BASIC RC Flashcards by Marian Katherine Pilar

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?
a. Nasopharynx
b. Larynx
c. Trachea
d. Oropharynx

c. Trachea

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The lymphatic drainage of the nasal cavity primarily occurs through which group of lymph nodes?
a. Submandibular node
b. Retropharyngeal node
c. Parotid node
d. Deep cervical node

d. Deep cervical node (p734 Snell’s)

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Which of the following muscles open the airway of the larynx?
a. Cricothyroid
b. Posterior cricoarytenoid
c. Lateral cricoarytenoid
d. Thyroarytenoid

b. Posterior cricoarytenoid

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What node does the palatine tonsils drain to?
a. Submental node
b. Jugulodigastric node
c. Preauricular node
d. Subclavicular node

b. Jugulodigastric node

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The lymph nodes that receive the drainage of the pharyngeal tonsils
A. Submandibular Nodes
B. Retropharyngeal Nodes
C. Axillary Nodes
D. Pretracheal Nodes

B. Retropharyngeal Nodes

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Which among the following innervates the larynx above the vocal cords?
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. External superior laryngeal nerve
c. Internal superior laryngeal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

c. Internal superior laryngeal nerve

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Which structure forms the anterior boundary of the nasopharynx?
A) Soft palate
B) Hard palate
C) Nasal septum
D) Posterior pharyngeal wall

C) Nasal septum/Choanae

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The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all intrinsic muscles of the larynx EXCEPT:
A) Posterior cricoarytenoid
B) Cricothyroid
C) Lateral cricoarytenoid
D) Thyroarytenoid

B) Cricothyroid

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What is the lymphatic drainage of the larynx below the vocal cords that are mainly directed to
a. Paratracheal nodes
b. Submandibular nodes
c. Jugulodigastric nodes
d. Occipital nodes

a. Paratracheal nodes

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The pharynx is divided into how many anatomical regions
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

b. 3

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Large outside rim of the auricle is called the

Helix

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A smaller curved rim, parallel
and anterior to the helix, is the

Antihelix

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Deep depression within the auricle
that leads into the external meatus.

Concha

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Anterior projection from the external ear anterior to the

Tragus

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Structure of the auricle composed of areolar tissue and fat but no cartilage
A. Helix
B. Antihelix
C. Concha
D. Lobule

D. Lobule

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Approximate length of the External Auditory Meatus
A. 1 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 2.5 cm

D. 2.5 cm

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The EAM is innervated by the following:
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Both A and B
D. None

C. Both A and B

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Conducts sound waves to the middle ear

Tympanic Membrane

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Another name for incus
a. Stirrup
b. Anvil
c. Stapes

b. Anvil

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Connects the middle to nasopharynx

Eustachian/Pharyngotympanic Tube

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Functions of the Bowman’s Glands, except
A. Contain substances such as carbonic anhydrase, MUC5AC, and xenobiotic-metabolizing enzymes
B. Increases secretory output when we cry thus enhances nasal secretions.
C. Contribute to the production of mucus
D. Secrete mucous glycoproteins

B. Increases secretory output when we cry thus enhances nasal secretions.

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The Sustentacular cells function, except
A. Tight junctions between the dendrites of the ORNs and the sustentacular cells form a barrier at the surface of the neuroepithelium between the olfactory mucus and the epithelium.
B. Provide protection to the ORNs by removing toxic substances.
C. Are precursor cells for cilia-containing olfactory epithelium.
D. Aid in removal of odor molecules following their perception

C. Are precursor cells for cilia-containing olfactory epithelium.

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The olfactory bulb lies in the anterior cranial fossa inferior to the
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Sagittal lobe
d. Hippocampus

b. Frontal lobe

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Ophthalmic and maxillary branches of the _________ nerve are present within the nasal cavity and respond to chemical irritants, including ammonia, and are responsible for resulting nasal mucosal edema, mucous secretion, tearing, and sneezing.
a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Olfactory nerve

c. Trigeminal nerve

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Olfactory cilia functions, except A. Masking B. Adaptation or desensitization C. Electrical excitation D. Airflow direction

D. Airflow direction

The tonsillar epithelium contains antigen-presenting cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and lymphoid nodules, which serve to protect its mucosa. The tonsillar lymphoid tissue is also called A. Isolated Lymphoid Follicles B. MALT Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue C. GALT Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue D. Peyer's Patches

B. MALT Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

tonsillar crypts importance except a. inc tonsillar surface area b. provide early exposure of immune system cells to infectious organisms c. enhance mucus passage d. no exception

c. enhance mucus passage

nasal vestibule a. ciliated pseudostratified epithelium b. keratinizing squamous epithelium c. Bipolar spindle cells, columnar sustentacular cells, round basal cells, and serous glands

b. keratinizing squamous epithelium

Respiratory Epithelium A. Keratinizing squamous epithelium B. Bipolar spindle cells, columnar sustentacular cells, round basal cells, and serous glands C. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

C. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

Periodontal tissue histology includes the study of the structure of the gingiva, cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament (PDL). The PDL's main function includes the following, except a. Helps with proprioception b. Attach the tooth to the bone c. Determines the color of the teeth d. NOTA

c. Determines the color of the teeth

Olfactory Epithelium A. Keratinizing squamous epithelium B. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium C. Bipolar spindle cells, columnar sustentacular cells, round basal cells, and serous glands

C. Bipolar spindle cells, columnar sustentacular cells, round basal cells, and serous glands

Which of the following are not present in the paranasal sinus? a. Goblet cells b. Lymphoid tissue c. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar d. Seromucous glands

b. Lymphoid tissue

Which of the following does not characterize the periodontal ligament (PDL)? a. Includes cementoblasts, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and odontoclasts b. Made up of collagen fibers and fibroblasts c. Contains densely packed nerve endings in a lipoprotein structure making it highly sensitive to manipulation d. Contains blood cells, endothelium, and intercellular substance

c. Contains densely packed nerve endings in a lipoprotein structure making it highly sensitive to manipulation

Which of the following is not correct? a. Gram positive and Gram negative microorganisms have the same peptidoglycan cell wall thickness as viewed in electron microscopes. b. The peptidoglycan layer of the gram-negative cell wall is 2 to 3 nm thick and covered with an outer lipid bilayer membrane. c. Gram-positive organisms have a thicker peptidoglycan cell wall, it is a 20 to 80 nm thick polymer. d. All are true

a. Gram positive and Gram negative microorganisms have the same peptidoglycan cell wall thickness as viewed in electron microscopes.

This microorganism is a Gram positive cocci that is catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci in clusters. It can cause inflammatory diseases, including skin infections, pneumonia, endocarditis, septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, abscesses, toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin, and food poisoning (enterotoxin). a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes

a. Staphylococcus aureus

This microorganism is a Gram positive cocci that is encapsulated, lancet-shaped diplococci, most commonly causing otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis, and meningitis. A. Streptococcus agalactiae B.Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus viridans D.Streptococcus pneumoniae

D.Streptococcus pneumoniae

This microorganism is a Gram positive cocci that consists of Strep. mutans and Strep mitis found in the normal flora of the oropharynx commonly cause dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis A. Streptococcus viridans B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A. Streptococcus viridans

This microorganism is a Gram positive club-shaped rod that can cause pseudomembranous pharyngitis, myocarditis, and arrhythmias. A. Bacillus cereus B. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Bacillus anthracis

B. Corynebacterium diphtheria

This microorganism is a gram-positive rod that can be acquired from spores surviving under-cooked or reheated rice. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and watery non-bloody diarrhea. a. Bacillus anthracis b. Bacillus cereus c. Listeria monocytogenes

b. Bacillus cereus

Two groups of Bacteria can be distinguished based on a staining procedure. By this method, cells are exposed to a stain, crystal violet, that binds to peptidoglycan. Cells with an abundance of peptidoglycan retain more of the stain than those that have little. The cells that retain more stain are referred to as a. Gram negative b. Seropositive c. Gram positive

c. Gram positive

These organisms have an outer membrane. Unlike the cytoplasmic membrane, the outer membrane is not composed entirely of phospholipid but also contains polysaccharide and protein components and can be referred to as the lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS). Moreover, it also contain a thicker periplasm, a gel-like matrix between the inner cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane. A. Seropositive B. Gram negative C. Gram positive

B. Gram negative

The epiglottis is a protective structure that prevents food from entering the airway. Given this function, which characteristic best fits for its role. (Choices are non-verbatim) A. Lined entirely with stratified squamous epithelium B. Both pseudostratified ciliated columnar and stratified squamous C. Lined with hyaline cartilage for rigidity D. Lined with transitional epithelium for flexibility

B. Both pseudostratified ciliated columnar and stratified squamous

The outer leaflet of the OM is composed of glycolipids. This is an infamous molecule because it is responsible for the endotoxic shock associated with the septicemia caused by Gram-negative organisms. What is the principal glycoprotein? a. Lipopolysaccharide b. Peptidoglycan c. Phospholipid d. Protein Layer

a. Lipopolysaccharide

This is a distinguishing feature of Gram-negative bacteria; Gram-positive bacteria lack this organelle. A. Outer Membrane B. Inner Membrane C. Peptidoglycan Layer D. Protein Layer

A. Outer Membrane

The outer membrane is a: A. Phospholipid Bilayer B. Lipid Bilayer C. Peptidoglycan Layer D. Protein Layer

B. Lipid Bilayer

Bacteria do not lyse when put into distilled water because they have a rigid exoskeleton. This is made up of repeating units of the disaccharide N-acetyl glucosamine-N-actyl muramic acid, which are cross-linked by pentapeptide side chains. This exoskeleton is called a. Phospholipid b. Lipopolysaccharide c. Peptidoglycan d. Protein Layer

c. Peptidoglycan

The primary mechanism of antibacterial action of the penicillins involves the inhibition of? A. Cell membrane synthesis B. Transglycosylation C. Beta-lactamases D. N-acetylmuramic acid synthesis

B. Transglycosylation

The primary mechanism of antibacterial action of Vancomycin involves the inhibition of? A. Cell membrane synthesis B. Transglycosylation C. Beta-lactamases D. N-acetylmuramic acid synthesis

B. Transglycosylation

The primary mechanism of antibacterial action of the Fosfomycin involves inhibition of? A. Cell membrane synthesis B. Transglycosylation C. Beta-lactamases D. N-acetylmuramic acid synthesis

D. N-acetylmuramic acid synthesis

The primary mechanism of resistance of Gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is? A. Decreased activity of uptake mechanisms B. Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltransferases C. Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit. D. Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring

C. Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit.

Which of the following does not bind to the 50s Ribosomal subunit? a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. clindamycin d. chloramphenicol

a. Tetracycline

Aminoglycosides are bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis. Its bacterial cell wall penetration is partly dependent on oxygen-dependent active transport, thus it has minimal activity against strict anaerobes. In the bacterial cell wall, aminoglycosides interferes with protein synthesis, except; a. Binds to 50s ribosomal subunit b. it causes misreading of the code on the mRNA template c. it inhibits translocation d. it blocks the formation of initial complex

a. Binds to 50s ribosomal subunit

What is the epithelial lining of the vocal cords? (not word for word) a. pseudostratified columnar b. simple columnar c. stratified squamous non-keratinized d. simple squamous

c. stratified squamous non-keratinized

Mechanism of action TRIMETHROPIN-SULFAMETHOXAZOLE a. Disruption of electron transport b. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis c. Binds to DNA Gyrase d. Formation of formaldehyde

b. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

Mechanism of action of Quinolones and Fluoroquinolones a. Forms formaldehyde b. Inhibit folic acid synthesis c. Disrupt electron transport d. Binds to DNA Gyrase

d. Binds to DNA Gyrase

Mechanism of action of Nitrofurantoin and Methenamine salts a. Disrupt electron transport b. Binds to DNA Gyrase c. Forms formaldehyde d. Inhibit folic acid synthesis

c. Forms formaldehyde

Is the type of cartilage and primarily supports the epiglottis a. Hyaline cartilage b. Elastic cartilage c. Fibrocartilage d. Dense connective tissue

b. Elastic cartilage

Is the body of knowledge concerned with the action of chemicals on biologic systems a. Pharmacology b. Pharmacodynamics c. Toxicology d. Pharmacokinetics

a. Pharmacology

The COX enzyme catalyzes the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin. The enzyme has 2 known isoforms, cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits: a. COX-1 b. COX-2 c. Both d. None

c. Both

Which of the following is not true A. COX-1 enzyme regulates many cellular processes, including platelet aggregation, kidney afferent arteriole vasodilation, and gastric mucosa acid protection. B. COX-1 is present in the brain, kidneys, bones, and female reproductive system. C. COX-1 enzyme is an inducible enzyme and increases during inflammatory processes.

C. COX-1 enzyme is an inducible enzyme and increases during inflammatory processes.

Describes as bipolar nerve cells, derived from CNS, interspersed with sustentacular cells and receptors for smell sensations a. Olfactory bulb b. Olfactory Membrane c. Olfactory Cells d. Olfactory Tract

c. Olfactory Cells

Which is not true of cilia of olfaction a. Stimulates olfactory cell or tract b. Reacts to odors c. Projects into mucus d. Coats the inner surface of nasal act

d. Coats the inner surface of nasal act

What occurs when an odorant binds to a receptor protein in the olfactory epithelium?" A) Depolarization of receptor potential to the CNS by olfactory neurons B) Opening of Na⁺ channels C) Activation of G protein D) Influx of adenylyl cyclase D) Influx of adenylyl cyclase

C) Activation of G protein

Binding of an odorant to an olfactory receptor neuron leads to a cascade of events, resulting in the opening of a large number of: A) Na⁺ channels B) K⁺ channels C) Ca²⁺ channels D) Voltage-gated channels

C) Ca²⁺ channels

There are how many primary sensations of smell? a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 10

b. 100

What is the part of the brain that is responsible for olfaction and later evolved to basal brain structure that controls emotion? a. Basal b. Thalamus c. Limbic system d. Hypothalamus

c. Limbic system

What represents a very primitive olfactory system? A. Hypothalamus B. Lateral olfactory area C. Pyriform cortex D. Medial olfactory area

D. Medial olfactory area

30 olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following group of cells? A. Bipolar neurons B. Fibroblasts C. Modified epithelial cells D. Multipolar neurons

A. Bipolar neurons

Olfactory receptors cells transmitted to orbitofrontal Cortex passes to the thalamic nucleus A. Dorsolateral B. Lateral (di ko sure sa 2nd word, sorry) C. Medial D. Ventral posterolateral

C. Medial (Dorsomedial nucleus of the Thalamus)

Olfactory receptor cells bind to odor molecules. A sequence of intercellular events occur and culminate in the entrance of a specific ion to depolarize the olfactory receptor cells. What is this ion? A. Calcium ions B. Sodium ions C. Potassium ions D. Hydrogen ion

B. Sodium ions

Neck lymphatic drainage level 1 a. upper jugular chain of nodes b. submandibular c. both d. none

b. submandibular

Level four neck nodes a. anterior compartment nodes b. inferior to the hyoid nodes c. both d. none

d. none

Level VIII(8) neck nodes A.Paratracheal nodes B. Rotter's nodes C.Both D. None

D. None

True of Level Va neck nodes A.Superior to clavicle nodes B.Inferior to suprasternal notch of upper mediastinum C. Both D. None

A.Superior to clavicle nodes

Posterior Triangle Nodes A. Level V B. Level VII C. Level VII D. Level IV

A. Level V

Paratracheal nodes A. Level V B. Level VII C. Level VIII D. Level IV

B. Level VII

Anterior compartment A. Level V B. Level VI C. Level VIII D. Level IV

B. Level VI

All of the following are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X) except: a. Tensor veli palatini b. Levator veli palatini c. Palatoglossus d. No exception

a. Tensor veli palatini

Palatoglossus a. Retract and elevate b. Depress c. Protrude d. Elevate

a. Retract and elevate

Styloglossus a. Retract and elevate b. Depress c. Protrude d. Elevate

a. Retract and elevate

Genioglossus a. Retract and elevate b. Depress c. Protrude d. Elevate

c. Protrude

Hyoglossus a. Retract and elevate b. Depress c. Protrude d. Elevate

b. Depress

Hardest substance that covers the crown of teeth, externally a. dentin b. enamel c. pulp d. papillae

b. enamel

Part of teeth that projects above the gingival surfaces covered by enamel a. crown b. neck c. root d. body

a. crown

Fills the cavity of teeth, … which contains blood vessels and nerves A. Dentin B. Enamel C. Pulp D. Root

C. Pulp

Constricted area of teeth at the junction of crown and root (choices not in actual order) A. Crown B. Root C. Body D. Neck

D. Neck

Chisel shaped teeth that have a single root, are used for cutting and biting a. Incisors b. Canines c. Premolars d. Molars

a. Incisors

Teeth that consists of a single prominent cone and a single root, are used for tearing a. Incisors b. Canines c. Premolars d. Molars

b. Canines

Number of deciduous (primary teeth) a. 10 b. 12 c. 20 d. 24

c. 20

How many molars per quadrant in permanent teeth? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3

What structure divides the parotid gland into superficial and deep lobes A. Wharton's duct B. Sublingual duct C. Facial nerve D. Spinal accessory nerve

C. Facial nerve

Type of acini in parotid gland A. Serous B. Mucus C. Predominantly serous D. Mixture of serous and mucus

A. Serous

Facial nerve branches along the parotid gland into the following except a. Temporal b. Buccal c. Zygomatic d. Recurrent laryngeal

d. Recurrent laryngeal

Submandibular gland is divided by this muscle into superficial and deep parts a. Stylohyoid muscle b. Sternohyoid muscle c. Mylohyoid muscle d. Omohyoid muscle

c. Mylohyoid muscle

What is the only complete circular element of the respiratory tract? a. Thyroid Cartilage b. Cricoid Cartilage c. Arytenoid Cartilage d. Corniculate Cartilage

b. Cricoid Cartilage

Largest among cartilaginous larynx a. Thyroid Cartilage b. Cricoid Cartilage c. Arytenoid Cartilage d. Corniculate Cartilage

a. Thyroid Cartilage

Also known as “Adam’s Apple” a. Thyroid Cartilage b. Cricoid Cartilage c. Arytenoid Cartilage d. Corniculate Cartilage

a. Thyroid Cartilage

What separates the external ear from the middle ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Oval Window

a. Tympanic membrane

The muscle that tenses the vocal cords. a. Vocalis b. Thyroarytenoid c. Cricothyroid d. Cricoarytenoid

c. Cricothyroid

What cell predominates the epithelial lining in para nasal sinuses? a. Stratified squamous epithelium b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium c. Simple cuboidal epithelium d. Stratified cuboidal epithelium

b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Diplococci in cultur a. S. aureus (single cocci) b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. S. epidermidis

b. S. pneumoniae

Bacteria with polysaccharide capsule for virulence. a. S epidermidis b. S aureus c. S pneumonia d. H influenzae

d. H influenzae

Why staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin a. Modified PBPs b. Beta lactamases c. Efflux mechanism for antibiotic

b. Beta lactamases

This structure houses the middle ear? a. Temporal bone b. Occipital bone c. Zygomatic d. Sphenoid

a. Temporal bone

True about tissue binding

usually occurs with cellular constituents such as proteins, phospholipids, or nuclear proteins

Stabilize and secure viral nucleic acid?, protects from the external environment, and facilitates attachment to the host? a. Capsomere b. Envelope c. Nucleic acid d. Capsid

d. Capsid

Incorrect pair a. Defective virus: A virus particle that is functionally deficient in some aspect of replication b. Subunit: A single folded viral polypeptide chain c. Virion: The complete virus particle. d. Capsomere: protein shell, or coat, that encloses the nucleic acid genome.

d. Capsomere: protein shell, or coat, that encloses the nucleic acid genome.

Which of the following consists of nasal septum? a. ethmoid and vomer b. nasal and lacrimal c. frontal and sphenoid d. Maxillary and palatine

a. ethmoid and vomer

which arteries supply external nose a. Branches of ophthalmic and maxillary arteries b. Posterior lateral nasal artery c. Sphenopalatine artery d. Posterior ethmoid artery

a. Branches of ophthalmic and maxillary arteries

Type of epithelium of the concha nasal cavity

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated

Lamina propria contains a. Dense connective tissue b. Loose connective tissue

b. Loose connective tissue

What is untrue about metabolism of drugs a. Drugs are biotransformed or converted to metabolites and excreted in the kidneys or converted to bile b. Drugs are either unchanged of converted to its metabolites and excreted c. Kidneys are the main organ for metabolism

c. Kidneys are the main organ for metabolism

Where does the anterior ethmoid sinus drain? A. Sphenoethmoidal recess B. Infundibulum and into middle meatus C. Middle meatus thru hiatus semilunaris

B. Infundibulum and into middle meatus

Tropism

Surface glycoproteins

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of swallowing? a. CN V b. CN VII c. CN IX d. CN X

d. CN X (Vagus nerve)

Which is incorrect about microbial measurement concentration?? A. Turbidity of culture, measured by a photoelectric means, can be related to the viable count using a standard curve, however, cells may lose viability without producing a loss in turbidity in the culture B. Bacteria reproduce by binary fission, and the average time required for the population to double is called generation time. C. At the stationary phase, cell viability begins to decrease at a defined rate. D. Viable cell count is considered the measure of cell concentration.

C. At the stationary phase, cell viability begins to decrease at a defined rate.

Which lymph nodes can be found in the anterior (?) border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle that drains tongue and tonsil something a. Submental b. Anterior cervical nodes c. Jugulodigastric nodes d. Submandibular

c. Jugulodigastric nodes

Anterior ⅔ of the tongue (taste). What innervation a. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) b. Vagus Nerve (CN X) c. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) d. Facial Nerve (CN VII)

d. Facial Nerve (CN VII)

Uvula is in the posterior of what structure? A. Soft palate B. Pharynx C. Hard palate D. Tonsils

A. Soft palate

Waldeyer’s ring components, except a. Palatine tonsils b. Submandibular tonsils c. Lingual tonsils d. Tubal tonsils

b. Submandibular tonsils

Uvula is posterior located at what structure? A. Soft palate B. Hard palate C. Palatine tonsils D. Teeth

A. Soft palate

Which is the correctly paired nerve and area supplied? a. Branches of the facial nerve: internal auditory meatus b. Greater auricular nerve: skin of the auricle c. Auricotemporal nerve: tympanic membrane d. Lesser occipital nerve: external auditory meatus

b. Greater auricular nerve: skin of the auricle

What triangle of the neck is described by the following relations, below the mandible, midline of the neck and anterior border of the SCM A. Anterior triangle B. Submental C. submandibular D. Carotid triangle

A. Anterior triangle

External auditory meatus in adult is a derivative of which embryonic structures? A. 2nd pharyngeal pouch B. 1st pharyngeal cleft C. 3rd pharyngeal duct D. 4th branchial cleft

B. 1st pharyngeal cleft

What is the primary function of Bowman’s gland found in the olfactory region? A. Produce mucus B. Dissolve odor-containing gases C. Warms air

B. Dissolve odor-containing gases

What epithelium primarily dominates the nasal cavity? A. Stratified squamous B. Simple squamous C. Pseudostratified columnar with goblet cells D. Pseudostratified

C. Pseudostratified columnar with goblet cells

The lamina propria of the olfactory epithelium possesses large serous gland which produce a constant flow of fluid surrounding the olfactory cilia and facilitating the access of new odoriferous substances.

Olfactory glands (Bowman’s gland)

What is the MOA of cotrimoxazole? a. Inhibits DNA gyrase necessary to separate the bacterial DNA, thereby inhibiting cell division b. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of the ribosome c. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of the ribosome d. Inhibits the incorporation of PABA into folic acid and prevents the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

d. Inhibits the incorporation of PABA into folic acid and prevents the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

Which of the following statements is true? a. Two similar drugs are bioequivalent if they have comparative efficacy and safety features b. Lipid-soluble drugs penetrate the cell membrane through aqueous channels c. Water-soluble drugs readily move across most biological membranes d. Bioavailability determines the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation

d. Bioavailability determines the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation

Which is true? a. A single dose of drug given orally results in a single peak in plasma concentration followed by oscillations in drug levels b. A competitive antagonist shifts the dose-response curve to the left c. The lower the ED 50, the less potent is the drug d. A non-competitive antagonist decreases the maximal response to the drug

d. A non-competitive antagonist decreases the maximal response to the drug

Which is true about cephalosporins?

for patients with allergy to penicillin

Which is true for a drug with a first-order kinetics method of elimination? a. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration b. Elimination involves a rate limiting enzymatic reaction operating in its maximal velocity c. The half-life of the drug is proportional to the drug plasma concentration d. The amount of drug eliminated per unit time is constant

a. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration

Cartilage connect to the vocal cords forward rotation A. Thyroid B. Arytenoid C. Cricoid

B. Arytenoid

How many percent of normal inspired air passes the middle turbinate? A. 65% B. 50% C. 25% D. 40%

B. 50%

What muscle found in the vocal cords lateral to the vocal ligament that pulls arytenoid cartilage towards the thyroid cartilage? and therefore, loosen the vocal cords. A. Cricoarytenoid B. Cricothyroid C. Thyroarytenoid D. Vocal ligament

A. Cricoarytenoid

Which of the following is incorrect about the organ of corti and its physiology? A. B. …. Modiolus C. Specialized hair cells: 3-4 inner cells and single outer cells.(?) D.

C. Specialized hair cells: 3-4 inner cells and single outer cells. Inner cells - 1 row Outer cells - 3-4 rows

What are the 3 main organs for articulation? A. Tongue, lips, hard palate B. Tongue, lips, vocal cords C. Tongue, lips, soft palate D. Tongue, soft palate, vocal cords

C. Tongue, lips, soft palate

Which statement is incorrect in relation to production of speech? A. Resonance: Amplification and modulation of sound wave at the structures distal to larynx B. Phonation: sound by vocal folds vibration C. Articulation: complex interactions of lips, tongue, teeth, palate, and pharynx D. Power source: diaphragm

D. Power source: diaphragm

Which is true for olfactory neurons? A. It's a unipolar neuron B. C. D. It's capable of replacement due to the regenerative activity of the epithelial stem cell

D. It's capable of replacement due to the regenerative activity of the epithelial stem cell

How many decibels in attenuation reflex is reduced in low frequency sound transmission? a. 10-20 b. 30-40 c. 50-70

b. 30-40

Structure along amygdala and hippocampus that ties to olfactory system and explains association of odor perception and cognitive function a. Cerebral cortex b. Hypothalamus c. Brain stem d. cerebellum

a. Cerebral cortex

Which is true about Bernoulli's Principle? a. Increasing the airflow velocity will result to nasal valve collapse and negative pressure. b. Airflow velocity is slowest at the narrowest segment. c. A small decrease in the cross sectional area produces an increase in airway. d. Increasing the airflow velocity will cause a positive pressure

Which does not happen to air as it passes through the nose a. The air is fully filtered as it passes through the nose. b. The removal of particles in the nostril is by turbulence precipitation c. Air is almost completely humidified even before it passes beyond the nose d. Air is warmed by extensive surfaces of conchae and septum

a. The air is fully filtered as it passes through the nose.

What is true about our ability to control pitch? a. Lengthening and contraction of ambot b. Ability to change the contour of the vocal chord? c. Rotation of the arytenoid something d. Vowels and consonants by the articulation of lips, teeth, tongue, palatine and tonsils.

c. Rotation of the arytenoid something

What is the difference between Staphylococcus Aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis in the laboratory? a. Grow in 6.5% NaCl b. Ferment mannitol c. Lyse RBC d. Novobiocin resistant

b. Ferment mannitol

Streptococcus pneumoniae resist phagocytosis by a. M protein (for strep pyogenes?) b. Polysaccharide capsule c. Hemolysin production d. DNAse production

b. Polysaccharide capsule

What is Factor x and v in chocolate agar a. X hemin V hemoglobin b. X NADH V CO2 c. X heminatin V NAD+ d. X hemin V vitamin K (phylloquinone)

c. X heminatin V NAD+

What differentiates staphylococci from streptococci? a. Coagulase positive b. Resistance to heat and drying c. Catalase production d. Ability to ferment many carbohydrate

c. Catalase production

differentiates haemophilus influenzae from other haemophilus genus a. Factor x only b. Factor v only c. Boths factor d. Neither

c. Boths factor

Which is incorrect about staphylococci? 1 gram-positive spherical cells, usually arranged in grapelike irregular clusters 2 Staphylococci slowly ferment many carbohydrates, producing lactic acid and gas (not dapat produce gas) 3 They can cause infection often associated with implanted devices 4 Approximately 75% of these infections caused by coagulase-negative Staphylococci a. All of the choices are correct b. 2 and 3 c. 2 only d. 2, 3, and 4

c. 2 only

Which statement is incorrect about olfactory cell and its structures? a. Its distributed mainly apical supportive cells and basal cells in the olfactory membrane b. Released by the olfactory vesicles are motile, short olfactory cilia which lies parallel??/perpendicular?? (cant rmmbr unsa exactly) to the olfactory membrane. c. Olfactory cilia functions mainly as odor receptors. d. Neurons present in the olfactory cells are bipolar neurons (not exact wording)

b. Released by the olfactory vesicles are motile, short olfactory cilia which lies parallel??/perpendicular?? (cant rmmbr unsa exactly) to the olfactory membrane. Olfactory cilia are NON-MOTILE — this is the incorrect statement.

How many decibels less hearing is hearing __? a. 15-20 b. 10-30 c. 50-60 d. 20-23

a. 15-20

What structure separates oral cavity from the nasal cavity? a. Septum b. Tonsils c. Palate d. Turbinates

c. Palate

Which is true about human respiratory syncytial virus? a. Viral DNA contained in a helical nucleocapsid surrounded by a lipid envelope. b. Antigenic diversity is reflected by differences in F protein while G proteins are relatively conserved. c. A non-enveloped virus of paramyxoviridae. d. A single stranded RNA genome.

d. A single stranded RNA genome.

What is the lipid membrane that surrounds some virus?

Envelope

Which of the following is the major virulence factor of H. influenzae? A. Z factor B. Protein E C. Protein A D. Polyribose phosphate capsule

D. Polyribose phosphate capsule

What is the Mechanism of Action of Cotrimoxazole?

Double Blockade of Folate Synthesis PABA ↓ ← Sulfamethoxazole blocks (inhibits dihydropteroate synthase) Dihydrofolic acid (DHF) ↓ ← Trimethoprim blocks (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase/DHFR) Tetrahydrofolic acid (THF) — BLOCKED ↓ No purine/pyrimidine synthesis ↓ No DNA synthesis → bacteriostatic/bactericidal

How does penicillin G exert its effects?

Penicillin G ↓ Binds Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs) (transpeptidase enzymes) ↓ Inhibits TRANSPEPTIDATION (cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains) ↓ Weak, incomplete cell wall formed ↓ Osmotic lysis → BACTERICIDAL ↓ Also activates autolytic enzymes (autolysins) → further cell wall destruction

What is the effect of beta lactam antibiotics?

Inhibit cell wall synthesis, bactericidal, activate autolysins, osmotic lysis

Which is incorrect about propionic acid & its derivatives? A. Ibuprofen, naproxen, and ketoprofen are derivatives which are aspirin-like agents B. Ibuprofen is the first member of these propionic acid derivatives that came to general use C. It has anti-inflammatory, analgesic & anti-pyretic properties D. This class is an effective inhibitor of prostaglandin.

A. Ibuprofen, naproxen, and ketoprofen are derivatives which are aspirin-like agents

Which statement is incorrect about Penicillin G? a. Probenecid markedly increases the tubular secretion of penicillins. b. Clearance values are considerably lower in neonates and infants because of the incomplete development of renal functions c. its basic structure consist of a thiazolidine ring and connected to beta lactam ring attached to a side chain d. it is rapidly eliminated from the body mainly by the kidneys and minimally through the bile and other others

a. Probenecid markedly increases the tubular secretion of penicillins.

Which is true about paracetamol? A. Its maximum daily dose in adults is about 3g. (max = 4g) B. It is high plasma protein bound. C. In therapeutic doses, its pharmacokinetics is linear. D. It interacts with vitamin K.

C. In therapeutic doses, its pharmacokinetics is linear.

Which statement is true about phenylpropanolamine? (choices not in particular order) a. It is an epinephrine reuptake inhibitor b. It is a selective adrenergic receptor agonist c. stimulates alpha adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction, etc d. It acts directly on beta-adrenergic receptors in the respiratory tract mucosa

c. stimulates alpha adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction, etc

Best describes IV administration a. Need patient compliance/cooperation b. Allows drug titration c. Most convenient and economical route

b. Allows drug titration

What is the culture requirement of Staphylococcus

Staphylococci grow readily on most bacteriologic media under aerobic or microaerophilic conditions. They grow most rapidly at 37°C but form pigment best at room temperature (20–25°C).

Structure of Staphylococcus aureus that helps in adherence and contributes to its pathogenicity. a. Peptidoglycan b. Protein A c. Lipopolysaccharide capsule d. Teichoic acid

d. Teichoic acid

Which best describes extended-release or controlled-release drugs?

Maintains Steady Drug Plasma Levels Over Extended Period Extended-release (ER) / Controlled-release (CR) formulations are designed to release drug slowly and consistently over an extended period — maintaining therapeutic plasma levels while reducing dosing frequency.

What is true about SQ administration of drugs?

Pain and necrosis Irritating drugs cause pain and necrosis at the injection site

What do you call drugs with the same active ingredients, the same plasma concentration etc?

Bioequivalent Drugs/bioequivalence

What is the typical morphology of Staphylococci? a. Some are spherical, non-motile while others form spores b. They can either be single, in pairs, tetrads and chains arranged in irregular clusters c. They are found free living in the environment and form regular packets of 4-8 cocci (micrococcus) d. They are spherical cells about 1 micrometer in diameter arranged in regular clusters

b. They can either be single, in pairs, tetrads and chains arranged in irregular clusters

Which is true about the factors that affect drug distribution? a. Hydrophobic drugs move across most biological membranes. b. Water soluble drugs readily penetrate the CNS. c. Ionized drugs easily pass through the CNS. d. As the concentration of free drug decreases, the plasma bound drug increases its affinity to ensure constant blood levels.

a. Hydrophobic drugs move across most biological membranes.

Which is true for a drug with a first order kinetics method of elimination? a. The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug plasma concentration. b. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration. c. Elimination involves a rate limiting enzymatic reaction operating in its maximal velocity. d. The amount of drug eliminated per unit time is constant. (Zero-order kinetics)

b. The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration.

Not a part of the classification of Viruses a. Pathologic properties b. Antigenic properties c. Physicochemical properties d. Biological properties

a. Pathologic properties

Number of capsomeres of Adenoviruses

252 capsomeres

Which is true about the volume distribution of drugs? (choices not in particular order huhu) a. an increase in volume distribution decreases half life b. a very large molecular-weight drug distributes extensively in body fluids c. a low molecular-weight hydrophobic drug cannot move through cell membranes into the intracellular fluid d. a low molecular-weight hydrophilic drug can easily move through endothelial slit junctions of capillaries into interstitial fluid

d. a low molecular-weight hydrophilic drug can easily move through endothelial slit junctions of capillaries into interstitial fluid

Which is true? (choices in no particular order) a. 90% of drugs administered by rectal route bypasses the portal circulation b. Sublingual administration of drugs allows fast activation by metabolism c. Absorption of drugs by oral route is mainly through the duodenum d. IV administration avoids the first pass metabolism by the kidneys

c. Absorption of drugs by oral route is mainly through the duodenum

Rhinoviruses (incorrect?) a. Attaches to cellular receptors such as strains attach to ICAM-1 b. Mediators such as prostaglandins, IFN gamma induced protein 10 have been linked to the development of s/sx c. Nasal mucosa often appears edematous and goblet cells are often isolated d. Usual incubation period is 4-7days

d. Usual incubation period is 4-7days Incubation Period: The actual incubation period is typically 1 to 2 days (24–48 hours). Symptoms usually peak 2 to 4 days after exposure. A 4–7 day incubation period is more characteristic of other viruses like certain strains of Adenovirus or even Influenza.

True about staphylococci a. Gram-negative from family Micrococcaceae B. forms grape-like clusters C. motile and form spores D. spherical cells with 10 um diameter

B. forms grape-like clusters

Attenuation reflex can reduce the intensity of lower frequency sound transmission by?

30-40 dB

Incorrect about metabolism of drugs? a. Drugs are either unchanged or converted to its metabolites and excreted b. Kidneys are the main organ for metabolism

b. Kidneys are the main organ for metabolism

Best describes adenovirus

It has an icosahedral symmetry with capsids composed of about 252 capsomeres

BASIC RC Flashcards

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