1
Q
Which of the following characteristics apply to bright field microscopy?
- Visible light source 2. Electron stream 3. Focusing by glass lenses 4. Focusing by magnets
- 200 nm resolution
- 0.5 nm resolution 7. 10 nm resolution 8. Used for viewing Gram stains 9. Used for diagnosing syphilis 10. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis
- Dark-field stop 12. Annular diaphragm 13. Phase-shifting element 14. Exciter filter 15. Barrier filter
- Prisms split and recombine light 17. 3-D view
A
The following apply to bright field microscopy:
- visible light source
- focusing by glass lenses
- 200 nm resolution
- used for viewing gram stains
2
Q
which of the following characteristics apply to dark field microscopy?
- Visible light source 2. Electron stream 3. Focusing by glass lenses 4. Focusing by magnets
- 200 nm resolution
- 0.5 nm resolution 7. 10 nm resolution 8. Used for viewing Gram stains 9. Used for diagnosing syphilis 10. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis
- Dark-field stop 12. Annular diaphragm 13. Phase-shifting element 14. Exciter filter 15. Barrier filter
- Prisms split and recombine light 17. 3-D view
A
The following apply to dark field microscopy
- visible light source
- focusing by glass lenses
- 200 nm resolution
- used for diagnosing syphilis
- dark field stop
3
Q
Which of the following characteristics apply to phase contrast microscopy?
- Visible light source 2. Electron stream 3. Focusing by glass lenses 4. Focusing by magnets
- 200 nm resolution
- 0.5 nm resolution 7. 10 nm resolution 8. Used for viewing Gram stains 9. Used for diagnosing syphilis 10. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis
- Dark-field stop 12. Annular diaphragm 13. Phase-shifting element 14. Exciter filter 15. Barrier filter
- Prisms split and recombine light 17. 3-D view
A
the following apply to phase contrast microscopy:
- visible light source
- focusing by glass lenses
- 200 nm resolution
- annular diaphragm
- phase shifting element
4
Q
which of the following characteristics apply to differential interference contrast microscopy?
- Visible light source 2. Electron stream 3. Focusing by glass lenses 4. Focusing by magnets
- 200 nm resolution
- 0.5 nm resolution 7. 10 nm resolution 8. Used for viewing Gram stains 9. Used for diagnosing syphilis 10. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis
- Dark-field stop 12. Annular diaphragm 13. Phase-shifting element 14. Exciter filter 15. Barrier filter
- Prisms split and recombine light 17. 3-D view
A
The following apply to differential interference contrast microscopy:
- visible light source
- focusing by glass lenses
- 200 nm resolution
- prisms split and recombine light
- 3-D view
5
Q
Which of the following characteristics apply to scanning electron microscopy?
- Visible light source 2. Electron stream 3. Focusing by glass lenses 4. Focusing by magnets
- 200 nm resolution
- 0.5 nm resolution 7. 10 nm resolution 8. Used for viewing Gram stains 9. Used for diagnosing syphilis 10. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis
- Dark-field stop 12. Annular diaphragm 13. Phase-shifting element 14. Exciter filter 15. Barrier filter
- Prisms split and recombine light 17. 3-D view
A
The following apply to scanning electron microscopy:
- electron stream
- focusing by magnets
- 10nm resolution
- 3-D view
6
Q
Do bright field microscopes use an electron stream?
A
no
7
Q
do bright field microscopes focus by magnets?
A
no
8
Q
Do bright field microscopes use a visible light source?
A
yes
9
Q
Do bright field microscopes focus using glass lenses?
A
yes
10
Q
do bright field microscopes have a 200 nm resolution?
A
yes
11
Q
do bright field microscopes have a .5 nm resolution?
A
no
12
Q
Are bright field microscopes used for viewing gram stains?
A
yes
13
Q
Do bright field microscopes allow for rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A
no
14
Q
Do bright field microscopes have a phase shifting element?
A
no
15
Q
Do dark field microscopes use a visible light source?
A
yes
16
Q
Do dark field microscopes use an electron stream?
A
no
17
Q
do dark field microscopes focus using glass lenses?
A
yes
18
Q
Do dark field microscopes focus by magnets?
A
no
19
Q
Do dark field microscopes use a 200 nm, .5 nm, or 10 nm resolution?
A
200 nm resolution
20
Q
Are dark field microscopes used to diagnose syphilis?
A
yes
21
Q
Do dark field microscopes use a dark field stop?
A
yes
22
Q
Do dark field microscopes use an annular diaphragm?
A
no
23
Q
Do phase contrast microscopes use a visible light source?
A
yes
24
Q
Do phase contrast microscopes focus using glass lenses?
A
yes
25
Do phase contrast microscopes have a 200 or 10 nm resolution?
200 nm resolution
26
Are phase contrast microscopes used for viewing gram stains?
no
27
Are phase contrast microscopes used for diagnosing syphilis?
no
28
Do phase contrast microscopes have an annular diaphragm?
yes
29
Do phase contrast microscopes have a phase shifting element?
yes
30
Do differential interference contrast microscopes use a visible light source?
yes
31
Do differential interference contrast microscopes use an electron stream?
no
32
Do differential interference contrast microscopes focus using glass lenses?
yes
33
Do differential interference contrast microscopes focus using magnets?
no
34
Do differential interference contrast microscopes have a 200 or 0.5 nm resolution?
200 nm resolution
35
Are differential interference contrast microscopes used for diagnosing syphilis?
no
36
Do differential interference contrast microscopes have an annular diaphragm?
no
37
Do differential interference contrast microscopes use prisms to split and recombine light?
yes
38
Do differential interference contrast microscopes have a 3D view?
yes
39
Do scanning electron microscopes use a visible light source?
no
40
Do scanning electron microscopes use an electron stream?
yes
41
Do scanning electron microscopes focus using glass lenses?
no
42
Do scanning electron microscopes use magnets to focus?
yes
43
Do scanning electron microscopes have a 0.5, 10, or 200 nm resolution?
10 nm resolution
44
Are scanning electron microscopes used for diagnosing syphilis?
no
45
Do scanning electron microscopes have an annular diaphragm?
no
46
Do scanning electron microscopes use prisms to split and recombine light?
no
47
Do scanning electron microscopes have a 3D view?
yes
48
Living organisms are classified into groups for purposes of identification and/or to show relationships. Classification schemes which are based on common origins are termed _________
Both natural and phylogenetic are correct
49
The classification scheme proposed by R. H. Whittaker in 1969 places living organisms into five Kingdoms based upon cell type, multi cellularity, and mode of nutrition. This scheme is thus considered ___________
artificial
50
The classification scheme proposed by Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is based upon cell wall chemistry, and is thus considered _____________
artificial
51
What does phylogenetic mean?
Relating to or based on evolutionary development or history; based on natural evolutionary relationships
52
What shape is staph?
| for example coccus, bacillus, diplococcus, etc
coccus
53
What shape is tetanus?
| for example coccus, bacillus, diplococcus, etc
bacillus
54
What shape is gonorrhea?
| for example coccus, bacillus, diplococcus, etc
diplococcus
55
What shape is Corynebacterium?
| for example coccus, bacillus, diplococcus, etc
palisaide (picket fence)
56
What shape is Lyme disease?
| for example coccus, bacillus, diplococcus, etc
spirochete
57
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Staph - coccus
b. tetanus- bacillus
c. gonorrhea- diplococcus
d. Corynebacterium- spirochete
e. lyme disease- spirochete
d. Corynebacterium- spirochete
58
Which of the following best describes a slime layer?
a. extracellular
b. extracellular, nonliving, outermost layer, very distinct
c. nonliving
d. extracellular, nonliving, outermost layer, very irregular
e. nonliving, outermost layer, very irregular
d. extracellular, nonliving, outermost layer, very irregular
59
When examining a colony of bacteria, it is easy to tell which have capsules since by looking at the colony you can see ________
the colony has a mucoid texture
60
Which of the following characteristics best describes a cell wall?
a. extracellular, small part of cell
b. extracellular, nonliving, big part of cell
c. nonliving, small part of cell
d. extracellular, living, big part of cell
e. nonliving, integral part of cell, big part of cell
e. nonliving, integral part of cell, big part of cell
61
When examining a colony of bacteria, it is easy to tell which have capsules since by looking at the colony you can see
a. a clear area around the purple stained organism
b. a blue are around the purple stained organism
c. the colony has a mucoid texture
d. the colony has a shiny surface
e. a black area around the organism which is clear
c. the colony has a mucoid texture
62
Is the cell wall extracellular?
no
63
Is the cell wall a small part of the cell?
no
64
Is the cell wall non living?
yes
65
Is the cell wall a big part of the cell?
yes
66
Is the cell wall living?
no
67
All of the following statements regarding cell walls are true EXCEPT
a. lysine is found in cell walls of Gram-positive but not Gram-negative bacteria
b. teichoic acids are found in cell walls of Gram-positive but not Gram-negative bacteria
c. periplasmic spaces are always found in Gram-negative but not all Gram-positive cells
d. murein is present in higher concentration in Gram-negative cells
e. porins are found in Gram-negative but not Gram-positive cells
d. murein is present in higher concentration in Gram-negative cells
68
All of the following statements regarding cell membranes are true EXCEPT
a. they are the first living part of the cell
b. they are composed of phospholipoproteins
c. the fatty acids are the hydrophilic portions of the phospholipids
d. the proteins include enzymes that function in semipermeability
e. the phospholipids form a bilayer with the hydrophobic portion inside the bilayer
c. the fatty acids are the hydrophilic portions of the phospholipids
69
Is lysine found in the cell walls of G+ or G- bacteria? Or is it found in all bacteria regardless of gram staining?
G+
70
Are teichoic acids found in cell walls of G+ or G- bacteria? Or is it found in all bacteria regardless of gram staining?
G+
71
T or F:
| periplasmic spaces are always found in Gram-negative but not all Gram-positive cells
True
72
Is murein present in a higher concentration in G- cells?
no
73
Are porins found in G+ or G- bacteria? Or is it found in all bacteria regardless of gram staining?
G-
74
What is the first living part of the cell?
the cell membrane
75
What is the cell membrane composed of?
phospho-lipo-proteins
76
In the cell membrane, are the fatty acids the hydrophillic portion of the phospholipid?
no
77
T or F:
| In the cell membrane, the proteins include enzymes that function in semipermeability
true
78
Is the hydrophobic portion of the cell membrane inside or outside the bilayer?
it is inside the bilayer
79
What structure is important i adherence of bacteria to surfaces?
fimbriae
80
Which bacterial structures are resistant to adverse conditions but are common in the genera bacillus and clostridium?
endospores
81
In lab you want to culture a mushroom you found growing wild attached to a rotting log in the woods. You want to duplicate the mushroom's natural medium. You would thus try to make your own medium that is ______________ (multiple descriptors may be used)
inanimate
complex
non synthetic
82
Your friend is sick. You determine that the infection is caused by a hypotroph. You must grow the organism to prove it is causing the disease state. You choose a medium that is ______________ (multiple descriptors may be used)
animate
| complex
83
These bacterial structures are resistant to adverse conditions but are common in the genera Bacillus and Clostridium.
a. capsules
b. endospore
c. pili
d. plasmids
e. fimbriae
b. endospore
84
In lab you want to culture a mushroom you found growing wild attached to a rotting log in the woods. You want to duplicate the mushroom's natural medium. You would thus try to make your own medium that is
a. inanimate, synthetic
b. inanimate, complex
c. inanimate, nonsynthetic
d. animate, sterile
e. both b and c are correct
e. both b and c are correct:
inanimate, complex
inanimate, nonsynthetic
85
Your friend is sick. You determine that the infection is caused by a hypotroph. You must grow the organism to prove it is causing the disease state. You choose a medium that is
a. inanimate, synthetic
b. inanimate, complex
c. animate, complex
d. animate, synthetic
e. both c and d are correct
c. animate, complex
86
You prepare a medium for an unusual plant you isolated from a pond in your back yard. This medium contains 20 grams of sucrose, 2 grams of potassium nitrate, and 3 grams of the dried mud you found at the bottom of the pond. This medium is considered
a. inanimate, synthetic
b. inanimate, nonsynthetic
c. animate, complex
d. animate, synthetic
e. both c and d are correct
b. inanimate, nonsynthetic
87
You have a Strep sore throat. You use a medium containing 5% sheep blood to grow out the organism for antibiotic testing. The medium containing the sheep's blood is considered
a. inanimate, synthetic
b. inanimate, complex
c. an isolation medium
d. a differentiation medium
e. b, c and d are correct
E. b, c and d are correct:
inanimate, complex
an isolation medium
a differentiation medium
88
describe the medium you would use to grow out a hypotroph
animate, complex
89
what causes the color change on mannitol salt agar?
Staphylococci ferment the mannitol to produce acid and turn the phenol red yellow
90
What organism is best used on mannitol salt agar?
Staphylococci aureus
91
What type of medium is mannitol salt agar?
differential
92
On Mannitol Salt agar, Staphylococci ferment the mannitol to produce acid and turn the phenol red yellow. This specific reaction allows us to classify this medium as
a. selective
b. differential
c. an isolation medium
d. both an isolation and a differentiation medium
e. none of the above are correct
b. differential
93
Is Eosin Methylene Agar a selective medium?
yes
94
is Eosin Methylene Agar a differential medium?
yes
95
is Eosin Methylene Agar an isolation medium?
yes
96
in Eosin Methylene Agar do the dyes inhibit G- bacteria?
no
97
. Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning liquefiable solid media?
a. agar is used to make the media solid
b. agar, once solidified, is remelted by heating to 500C.
c. agar solidifies at about 500C.
d. an example is media containing 5% sheep blood.
e. only a, b and c are correct
a. agar is used to make the media solid
98
This term is used to identify bacteria that grow optimally at temperatures between 45 to 800C.
thermophiles
99
These bacteria grow best in the absence of oxygen but are not necessarily killed in the presence of it
anaerobe
100
agar once solidified is remelted by heating to this temperture
100 degrees C
101
Does agar solidify at about 500 degrees C?
no
102
Is media containing 5% sheep blood an example of liquifiable solid media?
no
103
Do aerobes grow best in the absence of oxygen but are not necessarily killed in the presence of it?
no, but anaerobes do
104
Which of the following correctly describes total volume as a means of enumeration?
a. it is a cultural, direct method which counts only living cells.
b. it is a cultural, direct method which counts both living and dead cells.
c. it is a noncultural, direct method which counts only dead cells
d. it is a noncultural, direct method which counts only living cells
e. it is a noncultural, indirect method
e. it is a noncultural, indirect method
105
When Serratia marcescens colonies turn from pink at 250 C to white at 350 C, and then revert back to pink again at 250 C, this is known as a
a. morphological, phenotypic change
b. cultural, genotypic change
c. morphological, genotypic change
d. cultural, phenotypic change
e. Physiological, genotypic change
d. cultural, phenotypic change
106
Is total volume as a means of enumeration a cultural or noncultural method?
non cultural
107
is total volume as a means of enumeration a direct or indirect method?
indirect
108
What bacteria changes the color of its colonies depending on the temperature?
Serratia marcescens
109
Is the color change of a colony at a certain temperature a phenotypic or genotypic change?
phenotypic
110
What is bacterial transformation?
When a bacterium picks up pieces of bacterial DNA from the surrounding medium
111
With bacteria, this mating type contains a bacterial genome plus a fertility that is integrated into the genome
Hfr
112
This process is not considered genetic recombination but actually a phenotypic variation since bacterial DNA is not causing the change in characteristic
lysogenic conversion
113
. When a bacterium picks up pieces of bacterial DNA from the surrounding medium.
a. transformation
b. transduction
c. conjugation
d. sexual reproduction
e. phenotypic variation
a. transformation
114
With bacteria, this mating type contains a bacterial genome plus a fertility that is integrated into the genome.
a. F-
b. F+
c. Hfr
d. both a and b are correct
e. both b and c are correct
c. Hfr
115
This process is not considered genetic recombination but actually a phenotypic variation since bacterial DNA is not causing the change in characteristic
a. transformation
b. transduction
c. conjugation
d. lysogenic conversion
e. sexual reproduction
lysogenic conversion
116
Staphylococci and /streptococci are classified according to Bergey into
this division _______________
Firmicutes
117
```
This organism (genus and species) avoids being phagocytized by
white blood cells since it possesses a capsule containing hyaluronic acid. _______________
```
Streptococcus pyogenes
118
True or False? The bacterial cell wall is a rigid structure that helps
prevent plasmolysis in environments with low osmotic pressures
False
119
The chemical in the peptidoglycan backbone that is unique to
prokaryotic cells is? _______________
n-acetyl muramaic acid
120
This structure is a hollow tube that forms a bridge between bacteria
during conjugation. _______________
Pili
121
When cells are infected with rabies virus, diagnostic evidence is
provided by examining the cells for the cytopathic effects known as? ________________
negri (inclusion) bodies
122
True or False? To quantify Hepatitis B viruses for vaccination, the
virus can be enumerated using a plaguing technique on tissue culture
False
123
To grow bacteria, the environment is usually
(hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic) compared to the inside of the
bacteria in tonicity? ________________
hypotonic
124
True or False? Use of a coulter counter provides and indirect method
for enumeration of both living and dead bacteria in a sample
False
125
Bacteria often vary in characteristics. If the variation is temporary,
it is described as being this kind of variation? ________________
Phenotypic
126
. True or False? A log phase culture of a bacillus which is normally
long would most likely exhibit cells which were almost spherical
in shape
False
127
Explain how the modifications used for phase contrast microscopy actually increase contrast compared to a bright field microscope
phase-shifting element focuses (speeds up or slows down) direct rays but not incident rays. See as difference in brightness
128
Candida albicans, a yeast, and Bacillus subtilis, a bacterium, both stain Gram-positively.
Is this due to similarities in chemistry or to some other phenomenon? Explain
not chemistry since different kingdoms and thus different cell wall chemistry. Due to permeation, since both yeasts and bacteria have thick cell walls
129
Escherichia coli can produce the enzyme -galactosidase in the presence of lactose. Is this a genotypic or phenotypic change. Explain
phenotypic since temporary. Doesn't produce enzyme if lactose is not present
130
You have a glass of milk which you feel is soured. So you want to count the bacteria in it. There are a total of 300 ml of milk. Your friend tells you that it was already estimated that the milk sample had a total of 60,000 bacteria in it, but he wants you to verify this count. Describe the exact procedure you would use to verify this count by using a colony count plating method
take 1 ml, spread on plate and count. since between 25-250 colonies can count.
60,000 bacteria/300 ml = 200 bacteria/ml
131
Define and describe importance :
| transducing phage
a bacteriophage containing host DNA
132
Define and describe importance :
| resistancy transfer factor
RTF are plasmids transferred during conjugation. Contain information for resistance to antibiotics.
e.g. drug resistance in Gram negative rods
133
Define and describe importance :
| episome
episomes are plasmids integrated with the bacterial chromosome. e.g. fertility factors in Hfr mating types
134
Define and describe importance :
| eukaryotic sexual reprduction
eukaryotic sexual reproduction involves alternation between meiosis and fertilization and
between diploid and haploid chromosome numbers
135
Define and describe importance :
| resistance mutation
Resistance mutation is a genotypic variation. e.g. allowing antibiotic resistance. Rare. 1/billion
e.g. Staphylococcus becomes resistant to Penicillin
136
T or F:
DNA has a diameter of about 1 nm. This is well within the range of resolution of
the light microscope
False
137
T or F:
| Increasing the numerical aperture increases the resolution of a microscope
True
138
T or F:
The process of discovering and recording the traits of organisms so that they may be placed in an overall taxonomic scheme is identification
True
139
T or F
The third step of the Gram stain partially dissolves the cell wall of Gram-negative organisms, allowing the primary dye to be easily removed
True
140
T or F
| A spheroplast is what remains following exposure of a Gram-negative cell to penicillin
True
141
T or F
| A mixed culture contains microbes of known identity and microbes of uncertain identity
False
142
T or F
In the lag phase is relatively flat period on the growth curve because the rate of cell death is the same as the rate of multiplication
False
Microbiology Exam 1
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