B747 Flight Controls Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

How is the stabilizer trim controlled and powered?

A

Controlled: stab trim switches on the control wheel and alternate stab trim switches on the control stand, with normal and alternate electrical channels to two trim control modules, to hyd system 2 and 3 powered trim actuators.

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2
Q

Which provides increased range of stabilizer travel, normal or alternate stab trim switch?

A

Alternate.

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3
Q

What does >STAB GREENBAND EICAS advisory message mean?

A

Nose gear pressure switch disagrees with FMC calculated stab green band. ( the green band is selected by the Modularized Avionics and Warning Electronics Assembley)

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4
Q

When automatic cutout occures with the stab trim cutout switch in AUTO?

A

Cuts out the related hyd system in case of unscheduled stab trim is detected.

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5
Q

What happens if one trim actuator fails?

A

The flight crew commanded trim reduces to half the normal scheduled rate.

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6
Q

What happens when using the alternate stab trim switches with any APs engaged?

A

It will override AP trim and will not cause disengagement.

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7
Q

What features stab trim has to improve handling characteristics? 8/400
And what inhibits it?

A

400: speed stability trim at lower airspeed (Speed Trim System (STS)
Purpose: Provides positive speed stability, especially at low gross weight, aft center of gravity, and high thrust (e.g., takeoff, climb, go-around).
Operation: When the autopilot is disengaged, the flight control computers detect speed deviations from a set target. If the plane accelerates, it trims nose-up; if it slows down, it trims nose-down.
Functionality: It operates behind the scenes, typically by moving the stabilizer at half the speed of the electric trim, helping to maintain V2 + 20. ), mach stability trim at higher. (Counteracts Mach Tuck, an aerodynamic phenomenon where the center of pressure moves aft at high speeds, causing a strong nose-down pitching moment.)
8: stability trim at lower and higher speeds.
Inhibits: activating the stab trim switch or engaging AP

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8
Q

Which elevator is controlled by the control column?

A

Mechanical transfer of input to hyd actuator (left: hyd sys 1 ( when ram air turbine deploys, and sys3 pressure is greater than 1, then it’s 3) and 2, right 3 and 4) on the INBOARD elevator control surface, and its position controls input for the related outboard elev actuator (left powered by hyd sys 1, right 4)

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9
Q

Where are shearouts (elnyíródó betét) in the flight control system?

A
  1. Between inboard and outboard elevators
  2. Each side of the mechanism, which connects the control wheels (for aileron movement)
  3. between upper and lower rudder (if jam occures downstream of the ratio changer) 8. a secondary linkage allows full control of both rudder surfaces in case the primary disconnects.
    OM-B V1 NN Proc Sys Spec: override function: 400 control wheel, 8 control wheel and rudder pedals
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10
Q

Which hyd sys powers the elevator feel and centering mechanism?

A

Hyd sys 2 and 3. The force increases with speed. If both system fails, mechanical springs provide feel force, which is no longer a function of airspeed.

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11
Q

8: What does the elevator feel shift function do?

A

It provides increased feel force as the airplane approaches stall if the flaps are not up.

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12
Q

8: What does the Pitch Augmentation Control System do?

A

(It does not move the control column)
Nose-down elevator
1. High aoa sensed by the redundant vane
2. Counteract spoiler induced pitch up in case of maneuver load alleviation (csökkentés)
3. Tail strike protection
Nose up
1. When flaps are 5, 10 or 20
2. Prior to and during landing flare

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13
Q

400 What does the aileron lockout system do?

A

It locks the outboard aileron in the neutral position above 238 kts.

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14
Q

Which spoilers function as flight spoilers (assists ailerons)?

A

400: All, except inboard. (total of 2 inboard, 4 outboard on each wing)
8: all

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15
Q

How do the ailerons operate if one control wheel jams?

A

The other wheel can move independently, because there is an override mechanism between the two. In this case
400: only app. half of the spoilers assist the ailerons on the free wheel side
8: roll control via the both outboard ailerons and spoilers plus the inboard aileron of the free wheel.

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16
Q

How does aileron trim operate?

A

A feel and trim mechanism reposition the neutral point. It will not disengage AP.

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17
Q

8 How are the ailerons controlled and powered?

A

Inboard: mechanically controlled, outboard electonically, both hidraulically powered. (12,13,24,43)

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18
Q

8 When are the outboard ailerons commanded to the neutral position?

A

Above app. 258 kts/.53M

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19
Q

8 How can the ailerons be deflected? (When not in turn.)

A

Inboard: down F10 and more, in this case upward deflection is limited
Otboard: down for improve takeoff performance and reduce noise when F10 or 20. It is removed, when aoa is beyond stick shaker

20
Q

How do the rudders operate? Chain of operation.

A

Rudder input - mechanical transfer- 1 feel and trim (8 centering also) mechanism - 2 ratio changers - upper and lower hydraulic actuator

21
Q

What happens if a rudder ratio changer fails?

A

The ratio will not change with airspeed. Result: excessive rudder deflection (high speed), not enough rudder (low speed). Reduced xw capability for manual and autoland.

22
Q

What do yaw dumpers do?

A

Use rudder surfaces to improve lateral and directional stability (prevent dutch roll) and provide turn coordination. Powered by hyd sys 2 and 3. IRS is needed for the operation.

23
Q

8 Why is the lower rudder double hinged with a mechanically slaves rubber tab (which has different thermal characteristic)?

A

To increase rudder authority, with increased rudder trim adjustments.

24
Q
  1. What happens if you push the Rudder Trim Center switch a second time?
A

Cancel rudder trim centering.

25
8 What does the wheel to rudder cross-tie do?
Deflects rudder through the yaw dumpers to help maintain an optimal sideslip angle. Inhibited with F25 and 30. (Normally the wheel does not control the rudder. This function is to assist in case of engine failure)
26
What does the rudder trim selector moves?
The rudder pedal neutral position via the rudder feel and trim mechanism.
27
When are the control wheel trim switches inhibited?
When multiple APs are engaged.
28
Which spoiler functions as flight spoliers, ground spoilers, turn assist?
400: inflight sb: 4 inboard (2 inboard mid-travel, 2 middle full), on ground all, 8: in flight: 2 inboard and 2 middle partially, (above 25000 feet, if hyd sys 2 lost: panels 1 and 12 is also used, if hyd sys 3, 2 and 11. They stay below 25000 when extended, but can not be extended) on the ground: all 6 full
29
8 what additional function do the speedbreaks have?
1. Help to maintain proper approach and landing pitch attitude, when landing flaps extended, and speed above Vref+10, depends on gross weight. If not available from FMC, the deflection will be max, buffet may occure. 2. Maneuver load alleviation 3. Yaw assist: takeoff roll, above 100kts, large rudder input ( engine failure), momentarily, to counteract yaw
30
Which spoiler’s position is indicated on EICAS?
400: left wing: 4th from inbound (inflight, ground spoiler, speedbreak), right wing: outboard most (only inflight and ground spoiler, that’s why the indication for speedbreak is only on the left side on EICAS) 8: ?
31
When do the speedbreaks operate automatically?
ARMED: thrust lever 1 and 3 near idle and the main gears touch down DN: 1, 3 near idle, reverse thrust levers 2 and 4 idle detent. From UP to DN: 1 and 3 thrust levers advance. For rejected landing:
32
What does SPEEDBRAKE AUTO EICAS message indicate?
Loss of automatic ground spoiler function, in flight: if in ARM, it may extend inadvertently.
33
What does a FCU (flap control unit) does? How many are there?
3. Sequence, monitor, indicate flaps and flap positions, provide TE flap asymmetry, disagree (8: skew) and uncommanded motion protection in primary and secondary modes. Flap load relief only in primary.
34
How are the flaps operated in primary mode?
Inboard, midspen, outboard LE: pneumatically, TE hydraulically , inboard hyd sys 1, outboard hyd sys 4.
35
How flap load relief operates?
400: if flap limit speeds are exceeded with F25 or F30, it retracts the flaps to 20 or 25. 8: 30 ➡️ 25, if >186, 25,30 ➡️ 20, if >211, 20, 25, 30 ➡️ 10, if >236. At minus 5, they go back.
36
How are the flaps operated in secondary mode?
With electric motors. In the inboard or midspan LE flap group: both groups switch to secondary. In any other: only the failed (symmetrically, on both wings) switch, the others remain hydraulically powered.
37
Does alternate flap control uses FCUs?
No, bypasses. the flap lever is inoperative.
38
How are the flaps sequenced in primary, secondary and alternate modes?
400: F1: inboard, midspan LE extend, F5 outboard LE extends, TE extends 8: F1: all LE extend, F5 TE extends. Primary, secondary mode: the same, alternate mode: all at the same time (TE max 25), retraction: first TE, then LE
39
When is an amber X indicated on the left TE expanded indication, with left TE operational?
If the standby AC bus is the only powered AC bus (the left TE sensors are not powered)
40
How many flap drive does the LE have?
4 (2 for the midspan section).
41
Which modes doest the flap drive incorporates?
Primary an secondary
42
Why does the inboard and midspan LE (400) plus one panel of outboard (8) indication reflect flaps in transit during engine reverse operation?
Because during engine reverse thrust operation automatic retraction of the affected LE flaps occure.
43
What does FLAPS CONTROL EICAS mesage mean?
All FCUs inoperative or Alt Flap Arm switch in ALTN
44
What does FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message mean?
1. One or more flap groups have failed to drive in secondary mode. 2. Asymmetry condition detected 3. 8: skew detected 4. 8: LE fault inditation is detected
45
What does the STAB TRIM 2, 3 EICAS message mean?
1. Automatic cutout of hyd power 2. Stab Trim Cutout switch in cutout 3. trim is commanded and the actuator does not move