1
Q
Polysaccharide capsule
A
S. pneumoniae, K. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis
2
Q
d-glutamate capsule
A
bacillus anthracis
3
Q
hyaluronic capsule
A
pasteurella multocida - animal bite wound
4
Q
polyribosyl ribitol phosphate
A
h. influenzae
5
Q
most common serotype in h. influenzae
A
serotype b
6
Q
p. aeruginosa
A
alginate
7
Q
stain for capsule
A
hiss, anthony’s, tyler, india ink
8
Q
culture media to enhance babes ernst
A
PAI’s slant, loeffler’s serum
9
Q
stain for inclusion bodies
A
loeffler’s methylene blue, albert, neisseria
10
Q
halberstaedter prowazek is glycogen containing inclusion bodies that can be seen in
A
chlamydia trachomatis
11
Q
stains for halberstaedter prowazek
A
gimenez, machiavello, castaneda
12
Q
stain for y. pestis
A
wayson and methylene blue
13
Q
corkscrew motility can be noted in what organisms
A
spiral organisms
14
Q
capnophilic organisms
A
neisseria,strep, helicobacter, haemophilus, hasek
15
Q
obligate anaerobe organisms
A
prevotella, porphyromonas, fusobacterium
16
Q
this removes O2 in gaspak jar
A
palladium catalysts
17
Q
indicators in gaspak jar
A
resazurin and methylene blue
18
Q
microaerophilic organisms
A
campylobacter, treponema, borrelia, helicobacter
19
Q
can tolerate cold enrichment
A
y. enterolitica and L. monocytogenes
20
Q
blood bag contaminants at 4 deg C
A
enterolitica, liquefasciens, fluorescens
21
Q
blood bag contaminants at RT
A
enterolytica, b. cereus, cutibacterium acnes
22
Q
common contaminants of blood
A
epidermidis, strep, p. acnes and bacillus except anthracis
23
Q
blood-broth ratio is
A
1;10
24
Q
media used in blood
A
TSB, BHI and brucella broth
25
anticoagulant used in blood
0.025 percent sps
26
selective differential media used for vibrios
TCBS
27
COLOR of sucrose fermenter
yellow colonies
28
COLOR of non-sucrose fermenters
green colonies
29
enrichment media for vibrios
alkaline peptone water
30
anticoagulant used in bacteriology
0.025 percent sps-sodium polyanethol sulfonate
31
addition of this will neutralize effect of SPS
1 PERCENT gelatin
32
0.025 percent of SPS is inhibitory to what organisms
neisseria, anaerobius, vaginalis and monilliforms
33
anticoagulant NOT USED for culture
EDTA
34
HEPARIN is not recommended because it
inhibits other gram negative organisms and also yeast
35
heparin used for
VIRAL culture
36
common agents of bacteremia
CONS, e. coli, aureus, aeruginosa, fragilis
37
must be processed in BSC
sputum
38
if specimen is non-sterile, this should be done
digestion and decontamination
39
agents of pneumonia
k. pneumoniae, aureus and aeruginosa in those with cystic fibrosis
40
agents of ventilator associated pneumonia
s. pneumoniae, influenzae, aureus, aeruginosa, klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia
41
bartlett's classification is used to differentiate
sputum and saliva
42
sputum should have
less than 10 ECS and more than 25 PMNs
43
sputum is collected thru
deep cough collection = 5-10 mL
44
this will indicate poor collection
presence of alveolar macrophage and columnar cells
45
gold standard in m. tuberculosis
n-acetyl-l-cysteine for digestion and NaOH for decontamination
46
other reagents used in sputum collection
5 percent oxalic acid, Z-TSP, 4 percent NaOH, sputolysin
47
these reagents are used for pseudomonas
5 percent oxalic acid, Z-TSP
48
what biosafety level is M. tuberculosis
3, sputum pathogen and is acquired thru inhalation
49
swab is used for
aerobic bacteria
50
major throat pathogen
s. pyogenes causes pharyngitis, scarlet fever and erysipelas
51
major throat flora and its test
viridians strep. ALPHA HEMOLYTIC, BILE SOLUBLE NEGATIVE, SBE, OPTOCHIN RESISTANT, NEUFELD NEGATIVE
52
nasopharyngeal swab is for
carrier state of b. pertussis-whooping cough, n. meningitidis and influenzae, and sars-cov2 and MRSA
53
materials used in swabbing
dacron, rayon, calcium alginate
54
this material is toxic to neisseria
cotton
55
this material is toxic to viruses
calcium alginate
56
storage temp of CSF
37 deg
57
transport temp of CSF
RT
58
CSF is cultured on
BAP and CAP
59
usual pathogens in CSF
influenzae, meningitidis, s. pneumoniae, monocytogenes, agalactiae
60
alternative specimen in stool
rectal swab
61
common pathogens in stool
jejuni, shigella, salmonella, e. coli and its serotypes, vibrio and enterolytica
62
media used in stool
SSA, EMB AND MCconkey
63
most common cause of UTI
e. coli
64
most common cause of UTI in young females
saphrophyticus
65
urine colony count considered to be significant and is indicative of UTI
more than 100,000
66
dilution factor is 1000 using ---- loop
1 uL
67
dilution factor is 100 using ---- loop
10 uL
68
-------- is the specimen to collect if the patient is intubated/on a ventilator
endotracheal aspirate
69
example of biphasic media
castaneda
70
nutrient agar broth, sabouraud's dextrose agar
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media
b
71
selenite broth, alkaline peptone water, tetrathionate broth, carrot broth
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media
a
72
CAP, BAP
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media
c
73
CTBA, McConkey, lowenstein jensen
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. selective media
d. transport media
c
74
EMB, McConkey, HEA, XLD, TCBS
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. selective media
d. selective differential media
d
75
transgrow, cary blair, stuart
a. biochem test media
b. AST media
c. selective media
d. transport media
d
76
Muellerhinton agar
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. AST media
d. transport media
AST
77
SIM and MIO is an example of what type of media
semi-solid
78
always a pathogen
n. gonorrhea
79
naso or osopharynx and can be a normal flora
n. meningitidis
80
CTBA
cysteine tellurite blood agar, c. diptheriae, potassium tellurite
81
McConkey
enterobacteriacae, crystal violet
82
lowenstein jensen
mycobacterium-malachite green
83
a device that encloses a workspace
BSC
84
this can remove objects larger than 0.3 um
hepa filter
85
system is entirely open, sterilizes air to be exhausted; least effective
a. I
b. II
c. III
a
86
the most common, AKA laminar flow the type that is used in most laboratories, partly open and closed, and sterilizes air that flows over infectious material and air to be exhausted
a. I
b. II
c. III
b
87
exhaust air inside the room
a. IIA
b. IIB
c. III
a
88
exhaust air outside the building
a. IIA
b. IIB
c. III
b
89
this type uses gloves, attached and sealed to the cabinet; entirely closed system, self-contained ventilated system
a. I
b. II
c. III
c
90
poses minimal risk to lab personnel
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
A
91
poses moderate risk to lab personnel, acquired thru ingestion, mucuos membrane and percutaneous exposure, associated with laboratory acquired infections
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
b
92
poses HIGH risk to laboratory personnel, acquired thru inhalation, possible for aerosol transmission
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
c
93
poses EXTREME RISK to laboratory personnel, causes life threatening diseases
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
d
94
practice of standard laboratory techniques
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
a
95
those practice in BSL-1 agents, use of BSC, gowns, gloves and face shield. use of biohazard warning signs, decontaminate all infectious waste
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
b
96
must have sustainable airflow in which air is drawn from clean area of the lab towards contaminated area, use of PPE
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
c
97
lab must be situated in a separate building, use of PPE
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
d
98
poses minimal risk to lab personnel
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
98
b. subtilis, m. gordonae, e. aerogenes
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
a
99
salmonella, shigella, s. aureus, HBV, HIV
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
b
100
agents of systemic mycoses, m. tuberculosis, coxiella burnetti, st. louis encephalitis virus
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
c
101
arenaviruses, maroburg virus
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
d
102
destruction of all forms of microbial life including spores
sterilization
103
principle of autoclave
steam under pressure
104
121 deg celcius 15-30 mins at 15 psi
used/unused media
105
121 deg celcius 30 mins at 15 psi
contaminated microbiological material
106
132 deg celcius at 30-60 mins
infectious material wastes
107
biological indicator of autoclave
geobacillus stearrothermophilus
108
not killed by sterilization
prions
109
target of sterilization
spores
110
thickening thru evaporation
insipissation
111
uses flowing steam and arnold sterilizer
tyndallization
112
prions can cause what neurologic diseases
bovine spongiform encelopathy, mad cow disease and creutzfeldt jacob syndrome
113
can be done at 100 deg for for 30 mins at 3 days
tyndallization
114
can be done at 75-80 deg for 2 hrs at 3 days
inspissation
115
to sterilize media with increased protein
lowenstein jensen, petraganis and ATS
116
biological indicator for oven
bacillus subtilis var niger
117
biological indicator for ionizing radiation/gamma rays
bacillus pumilus
118
biological indicator for cold sterilization - ethylene oxide
bacillus subtilis var globijii
119
to eliminate prions, we can use
extended steam sterilization, add 1 M of sodium hypochlorite or sodium hypochlorite - 2 percent available chlorine
120
how many minutes for HBV AND HIV
HBV= 10 mins
HIV= 2 mins
121
standard disinfectant
phenol
122
best to remove blood spills
10 percent bleach or sodium hypochlorite - zonrox/chlorox
123
CDC recommends ----- dilution for porous surfaces
1;10
124
CDC recommends ----- for surfaces
1;100
125
can be used as substitute for bleach/sodium hypochlorite
vinegar
126
best antiseptic
iodophore
127
tincture of iodine
iodine plus 70 percent alcohol
128
donning
gown, mask, goggles, face shield, gloves
129
to dispose infectious materials, exposure to high temp
incineration techniques
130
precaution applied to all human blood and body fluids that contain visible blood
universal precaution
131
precaution to treat patient's blood and body fluid as potentially infectious
standard precaution
132
doffing
gloves, goggles, gown, mask then do handwashing
133
incubator, water bath, refrigerator, freezer, heating block
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
a
134
autoclave efficiency/spore testing
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
b
135
autoclave temp
a. daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
a
136
GASPAK JAR
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
c
137
centrifuge function/rpm
a. every 6 months
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
a
138
microscopes/weighing balance
a. every 6 months
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual
d
139
overdecolorization will cause
false negative
140
gram positive color
violet
141
gram negative color
red
142
most critical step in gram staining
decolorization
143
this is used for fungi
hucker's modification
144
hucker's modification contains
crystal violet and ammonium oxalate
145
fungi are reported as gram
positive
146
steps in gram staining
V-VIOLET CRYSTAL
I-GRAM'S IODINE
A-ALCOHOL/ACETONE
S-SAFFRANIN
147
steps in acid fast staining
C-carbol fuchsin
A-3 percent acid alcohol
M-malachite green/methylene blue
ziehl neelsen- stem/heat
kinyoun- cold method, tergitol-wetting agent
148
color of acid fast organism
red against blue
149
color of non-acid fast
blue/green
150
size of AFB smear
2x3 cm
151
best method for DSSM
ziehl- direct sputum smear microscopy
152
best method for AF organism in tissues
kinyoun's
153
carried out to determine susceptibility or resistance of organisms to antimicrobial agents
antibiotic susceptibility testing
154
examples of bactericidal
P- penicillin
A- aminoglycosides
V- vancomycin
Q- quinolones
M- metronidazole
155
examples of bacteriostatic
C- chloramphenicol
E- erythromycin
S- streptomycin
T- tetracyclin
156
cell wall inhibitors
beta lactams and glycopeptides
157
examples of beta lactams
P- penicillin
C- carbapenems
C- caphalosporins
158
example of glycopeptides
vancomycin
159
protein synthesis inhibitors
M- macrolides
A- aminoglycosides
T- tetracycline
C- chloramphenicol
160
macrolides
erythromycin
161
aminoglycosides
gentamicin, tobramycine
162
tetracycline
doxycycline
163
beta lactamase inhibitors
tazobactam, sulbactam, clavulanic acid
164
sulfonamides
SXT- trimetophrim sulfamethoxazole
165
drug which can be used as treatment for UTI, inhibits bacterial enzyme
nitrofurantoin
166
inhibition of DNA activity
examples; levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin
quinolones
167
2 methods of AST
dilution method- quantitative
disk diffusion method- qualitative-kirby bauer
168
media used in kirby bauer
MHA
169
pH in kirby bauer
7.2-7.4
170
depth of agar in kirby bauer
4mm
171
inoculum size in in kirby bauer
1.5x10^8 CFU/mL
172
manner of streaking in kirby bauer
overlap using sterile cotton swab
173
waiting time in kirby bauer
3-5 mins
174
reference used in in kirby bauer
mac farland- 99.5 mL, 1 percent sulfuric acid, 1.175 percent barium chloride
175
size of filter paper disk in kirby bauer
6mm
176
storage temp for disk in kirby bauer- WORKING SUPPLY
2-8 degC
177
storage temp in kirby bauer- LONG TERM
-20 deg C in a dessicant
178
in kirby bauer incubate at
35-37 degC for 16-18 hrs in ambient air
179
in kirby bauer if plate size is 100 mm, place no more than ---- disks
5
180
in kirby bauer if plate size is 150 mm, place no more than ---- disks
12
181
in kirby bauer distance of disk from center
24 mm
182
in kirby bauer distance between 2 disks
15 mm
183
use --- ---- when measuring zone of inhibition
ruler or caliper
184
in kirby bauer if there is swarming of proteus
IGNORE
185
when using sulfonamides like SXT, if in case there would be 2 concentric zones, measure the
outerzone
186
to light inoculum, very dry and thin agar
false susceptible
187
to heavy inoculum, too much moisture on agar surface, thick agar
false resistant
188
possible results in AST
resistant, intermediate, susceptible
189
this is used for dilution method for fastidious organisms like haemophilus
e-test
190
uses a strip with single antibiotic of decreasing concentrations along its length
e-test
191
positive result in e-test
ellipse of growth inhibition
192
beta-lactamase/cephalosporinase test
CEFINASE DISK
NITROCEFIN
POSITIVE- pink to red
193
presence of --- in the cell wall which is encoded by ------
PBP2A, mec A gene
194
MRSA detection
1. CHROM agar
2. CEFOXITIN disk test - 30 ug
3. OXACILIN screen agar
4. Molecular- PCR
195
use of chrom agar, positive result
a. rose/mauvy colony color
b. pink to red
c. ellipse growth of inhibition
d. yellow colonies
a
196
use of chrom agar, negative result
a. rose/mauvy colony color
b. colorless/blue
c. ellipse growth of inhibition
d. yellow colonies
b
197
in oxacillin screen agar test, positive means
resistant
198
considered as the GOLD standard because it detects Mec A gene
Molecular-PCR
199
OXACILLIN uses
MHA with 6 oxacillin with 4 percent NaCl
200
this test is to detect inducible clindamycin resistance among strains of S. aureus
d-test
201
this gene activate resistance to clindamycin
erm gene
202
d-test uses what media
MHA
203
d-test uses
15 ug of erythromycin and 2 ug of clindamycin
204
antibiotics in d-test are positioned -----
15 mm apart
205
positive result in d-test
blunting or flattening of clindamycin zone to produce d-pattern
206
positive in D-test will be reported as
clindamycin resistant
207
negative in d-test will be reported as
clindamycin sensitive
208
penicillin resistance is a test for
s. pneumoniae
209
for penicillin resistance, we uses
MHA with sheep's blood and 1 ug oxacillin disk
210
penicillin resistance, greater than 20 mm
a. resistant
b. sensitive
b
211
penicillin resistance, less than 20 mm
a. resistant
b. sensitive
a
212
screening test for detection to produce carbapenemase
modified hodge test
213
positive result in modified hodge test
clover leaf like pattern of zone of inhibition
214
improve TAT, uses data base, numeric codes for identification - software
semi-automated methods for bacterial ID
215
uses microtubes with dehydrated substrates - plastic couples and cards
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF
a
216
one step inoculation, no need to add reagent and oil
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF
b
217
which of the following are automated system
I. MADI-TOF
II. BBL CRYSTAL ID
III. VITEK
IV. API
a. I, II, III
b. III AND IV
c. I AND IV
d. I AND III
d
218
automation program for bacterial identification and susceptibility
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF
c
219
can do what VITEK can do but faster
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF
d
220
s. pneumoniae
alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive/susceptible
221
this makes beta lactamase antibiotics ineffective
CARBAPENEMASE
222
matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization time of flight mass spectrometry
MALDI-TOF
223
autoclaving, tyndallization, inspissation
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat
d
224
oven, incineration, cremation, flaming
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat
a
225
millipore filter, nucleopore filter, HEPA filter, antibiotics
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat
c
226
gamma rays, for those that cannot be filtered
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat
b
227
use of chemical sterilants/biocides- ethylene oxide
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. tyndallization
d. inspissation
a
228
boiling and pasteurization
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. tyndallization
d. inspissation
b
