parkinson’s disease typically appear

A

symptoms appear when 70-80% of substantia nigra neurons are depleted

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3
Q

what does the TRAP acronym stand for (cardinal symptoms of Parkinson’s)

A

*tremor
*rigidity (cog wheeling or hypomimia)
*akinesia/bradykinesia
*postural instability

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4
Q

which two classes of meds are commonly associated w/ drug-induced parkinsonism

A

dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics (except clozapine and antiemetics))

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5
Q

why is peripheral administered dopamine ineffective for treating parkinsons

A

dopamine is hydrophilic and cannot cross BBB

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6
Q

an immediate precursor of dopamine that can cross the BBB and can be converted to dopamine in the brain

A

levodopa

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7
Q

what is the purpose of combining carbidopa and levodopa

A

carbidopa inhibits peripheral decarboxylation of L-dopa, allowing more of it to reach the brain and reducing peripheral side effects (i.e. nausea)

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8
Q

in which pt population is levodopa/carbidopa the preferred initial therapy for parkinson’s disease

A

preferred in older adults 65+ d/t its safer side effect profile compared to other agents

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9
Q

what is a major limitation of levodopa tx

A

it is only effective for a finite period of time

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10
Q

what is a key pt counseling point regarding carbidopa/levodopa admin and diet

A

levodopa competes w/ protein for absorption, so it should not be taken w/ a high protein meal

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11
Q

adverse effects of levodopa

A
  • n/v
  • postural hypotension
  • dyskinesias
  • psychiatric disturbances
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12
Q

what is the general therapeutic strategy for dopamine agonists in PD, particularly in younger pts

A

they may be used as early monotherapy in initial L-DOPA sparing strategy

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13
Q

adverse effects of ropinerol and pramipexole

A
  • sudden, irresistable episodes of sleep, often referred to as sleep attacks

caution while driving

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14
Q

what unique adverse effects are associated w/ dopamine agonists such as ropinerole and pramipexole

A

hallucinations and impulse control disorders, such as compulsive gambling or shopping

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

which dopamine agonist is available as a daily transdermal patch, making it useful for pts w/ swallowing difficulties

A

rotigotine (neupro)

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16
Q

in PD tx, the motor complication known as “wearing off” effect refers to what phenomenon

A

occurs when an adequate dose of L-DOPA does not last until the next scheduled dose, causing sx to return

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17
Q

dyskinesias in PD are characterized by rapid, irregular, nonpurposeful movements known as ______; and more disabling sustained contractions called _________

A

chorea; dystonia

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18
Q

selectively and reversibly inhibit the COMT enzyme, which inhibits the degradation of dopamine and extends the life of L-DOPA

A

COMT inhibitors (entacapone)

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19
Q

true or false:

COMT inhibitors can be used as monotherapy for PD

A

false; they are ineffective when given as monotherapy and must be administered simultaneously w/ levodopa

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20
Q

what is a unique, harmless side effect of the COMT inhibitor entacapone

A

urine discoloration

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21
Q

selectively and irreversibly inhibit monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) in the brain, interferring w/ the degradation of dopamine

A

MAO-B inhibitors (rasagiline and selegiline)

22
Q

MAO-B inhibitors are contraindicated w/ which two major classes of drugs d/t risk of serotonin syndrome or hypertensive crisis

A

opioids and serotonergic drugs (SSRIs, SNRIs)

23
Q

role of apomorphine (apokyn) in PD tx

A

dopamine agonist used as a rescue tx for intermittent L-DOPA “off” episodes, particularly freezing

24
why must a test dose of apomorphine be administered under medical supervision
risk of severe hypotension
25
in PD, an imbalance where acetylcholine activity is relatively higher than dopamine activity primarily contributes to which sx?
tremor
26
in which pt population are anticholinergics such as benztropine used as a monotherapy in PD
in pts younger than 65 whose only sx is tremor
27
classic adverse effects of anticholinergic meds that limit their use, especially in older adults
* dry mouth * blurred vision * retention * constipation * confusion * sedation
28
used as an adjunct tx to decrease the intensity of L-DOPA induced dyskinesia
primary role of amantadine in modern PD therapy
29
four major pathophysiological alterations found in AD
* extracellular B- amyloid plaques * intracellular neurofibrillary tangles * degeneration of cholinergic neurons * cortical atrophy
30
destruction of acetylcholine-synthesizing neurons in the ___________ and ___________ is a key feature of AZ
hippocampus; cortex
31
3 most common reversible causes of cognitive impairment
* drugs * depression * metabolic disturbances
32
primary pharmacologic goal of AZ tx
* improve pt and family's QoL by managing sx * maximizing independent function (not a cure)
33
inhibit acetylcholinesterase, preventing hydrolysis of acetylcholine and thus increasing its concentration in synaptic cleft
cholinesterase inhibitors
34
for which stages of AZ is donezipil (aricept) FDA-approved
mild, moderate, and severe AZ
35
what is a key advantage of donezipil (aricept) compared to other cholinesterase inhibitors
allows once-daily dosing and generally has fewer SEs
36
what are the most common dose-related adverse effects of donezipil
GI effects (nausea, diarrhea) and CNS effects (insomnia)
37
besides AZ, rivastigmine (exelon) is also indicated for mild-moderate dementia associated w/ what other neurodegenerative disease
parkinson's disease
37
what is a major disadvantage of the oral formulation of rivastigmine (exelon)
BID dosing and longer titration period
38
what is a critical counseling pt for rivastigmine (exelon) transdermal to prevent med errors
* apply 1 patch daily to a new location, avoiding reapplication to the same spot for 14 days * never cut patch
39
for which stages of AD is galantamine (razadyne) indicated
mild to moderate alzheimers
40
what may happen if cholinesterase inhibitors are abruptly d/c'ed in a pt w/ alzheimer's disease
cognition may abruply decline to placebo
41
in AZ patho, abnormall activity of the neurotransmitter _______ leads to sustained action of NMDA receptors, causing neuronal damage
glutamate
42
NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the receptor only under conditions of excessive stimulation, preventing further excitotoxic damage
memantine (namenda)
43
for which stages of AZ is memantine (namenda) FDA-approved
moderate to severe AZ
44
a clinically significant drug-drug interaction w/ memantine involves _____________, which can increase its serum concentration and risk of myoclonus
trimethoprim
45
what is the therapeutic goal of disease-modifying therapies like lecanemab and donanemab in early AD
slow disease progression by clearing beta-amyloid plaque from the brain
46
amyloid-related imaging abnormalities
ARIA
47
what are two types of ARIA associated w/ anti-amyloid monoclonal antibodies
ARIA-E (edema/brain swelling) ARIA-H (hemorrhage/microbleeds)
48
what is a common rxn that can occur w/ the admin of anti-amyloid antibodies such as lecanemab
infusion-related rxns (ie flu-like sx, flushing, rash, BP changes)
49
what must be confirmed prior to initiating therapy w/ an anti-amyloid antibody like lecanemab
presence of amyloid-beta pathology, typically via PET scan or lumbar puncture
50
what neurological assessment tool is used not to dx AZ, but to track the severity and progression of cognitive decline over time
mini-mental status exam (MMSE)
51
common symptom of dementia that involves an exacerbation of symptomatology in the evening
sundowning