1
Q
- True or False. Animals classified in the genus Lepus are the only true hares.
A
True
2
Q
__________ _________ is the only domesticated rabbit
A
Oryctolagus cuniculas
3
Q
- True or False. The Belgian Hare is derived from the genus Lepus.
A
False; the Belgian Hare is derived from Oryctolagus cuniculas
4
Q
- What are the two families in the order Lagomorpha?
A
Ochotonidae (pikas) and Leporidae (rabbits and hares)
5
Q
- What genus does the cottontail rabbit belong to?
A
Sylvilagus
6
Q
- What is the most common use of the rabbit in research?
A
Production of polyclonal antibodies
7
Q
- Why is the rabbit preferred for polyclonal antibody production?
A
Large body size and blood volume; easy access to vascular system; large amount of information available on purification of immunoglobulins
8
Q
- True or False. Rabbit models of human disease include hydrocephalus induced by hypovitaminosis A, hypervitaminosis A, acute respiratory syndrome induced by phorbol myristate acetate, inflammatory bowel disease, and diabetes mellitus.
A
True
9
Q
- What are the six rabbit cancer models listed by the AFIP?
A
VX-2 tumor spontaneous endometrial adenocarcinoma, monoclonal gammopathies, nephroblastoma lymphoblastic leukemia, malignant fibroma
10
Q
- The VX-2 carcinoma results from the malignant transformation of the viral induced _______ _________.
A
Shope papilloma
11
Q
- What is the most common neoplasm in aged rabbits?
A
Enometrial adenocarcinoma
12
Q
- What chemical is used to induce nephroblastomas in pregnant does
A
Ethylnitrosurea
13
Q
13. The rabbit has been used to study infectious diseases, including: A. Campylobacter enteritis B. Chagas disease C. cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex encephalitis E. staphylococcal blepharitis F. all of the above
A
F; all of the above
14
Q
- What is WHHL?
A
Watanabe heritable hyperlipidemia
15
Q
- What deficiency is seen in the WHHL rabbit?
A
Low density lipoprotein receptors in the liver
16
Q
- The St. Thomas Hospital strain has a _______ (normal, abnormal) functioning _____ (LDL, HDL) receptor but still maintains a hypercholesterolemic state.
A
normal; LDL
17
Q
- What is the dental formal in the rabbit?
A
i2/1, c0/0, pm3/2, m2-3/2 X2= 26-28 teeth
18
Q
- What are the peg teeth? Where are the peg teeth located? What is the function of the peg teeth
A
Peg teeth are a small pair of incisors directly caudal to the primary maxillary inciosrs; the peg teeth are used to bite and shear food.
19
Q
- True or False. Molars do not have roots and are characterized by deep enamel folds.
A
True
20
Q
- What are the salivary glands in the rabbits? Which salivary glands are paired? Which gland is the largest?
A
Parotid, submaxillary, sublingual, and zygomatic; all are paired; parotid is largest
21
Q
- Which salivary gland does not have a counterpart in humans?
A
zygomatic
22
Q
- True or False. The esophagus of the rabbit has separate portions of striated and smooth muscle along its length.
A
False; the esophagus of the rabbit has 3 layers of striated muscle that extend the length of the esophagus down to the and including the cardia of the stomach.
23
Q
- What are the parts of the rabbit’s stomach?
A
cardia, fundus, pylorus
24
Q
Does the rabbit have a gall bladder? Name two animals that do not have a gall bladder.
A
Yes. Rabbits have a Gall Bladder. Horses and Rats do not have gall bladders.
25
25. How do kits receive most of their passive immunity?
VIa the yolk sac prior to birth (not the colostrum)
26
26. What is the sacculus rotundus?
lymphoid tissues at ileo-cecal junction
27
27. What are cecotrophs?
Fecal pellets that contain nitrogen (niacin, riboflavin, pantothenate, and cyanocobalamin. Rabbits consume them directly from the anus.
28
28. True or False. The musculature of the thoracic wall contributes directly to the respiratory effort in the rabbit.
False; the activity of the diaphragm contributes directly to the respiratory effort of in the rabbit.
29
29. How is artificial respiration in the rabbit performed? Why is this method important? What method of artificial respiration should not be used?
Alternating the head of the rabbit in the up and down position 30-34 times per minute; this method best simulates the rabbit's natural respirations. Chest compression is ineffective. musculature of the thoracic wall contributes little to the rabbit's respiratory efforts.
30
30. What features of the rabbit makes endotracheal intubation difficult to perform?
Long and narrow pharynx; large tongue; laryngospasms
31
31. The rabbit lungs consist of _____ lobes. What is the lobe pattern
6 lobes; R and L have cranial, middle, caudal lobes with the caudal lobe divided into lateral and medial portions.
32
32. Characterize the tricuspid valve in the rabbit heart
tricuspid valve has only two cusps
33
33. The aortic nerve responds only to __________ (chemoreceptors, baroreceptors).
baroreceptors
34
34. The blood supply to the brain is mainly via the ______ _________ _______.
internal carotid artery
35
35. The kidney of the rabbit is:
A. Unipapillate
B. multipapillate
C. Neither A nor B
Unipapillate
36
36. In the kidney, the medullary tissue may be perfused while the cortex is ischemic. Why does this happen?
blood vessels that perfuse the medulla remain open during many conditions
37
37. Can creatinine clearance be used to measure the glomerular filtration rate? Why or why not?
Yes; rate of creatinine clearance is equal to that of inulin clearance.
38
38. True or False. Albuminuria can be found in young healthy rabbits.
True
39
39. In normal rabbits, the urine:
A. Is normally yellow, but can take on reddish to brown hues.
B. Usually has few cells, bacteria or casts.
C. Has a pH at about 8.2
D. Is typically cloudy in adults due to relatively high concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium monohydrate precipitates.
E. All of the above.
E, all of the above
40
40. Differentiate between the urethral orifices in the buck and the doe
Bucks: rounded orifice
Does: slitlike orifice
41
41. Why is it necessary to close the superficial inguinal ring when performing an orchiectomy by open technique?
To prevent herniation.
42
42. True or False. The two uterine horns are connected to the vagina by separate cervices (bicornuate uterus).
True (bicornuate uterus)
43
43. What type of placenta is found in the pregnant rabbit?
Hemochorial
44
44. Including the ____ the rabbit has a relatively _______ (low, high) metabolic rate.
ears, the rabbit has a low metabolic rate
45
45. What is the result of fasting a neonatal rabbit?
Hypoglycemia and ketosis
46
```
46. The normal temperature of an adult New Zealand white rabbit at rest is:
A. 37.5-39.0° C
B. 38.5-39.5° C
C. 38.0-39.5° C
D. 37.5-38.5° C
E. 38.5-39.0° C
```
b. 38.5-39.5
47
47. Explain the importance of the ears in thermoregulation.
Ears have large surface area with an extensive arteriovenous anastomosis system. This helps the rabbit snese and respond to cold and warm temperatures. They also can adjust body temp through a countercurrent heat exchange system.
48
48. Rabbits deprived of water will ______ (increase, decrease) their food consumption
decrease
49
49. ________is normal and accounts for the variation in reported values for RBC diameter
anisocytosis
50
```
50. The life span of the rabbit RBC averages _______days but some could survive up to ____ days.
A. 57, 67
B. 75, 87
C. 50, 60
D. 55, 66
E. 67, 75
```
57, 67
51
51. The neutrophil in the rabbit is also known as the pseudoeosinophil or the ______. Why?
Heterophil; red-staining granules in the cytoplasm; But, heterophils are smaller than eosinophils.
52
52. What is Pelger-Huet anomaly
Heterophil nucleus is hyposegmented due to incomplete differentiation of the granulocytes.
53
```
53. Collection of blood samples in rabbits by what method(s) elevates AST levels due to muscle damage?
A. Decapitation
B. Cardiac puncture
C. Aortic incision
D. Restraint that causes exertion
E. All of the above
```
E. all of the above
54
54. How many forms of alkaline phosphatase are found in the rabbit? What are they? How does this differ from most other mammals?
Three. One intestinal form and two forms in the liver and kidney. Most other mammals only have two forms of AP, intestinal and liver/bone/kidney.
55
55. Rabbits are ________ (herbivores, omnivores) with a preferred diet that is _____ (low, high) in fiber and _____ (low, high) in protein and soluble carbohydrate.
Herbivores. Low in Fiber. High in Protein
56
56. True or False. Rabbits prefer feed in meal form over pelleted form.
False; rabbits like pellets.
57
57. What is the average life span of the rabbit?
5-7 years
58
58. What is the result of prolonged feeding of diets high in calcium?
Renal Disease
59
59. What is the result of feeding a diet containing excessive Vitamin D?
Calcification of soft tissues
60
60. What is the result of too much or too little Vitamin A in the diet?
Reproductive dysfunction and congenital hydrocephalus.
61
61. What is the daily water intake in the rabbit?
120 ml/kg body weight
62
62. Laboratory reared rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal), while wild rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal).
diurnal, nocturnal
63
63. At what age does puberty occur in the New Zealand white rabbit?
5-7 months of age
64
65. True or False. Ovulation in the doe is induced.
True
65
64. How long is the breeding life of the doe?
1-3 years
66
```
66. Ovulation in the doe can be induced with:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
D. Copulation
E. All of the above
```
e, all of the above
67
67. When can pregnancy in the doe be confirmed? How?
11 days, radiographically and 14 days by palpation
68
68. What is the length of gestation in the rabbit?
30-33 days
69
69. Pseudopregnancy is common in the rabbit and can follow a variety of stimuli, including:
A. Administration of human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Administration gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Presence of pregnant does nearby
D. Presence of neonates from other does
E. None of the above
e, none of the above; Administration of LH, mating with a sterile male, mounting by does, and presence of bucks nearby
70
70. Parturition is also known ___________.
kindling
71
71. True or False. Breech and anterior presentations are normal in the rabbit.
True
72
72. What is the average number of kits born?
7-9
73
73. What influences litter size?
breed, parity, nutritional status, environmental factors
74
74. True or False. Both does and bucks have 4-5 pairs of nipples
False; bucks have none
75
75. When are kits generally weaned?
5-8 weeks
76
76. According to both the Guide, what is the appropriate cage size for a 2-4 kg rabbit? 1.8 kg? 5.6 kg? 5 kg?
less than 2 Kg = 1.5 ft2
up to 4 Kg = 3 ft2
up to 5.4 Kg = 4 ft2
more than 5.4 Kg >= 5 ft2
77
77. According to the Guide, what is the recommended temperature for the rabbit?
*****61-72 degrees ___******
78
78. In breeding colonies, females should have ________ (10-12, 12-14, 14-16) hours of light
females should have 14-16 hours of light
79
```
What is the most common clinical manifestation of pasteurellosis in rabbits?
A. Septicemia
B. Rhinitis with or without sinusitis
C. Otitis
D. Diarrhea
```
B. Rhinitis w/ or w/o sinusitis
80
The common name for Pasteurella induced rhinitis is __________________________?
Snuffles
81
Rabbits with rhinitis also typically develop an associated conjunctivitis. True or False
True
82
```
Clinical signs for conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
A. Head Tilt
B. Mucopurulent ocular discharge
C. Conjunctival bleeding
D. Swollen eyelids
E. Epiphora
F. Periocular alopecia
```
A, head tilt
83
Pneumonia is a common clinical condition associated with Pasteurella infections. True or False
True
84
Pasteurella multocida infection can cause:
A. Rhinitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Otitis Media and Interna
D. Subcutaneous and visceral abscesses
E. Septicemia
F. All of the Above
F. All of the above.
85
Rabbits that develop Pasteurella septicemia generally die without any clinical signs. True or False
True
86
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted
direct contact; aerosol/venerally are less common
87
When do rabbits become infected with Pasteurella multocida?
AT weaning
88
Pasteurella infection is never a subclinical disease in rabbits. True or False
False
89
What type of lung distribution is the typical Pasteurella pneumonia?
Cranioventral
90
Necropsy findings of Pasteurella pneumonia can include all of the following except:
A. Overinflation of the lungs
B. Atelectasis and consolidation
C. Abscess formation
D. Fibropurulent exudate
E. Fibrinopurulent pleuritis and pericarditis
A. over-inflation
91
Pasteurella organisms colonize the ________________________________________
Nasopharyngeal mucosa
92
What is the most definitive means of diagnosis of Pasteurella? ____________________________
culture
93
Rabbits are typically vaccinated for Pasteurella by vendors. True or False
False, no vaccine available.
94
Pasteurella-free colonies have been developed by:
A. Culture and culling the positives
B. Serological testing and culling the positives
C. Treating pregnant does with enrofloxacin past kindling and using the kits to form the
negative colony
D. Rederivation techniques
E. A and C
E
95
18. When using procaine penicillin G in treating pasteurellosis in rabbits, one must be cautious to prevent
the development of _________________________________.
clostridial enterotoxemia
96
19) Rabbits typically remain culture positive from the nasal passages even with antibiotic treatment.
True or False
True
97
20. There has been one exception to the statement in number 19, treatment with
______________________ has shown some rabbits to be culture negative post treatment
Enrofloxacin
98
```
What antibiotics have been used to treat pasteurellosis in rabbits?
A. Enrofloxacin
B. Tilmicosin
C. Procaine penicillin G
D. Clindamycin
E. All of the above except D
```
E
99
What is the most common research complication associated with pasteurellosis?
________________________________________________________________________
Infection of injection sites in rabbits used for polyclonal antisera production.
100
23. What is the etiologic agent of Tyzzer’s disease?
Clostridial piliforme
101
Clostridium piliforme is a ____________________ bacterium and is an _____________
______________ pathogen.
spore-forming; obligate intracellular
102
Clostridium piliforme can only be cultured in artificial media. True/False
False; requires tissue culture or embryonated egg media
103
List three possible clinical signs of Tyzzer’s disease. _____________, _____________, ___________
diarrhea, anorexia, dehydration, lethargy
104
Acute outbreaks of Tyzzer’s disease are characterized by high morbidity and low mortality. True/False
false, 90%mortality
105
Transmission of Clostridium piliforme is via the _________________ route
Fecal-oral
106
C. piliforme may cause what type of gross lesions in the liver and myocardium? _________________
pinpoint white foci
107
Gross lesions within the intestinal tract include: ______________, _____________, _______________
hemorrhage on serosal cecal surface, thickened edematous bowel walls, necrotic foci within the mucosa
108
Histologically, hepatic foci of necrosis are surrounded by __________________.
polymorphonuclear neutrophils
109
32. What two stains can be used to identify the bacteria at the periphery of the necrotic lesions caused by
C. piliforme? _____________________ and ________________________
Warthin-Starry or Giesma
110
Tyzzer’s disease can be diagnosed by: _____________, _____________________,_______________
ELISA, Indirect immunoflourescence, special stains
111
What is the best way to prevent Tyzzer’s
Sanitization, decrease stress
112
Spores can be deactivated by using ___________________ or ________________________.
1% peracetic acid, 3% sodium hyp0chlorite
113
What is the primary causative agent of enterotoxemia? _____________________
Clostridium spiroforme
114
C. spiroforme infected rabbits usually present with signs of chronic diarrhea and emaciation. True/False
False, often acute death with no signs
115
40. _____________________ can be associated with overgrowth and proliferation of the C. spiroforme
organisms to cause enterotoxemia.
A. Antibiotics administered
B. Change in gut flora associated with weaning
C. Coinfection with other bacteria
D. A & C
E. All of the above
E
116
To definatively diagnose enterotoxemia, ______________ is required.
A. Sera for ELISA
B. Isolation of the organism
C. Presence of Iota toxin from centrifuged cecal contents
D. All of the above can be used
E. B & C only
E
117
. C. spiroforme has a ________________ appearance in fecal smears
helically, coiled, semicircular
118
Rabbits should be vaccinated at weaning. True/False
No vaccine--FAlse
119
45. _____________________________ has been proposed for the treatment because it binds the bacterial
toxins.
oral cholestyramine
120
46. Strains of __________________ coding for the ______________ gene are particularly pathogenic in
rabbits.
E. Coli, eae
121
The gene identified in question 46 encodes for what protein? ___________________________
Intimin
122
The protein identified in question 47 is a
A. Toxin producer
B. Outer membrane protein needed for development of attaching and effacing lesions
C. A surface protein that mimics self protein to avoid detection by the immune system
D. None of the above
B, outer membrane protein needed for development and attaching and effacing lesions
123
Which of the following has been identified as a clinical syndrome?
A. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality
B. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality
C. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality
D. All of the Above
D
124
50. Weanling rabbits typically develop a severe yellow diarrhea with high mortality, while suckling rabbits
usually develop a profuse watery diarrhea with variable mortality depending upon the virulence of the
infecting strain. True/False
False; it is the opposite
125
Match the following with the correct serotype(s):
1. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality A. O15:H B. O190:H2
2. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality C. O128 D. O103:H2
3. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality E. O132 F. O123
```
1 = B
2 = A,D
3 = C,E,F
```
126
Gross necropsy findings may include all of the following except:
A. Thickened and edematous ileal, cecal and colonic walls +/- mucosal ulcerations
B. Swollen edematous kidneys with foci of necrosis
C. Yellow-brown feces within the entire intestinal tract of neonates
D. Watery brown cecal contents +/- serosal hemorrhages
B. Swollen kidneys
127
. Histologic lesions may include:
A. Flattened and disorganized intestinal epithelium
B. Colonies of coliforms attached to the intestinal mucosal surface
C. Neutrophil infiltration of the lamina propia
D. Villus atrophy
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
128
54. Attachment of coliforms to the intestinal mucosal surface and effacement of epithelial cells leads to the
loss of the microvillus border and thus leads to an osmotic diarrhea. True/False
False, secretory diarrhea
129
55. Definative diagnosis requires culture of E. coli from feces followed by somatic and flagellar serotyping
to correlate with a known enteropathgenic strain. True/False
True
130
Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Commercial vaccines are available
B. Good sanitation is important in stopping the spread of disease
C. Chloramphenicol and neomycin have been used successfully to treat this disease
D. Mortality is the major research complication
E. All of the above are true
F. B, C and D are true
F
131
Treponematosis is caused by ________________ and is related to _________________ (human
syphilis).
Treponema paraluis cuniculi, Terponema pallidum
132
The causative agent is a gram positive cocci. True/False
False, gram negative, spiral shaped rod
133
How is the organism transmitted? ______________________
During breeding
134
60. The typical treponemal lesions occur in the vulvar and preputial areas but other mucocutaneous
junctions can be affected. True/False
True
135
The typical lesions:
A. May resolve after many weeks
B. May cause enlargement of the lymph nodes
C. Begin with swelling and erythema +/- vesicles or papules
D. Progress to ulceration with scaling and crusting
E. Can be considered chronic in nature
F. All of the above
F
136
The two other names for treponematosis are ___________ and __________________.
Rabbit syphilis and venereal spirochetosis
137
63. Clinical evidence is very common in rabbit colonies while serologic evidence of infection is
uncommon. True/False
False: it's the opposite
138
What type of stain can be used to identify the spirochete? ___________________________
Warthrin-Starry Silver Stain
139
Diagnosis can be made by:
A. Culture
B. Demonstration of spirochetes in lesions
C. Serologically by using assays designed to diagnose human syphilis
D. A & C
E. B & C
E
140
What antibiotic is an effective treatment? __________________________--
Penicillin
141
Treatment of all animals simultaneously has not been shown to eradicate the infection from a colony.
True/False
False- it is effective
142
The causative agent of proliferative enteropathy is ______________________.
Lawsonia intracellularis
143
```
Choose all that apply: The organism is :
A. Gram Negative F. A virus
B. Gram Positive G. Coccoid
C. An obligate intracellular bacterium
D. An extracellular bacterium
E. Curved
```
A, gram negative
C, Obligate intracellular bacterium
E, Curved
144
The organism is species specific to rabbits. True/False
False: affects hamsters, pigs, rhesus
145
What age group is most commonly affected? _______________________
Weanlings
146
What is the most striking feature grossly at necropsy? ____________________________
Thickening/corrugation of the ileum
147
The organisms are most easily found
A. Within the lumen of the intestines
B. In the cytoplasm of the lymphoctyes in the lamina propia
C. In the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
D. Within the nucleus of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
C, in the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
148
How is the organism diagnosed?
A. PCR
B. Histologic identification of the organism in the cytoplasm of crypt cells
C. Immunohistochemistry
D. Culture of the bacteria in cultured enterocytes
E. All of the above
E
149
75. Myxomatosis is endemic in rabbits of the genus ______________________ but fatal in rabbits of the
genus ____________________.
Sylvilagus, Oryctolagus
150
```
Myxomatosis, the fatal disease, is characterized by
A. Fibroma-like lesions
B. Wart-like lesions
C. Granuloma formation
D. Mucinous skin lesions
```
D. Mucinous skin lesions
151
How is a definative diagnosis of myxomatosis made? ____________________________
Viral culture
152
How is myxomatosis spread? ___________________________________________________
direct contact, fleas, mosquitos
153
```
Myxomatosis, the endemic disease is characterized by:
A. Fibroma-like lesions
B. Wart-like lesions
C. Granuloma formation
D. Mucinous skin lesions
```
A, fibroma like lesions
154
80. How can one distinguish the fibroma-like lesions caused by the fibroma virus from the fibroma-like
lesions caused by the myxoma virus in Slyvilagus? _______________________________________
Inject bibroma material into Oryctolagus rabbits; if they develop fibromas, it is the fibroma virus; if they develop mucinous lesions, it is the myxoma virus
155
Characterize the fibromas caused by the fibroma virus. ________________________________
Flat, SQ, easily moveable tumors
156
Which of the following may be found in a rabbit pox virus infection?
A. Eye lesions consisting of blepharitis, conjunctivitis, keratitis with corneal ulcers
B. Edematous face
C. Wide spread skin lesions
D. Fever and nasal discharge
E. Extensive nodules in multiple organs with widespread necrosis at necropsy
F. All of the above
F, all of the above may be found
157
83. Histologically, multiple characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions typical of a pox virus infection can be
found in a rabbit poxvirus infection. True/False
False, inclusions are rare
158
84. Herpesvirus sylvilagus is known as ______________________ and is isolated from
__________________.
Leporid herpesvirus 1, cottontail rabbits
159
Herpesvirus cuniculi is known as _________________ and is isolated from _________________.
Leporid herpesvirus 2, domestic rabbits
160
The cottontail papilloma virus is used as a model to study _____________ and ____________.
oncogenic virus biology, induction of protective immunity against papillomaviruses
161
Rotavirus is ubiquitous and causes a high rate of morbidity and mortality. True/False
FAlse, rare clinical disease
162
```
Which of the following are possible disease manifestations of a coronavirus infection?
A. Liver failure
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Kidney failure
D. Diarrhea
E. A & D
F. B & D
```
F, CHF and Diarrhea
163
Calicivirus causes a disease called ______________________________.
Rabbit hemorrhagic disease
164
What is the only consistent microscopic lesion in calicivirus infections? _____________________
Periportal hepatic necrosis
165
What is the typical cause of death with RHD? ____________________________
DIC
166
```
RHD can be transmitted by
A. Intestinal secretions
B. Fomites
C. Respiratory secretions
D. All of the Above
E. B & C
```
D, all of the above
167
Hepatic coccidiosis is caused by _____________________________.
Eimeria stiedae
168
Which of the following statements about hepatic coccidiosis is true?
A. Transmission occurs via fecal-oral route
B. Prevention can be achieved by adding sulfaquinozaline to the feed
C. Most clinical signs develop due to blockage of the bile ducts and the resulting liver
dysfunction
D. Diagnosis can be made by: fecal floatation, oocyst identification in gall bladder exudate,
or on impression smear of cut liver sections
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
169
The greatest mortality from intestinal coccidiosis occurs in geriatric rabbits. True/False
False, post-weanling rabbits
170
Why is frequent sanitation pivotal in prevention of intestinal coccidiosis? ___________________
It requires 3 days for oocysts to sporulate and become infective after shedding into feces
171
98. Immunity to intestinal coccidiosis can be developed through use of an oral vaccine or after infection
with a nonpathogenic strain of Eimeria. True/False
True
172
99. Floroquinolones added to the water is an effective control and prevention of intestinal coccidiosis.
True/False
False, sulfamerazine or sulfaquinoxaline
173
__________________ is the causative agent of encephalitozoonosis and was historically known as
Encephalitozoon cuniculi, Nosema cuniculi
174
```
Clinical signs of encephalitozoonosis can include
A. Tremors
B. Seizures
C. Motor paralysis
D. Torticollis
E. All of the above
```
E, all of the above
175
```
Lesions due to encephalitozoonosis can be seen in the
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spinal cord
D. Brain
E. All of the above
F. B, C, & D
```
F: Kidney, Spinal Cord, Brain
176
Organisms can be demonstrated in the histologic lesions. True/False
False, free in the kidney tubules
177
_________________________________ is a characteristic lesion and can be seen in the brain and the
kidneys.
granulomatous inflammation
178
List three ways to diagnose this disease. _______________,_____________,_________________
Histology, serology, indirect fluorescence antibody, PCR
179
What testing methods must be used to eliminate this organism from a colony and why?
_______________________________ _________________________________
Serology; it is latent
180
Encephalitozoon can easily be killed by lysol, formalin or ethanol. True/False
True
181
Psoroptes cuniculi is the causative agent of _______________________ and is a
_________________________.
Psoroptic mange, nonburrowing mite
182
How long is the life cycle of this parasite and how long can it survive off of the host?
21 days, 7-20 days
183
How is this infestation diagnosed? ________________________________
Visualization of mites in exudate via otoscopic exam, or a dissecting scope
184
What are the clinical signs of this infestation? ________________________________________
Pruritis, head shaking, crusty exudate
185
Ivermectin and rotenone have been used successfully to treat this disease. True/False
True
186
Cheyletiella mites are nonburrowing mites and are intensely pruritic. True/False
False, not pruritic
187
What anatomic site is most commonly infested with this parasite?
Scapular area
188
What is the microscopic distinguishing feature of this parasite?
Large curved claw on palpi
189
Cheyletiella is a zoonotic pathogen and can be successfully treated with ivermectin. True/False
True
190
Sarcoptes is a burrowing mite and thus must be diagnosed by ______________________.
Skin scrape
191
Sarcoptes can cause
A. Hair loss and abrasions
B. Intense pruritis
C. Serous encrustations and secondary bacterial infections
D. Amyloidosis is the liver & kidneys in severe infestations
E. All of the above
F. A, B, & C
E, all of the above
192
There isn’t any documented treatment and thus, infested animals should be euthanized. True/False
False, treat with ivermectin
193
Because the oxyuris eggs require 72 hours to become infective once passed in the feces, cleaning cages every
two - three days can be an effective means of controlling this infection. True/False
False, immediately infective
194
. Clinical signs of pinworms include diarrhea, straining and rectal prolapse. True/False
FAlse, no clinical signs
195
Where are mature pinworms located? ____________________ & ________________________
Cecum, colon
196
```
Which treatments have been effective in eliminating pinworms?
A. Fenbendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Piperazine citrate
E. A, B, & D
F. A & D
```
F, Fenbendazole and Piperazine
197
What is the more contemporary name of Oxyuris ambigua? ________________________________
Passalurus ambiguus
198
125. What two causative agents are the most common cause of ringworm in the infrequent occasion that
laboratory rabbits become infected. _______________________ & ________________________
Trichophyton mentagrophytes, Microsporum canis
199
126. The typical lesions of ringworm can be characterized by
A. Pruritus
B. Patchy alopecia with crusting
C. A circular lesion with a peripheral raised rim of inflammation and broken hairs
D. All of the above
D, all of the above
200
127. What methods are used to diagnose ringworm? __________________________________________
KOH scraping with processing to examine for mycelia or arthrospores
201
128. A negative Wood’s light exam rules out ringworm. True/False
False
202
129. What treatment options are available for ringworm? ____________________________________ _________________________________________________
Griseofulvin, 1% copper sulfate, metastbilized chlorous acid chlorine dioxide
203
130. What is the most common cause of deep or systemic mycoses in rabbits? _____________________
Aspergillus
204
131. Pulmonary aspergillosis lesions can be characterized by
A. Free floating arthrospores within the alveoli
B. Macrospores within the type II pneumocytes
C. Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies
D. Mycelia within the type II pneumocytes
C, Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies
205
132. Pneumocystis carinii causes pneumonia in ___________________________ rabbits.
immunocompromised
206
```
133. Clinical signs of gastric trichobezoars include:
A. Vomiting
B. Prolonged anorexia
C. Metabolic disturbances
D. All of the Above
E. B & C
```
E, anorexia and metabolic disturbance
207
134. What is the most frequent site of fracture in rabbits with a traumatic vertebral fracture injury?
L7
208
135. The common name for ulcerative dermatitis is ____________________________.
Sore hocks
209
136. The area ulcerative dermatitis most frequently affects is ________________________.
Plantar aspects of metatarsal/metacarpal regions
210
Heritable Diseases
137. Lack of vitamin ________ can result in hydrocephalus either due to an inherited inability to
metabolize it, or due to a lack of it in pregnant does.
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. E
C, Vitamin A
211
138. What inheritable eye anomaly is common in New Zealand White rabbits bred for research
buphthalmia, congenital glaucoma
212
Clinical signs hypovitaminosis A typically begin at weaning. True/False
False, 3-4 months of age
213
Clinical signs of hypovitminosis A can include
A. Corneal ulceration and rupture
B. Corneal edema
C. Decreased libido and spermatogenesis in affected males
D. Increased corneal vascularity
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
214
What is the most common inherited disease of domestic rabbits? __________________________
Mandibular prognathism
215
The incisors wear more slowly on the anterior/posterior aspect in rabbits partly because the enamel is
thicker/thinner on this side
Anterior, thicker
216
Rabbits with malocclusion have a normal dental formula. True/False
True
217
144. In rabbits with malocclusion, the maxilla is _____________ in length, while the mandible is
_____________________ in length
short, normal
218
145. The condition characterized by the complete abduction of one or more legs and the inability to
assume a normal standing position is called ______________________________.
Splay leg
219
Inherited self-mutilation behavior occurs in the _______________________.
Checkered cross
220
What is the most common tumor in rabbits? _____________________________
Uterine adenocarcinoma
221
Embryonal nephromas are common tumors and usually result in the death of the neonate. True/False
False, an incidental finding
222
What tumor models had cells that were originally derived from rabbits? ___________________,
______________________, and ________________________.
VX-2 carcinoma, the Brown-Pearce carcinoma, Greene melanoma
223
150. What two types of crystals are normally present in rabbit urine? ___________, ______________
Calcium carbonate; triple phosphate
224
151. Hydrometra typically occurs in female rabbits postpartum. True/False
False, in unmated female rabbits.
225
What is the colliculus seminalis?
A valve like structure at the entrance of the vesicular gland from the urethra which controls release of sperm and vesicular gland secretions in rabbits and prevents entry of urine into reproductive glands.
226
What accessory sex glands are located along the dorsal aspect of the male rabbit urethra?
Seminal gland, vesicular gland, proprostate, prostate, paraprostate and bulbourethral gland.
227
Does the rabbit have an os penis?
NO
228
Why is rabbit urine generally cloudy?
High precipitate concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium carbonate monohydrate
Rabbits
flashcards
Decks in class (16)
# Cards
-
BB CH 9 KD228
-
PB Ch6 Rabbit105
-
SBG Rabbit Qs_BBCh977
-
BB AALA Ch11 Rabbits63
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch7 - Rabbit Genetics and Models22
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch8 - Rabbit Anatomy & Physiology24
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch9 - Rabbit colony management25
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch10 - Experimental Methods in Rabbits28
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch11 - Polyclonal Antibody Production23
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch12 - Toxicity Testing in Rabbits40
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch13 - Rabbit Bacterial Diseases91
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch14 - Rabbit Viral Diseases56
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch16 - Rabbit Neoplasia19
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch17 - Mycoses & Noninfectious Diseases62
-
BB LRGPHOR Ch18 - Rabbit Experimental Models50
-
Rabbit parasitic and fungal diseases56
