1
Q
- Sheep, goats, and cattle are called _________. Their taxonomy is:
A
- ungulates, order Artiodactyla, suborder Ruminantia, family Bovidae
2
Q
- Members of Bovidae have these characteristics:
a) Even number of toes
b) Compartmentalized forestomach
c) Horns
d) All of the above
A
d
3
Q
- They are obligate herbivores- this means________.
A
- They derive all their glucose from gluconeogenesis
4
Q
- Further taxonomy of sheep is:
A
- Subfamily Caprinae, genus Ovis. Domestic sheep are Ovis aries
5
Q
- Goat taxonomy is:
A
- Subfamily Caprinae, genus and species Capra hircus
6
Q
- Cattle taxonomy for the 2 main domesticated species are:
A
- Subfamily Bovinae, Genus and species Bos taurus and Bos indicus
7
Q
- Breeds of sheep are classified as:
A
Meat, wool, or dual-purpose
8
Q
- Breeds of goats are classified as:
A
Dairy, meat, fiber, skin-type
9
Q
- Breeds of cattle are classified as:
A
Dairy, beef, dual-purpose
10
Q
- A few of the more important uses of ruminants in biomedical research are:
A
- Models of cardiac transplantation, evaluation of cardiac assist or prosthetic devices, embryo transfer, gene transfer, cloning (think of Dolly), antibody production
11
Q
- Basic and applied fetal and reproductive research often uses which species?
A
Sheep
12
Q
- T or F: Auction barns or sales often provide good quality animals for research purposes.
A
False
13
Q
- Health screening profiles for sheep might include:
A
- Q fever, contagious ecthyma, caseous lymphadenitis, Johne’s disease, ovine progressive pneumonia, internal and external parasites
14
Q
- Health screening profiles for goats might include:
A
- Q fever, caprine arthritis encephalitis, brucellosis, tuberculosis, and Johne’s disease
15
Q
- Health screening profiles for cattle might include:
A
- Johne’s disease, brucellosis, tuberculosis, tuberculosis, respiratory diseases, internal and external parasites, foot conditions, persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhrea virus (BVDV).
16
Q
- T or F: ruminants are sensitive to stress, so care must be taken to insure minimal stress in handling, shipping, and housing of these animals.
A
True
17
Q
- T or F: Ruminants are solitary animals and do well in single housing
A
False
18
Q
- Light cycles (photoperiods) for ruminants should be:
A) 12hours light:12 hours dark
B) 8 hours light: 16 hours dark
C) 16 hours light: 8 hours dark
D) like natural conditions
E) none of the above
A
D
19
Q
- The compartments of the upper GI tract are:
A
- 3 compartments of the forestomach- rumen, reticulum, and omasum. The true stomach is the abomasum
20
Q
- In neonates, passive transfer refers to what?
A
- Intestinal immunoglobulin absorption by pinocytosis in the first 36 hrs after birth
21
Q
- Ruminant erythrocytes are a) larger or b) smaller, than in other mammals.
A
b - smaller
22
Q
- A good reference for drug-therapy recommendations in food animals is what?
A
- Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD), http://www.farad.org
23
Q
- Wooden tongue is caused by which organism?
A
- Actinobacillus lignieresii
24
Q
- Transmission of Actinobacillus lignersii occurs when the organism penetrates wounds of the skin, especially the mouth. T or F
A
True
25
4. Actinomyces bovis causes what cattle disease?
Lumpy jaw
26
5. What is the most common etiologic agent causing omphalophebitis (navel ill)?
5. Truperella pyogenes
27
6. Bacillus anthracis infection (anthrax) is usually fatal in ruminants. T or F
True
28
7. Anthrax is a reportable disease. T or F
True
29
8. The most common clinical signs associated with brucellosis (Brucella abortus and B. melitensis) are:
8. Late term abortion, epididymitis, orchitis, chronic infection of the udder
30
9. Brucellosis is self-limiting and needs no treatment or management . T or F
9. F. Culling is the treatment of choice for infected animals.
31
10. Campylobacteriosis (Vibriosis) can cause what clinical signs in sheep and cattle?
10. Abortions – C. fetus subsp. intestinalis in sheep and C. fetus subsp. veneralis in cattle
32
11. The most common caprine skin infection is caused by which organisn?
11. Staphylococcus intermedius or S. aureus.
33
12. Death due to Clostridium perfringens type C and D affect young animals and is usually fatal. T or F
True
34
13. C. perfingens type D is common in which species: A) Sheep B) Sheep and goats C) Cattle D) Sheep, goats, and cattle?
A
35
14. Clostridium tetani infection (tetanus) causes death by septicemia. T or F
14. F. The endotoxin is neurotoxic and hemolytic, and death results from respiratory failure.
36
15. Clostridium novyi and C. chauvoei cause similar infections in cattle and sheep. The common name of C. novyi infection is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and the common name for C. chauvoei is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
15. Bighead and black disease; blackleg
37
16. Vaccinations may prevent C. novyi and C. chauovei infections. T or F
True
38
17. Malignant edema is an acute, often fatal disease caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
17. Clostridium septicum and often mixed with other clostridial species.
39
18. The four types(groups for classification) of E. coli that are associated with colibacillosis are :
18. Enterotoxigenic, enterohemorrohagic, enteropathogenic, and enteroinvasive.
40
19. Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
19. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
41
20. Caseous lymphadenitis can be treated effectively with antibiotics. T or F
False
42
21. The most common agent causing pyelonephritis in cattle is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and the agents causing posthitis in sheep and goats are\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
21. Corynebacterium renale; C. cystidis and C. pilosum.
43
22. Erysipelas is caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and causes what disease clinical signs in young lambs?
22. Chronic polyarthritis
44
23. Mycotic dermatitis (lumpy wool) and strawberry foot rot are caused by what bacteria?
23. Dermatophilus congolensis
45
24. Which two bacteria work synergistically in causing contagious foot rot in sheep and goats?
24. Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
46
25. Which two bacteria cause foot rot of cattle?
25. Fusobacterium necrophorum and Prevotella melaninogenic (formerly Bacteroides melaninogenicus).
47
26. Papillomatous digital dermatitis in cattle, also known as heel warts, is caused by several spp. of bacteria and spirochete-like organisms. T or F
True
48
27. ***Histophilus somni*** infection can cause many disease conditions, including (pick all that apply):
A) thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)
B) septicemia
C) arthritis
D) reproductive failure
E) respiratory disease
F) dermatitis
27. A, B, C, D, and E
49
28. Leptospirosis can cause ______________ in sheep and goats, and _____ in cattle.
28. Abortion, anemia, hemoglobinuria, and icterus in sheep and goats; Same signs as in sheep and goats, plus meningitis and death in calves, abortion and drop in milk production in cows.
50
29. Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease. T or F
True
51
30. ***Listeria monocytogenes*** is most commonly acquired by ruminants in which way:
A) arthropod vectors
B) fecal-oral
C) spoiled silage and contaminated feed
D) airborne
C
52
31. The three forms of listeriosis are:
31.
1. Encephalitis (most common in ruminants)
2. Placentitis with abortion
3. Septicemia with hepatitis and pneumonia
53
32. The disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is :
Lyme disease
54
33. The most common cause of infectious bovine keritoconjunctivitis (IBK) is :
33. **Moraxella bovis**
55
34. ***Mycobacterium bovis***, M. avium, and M. tuberculosis are all pathogens of domestic ruminants and these pathogens are zoonotic. T or F
True
56
35. Johne’s disease is caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
35. ***Mycobacterium paratuberculosis***
57
36. Which pathogens are most closely associated with shipping fever?
36. ***Mannheimia hemolytica*** and ***P. multocida***
58
37. Salmonellosis in ruminants may present as these clinical signs (choose all that apply):
A) gastroenteritis
B) septicemia
C) abortion
37. A, B, and C
59
38. Spirochete-associated abortion in cattle is transmitted by which tick vector?
38. ***Ornithodorus coriaceus***
60
39. Tularemia is caused by what pathogen?
39. *Pasteurella (Francisella) tularensis*
61
40. What are the animal reservoirs of Tularemia in the western US?
40. Wild rodents and rabbits
62
41. Clinical signs of Yersiniosis (***Yersinia enterocolitica***) are (choose all that apply): A) sudden death B) diarrhea C) abortion D) internal abscesses
A, B, C, D
63
42. Mycoplasma bovigenitalium and M. bovis have been associated with which clincial signs: A) infertility and abortions B) pneumonia C) enteritis
A
64
43. ***Mycoplasma mycoides*** biotype F38 is the agent responsible for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
43. Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
65
44. Infectious conjunctivitis, or pinkeye, in sheep and goats is associated with which pathogen?
44. ***Mycoplasma conjunctivae***
66
45. Eperythrozoonosis is a _____________ agent causing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
45. Rickettsial, anemia
67
46. Q fever is caused by _______________ and is zoonotic.
46. ***Coxiella burnetii***
68
47. Adenovirus infections causes which clinical signs (choose all that apply):
A) pneumonia
B) enteritis
C) conjunctivitis
D) abortion
47. A, B, C, and D
69
48. What is the etiologic agent of bluetongue?
bluetongue virus - Orbivirus, family Reoviridae (RNA)
arthropod-borne
affects mainly sheep
70
49. bovine lymphosarcoma virus
deltaretrovirus (DNA)
only associated with adult or enzootic bovine lymphoma, most common bovine neoplastic disease in the US
71
50. Swelling, vesicles, and ulcers on the teats and udder may be associated with what virus?
50. Bovine herpesvirus 2 (bovine herpes mammillitis)
72
51. Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) infection is associated with what clinical signs?
51. May be subclinical, abortions, congenital abnormalities, diarrhea, oculonasal discharge.
Flaviviridae
73
52. Cache Valley virus (CVV) causes teratogenic effects including arthrogryposis, microencephaly, and cerebellar hypoplasia in A) calves B) lambs C) kids
B
74
53. The most important viral disease of goats is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
53. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus (CAEV), Lentivirus, famil Retroviridae
75
54. This virus causes respiratory and reproductive diseases in cattle, including conjunctivitis, rhinotracheitis, pustular vulvovaginitis, balanoposthitis, encephalomyelitis, and mastitis.
54. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus
76
55. Parainfluenza 3 infection is often fatal in small ruminants. T or F
False
77
56. Severe respiratory disease in calves and yearling cattle is often caused by this virus:
56. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus, family Paramyxoviridae, genus Pneumovirus
78
57. Ulcers and crusts on the skin and mucous membranes of the face, genitalia, and feet of sheep caused by a poxvirus is called:
57. Ulcerative dermatosis
79
58. Border disease causes what clinical signs in sheep and goats (choose all that apply):
A) early embryonic death
B) arthrogryposis
C) hypothyroidism
D) tremors
58. A, B, C, and D
80
59. Orf is known by what other names, and is caused by what agent?
Contagious ecthyma, contagious pustular dermatitis, sore mouth
parapox virus, family poxviridae
81
60. Foot-and-Mouth disease is caused by what agent? which species are usually clinically affected?
Aphthovirus, family picornavirus
cattle, swine, sheep
82
61. Infection with malignant catarrhal fever in cattle can be acquired from other ruminants, including sheep and goats, birds, water troughs, and contaminated fomites. T or F
True
83
62. The clinical signs of ovine progressive pneumonia are :
62. Weakness, unthriftiness, weight loss, pneumonia, mastitis
84
63. Poxviruses of ruminants can cause erosions and ulcers on the skin of cattle, sheep and goats. T or F
True
85
64. Pulmonary adenomatosis is a wasting disease of sheep caused by a ___________ virus.
64. Type D retrovirus
86
65. Warts on cattle are often caused by this virus\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
65. Bovine papillomavirus
87
66. Pseudorabies (Aujeszky’s disease) is usually asymptomatic in ruminants. T or F
66. False- pseudorabies is usually fatal in cattle, sheep , and goats
88
67. The three phases of rabies infection are:
67. Prodromal, excitatory, and paralytic
89
68. Scrapie and Bovine spongiform elcephalopathies are forms of :
68. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
90
69. Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause flu-like illness in people. T or F
True
91
70. Name 2 viral agents of diarrhea in sheep:
70. Rotavirus, coronavirus
92
71. Name 3 viral agents of diarrhea in goats:
71. Rotovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus
93
72. Name 4 viral agents of diarrhea in cattle:
72. Rotavirus, coronavirus, parvovirus, bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV)
94
73. Name the agent responsible for enzootic abortion of ewes.
73. ***Chlamydophila abortus***
95
74. The agent responsible for enzootic abortion in ewes is zoonotic, and causes serious disease in pregnant women. T or F
True
96
75. Cause of polyarthritis and infectious keritoconjunctivitis in sheep.
Clamydophila pecorum
97
76. The major clinical signs associated with ***Anaplasma marginale*** infection in cattle is :
76. Anemia
98
77. ***Babesia bovis*** and ***Ba. bigemina*** can cause these signs in infected cattle:
77. Hemolysis with icterus, hemoglobinuria, and fever, resulting in liver and kidney failure.
99
78. ***Babesia bovis*** and ***Ba. bigemina*** are transmiteed by this tick:
78. ***Boophilus spp***
100
79. Two common protozoal diseases responsible for diarrhea in young ruminants are:
79. Coccidiosis (***Eimeria*** spp.) and Cryptosporidiosis (***Cryptosporium*** spp.)
101
80. ***Giardia lamblia*** is not a major cause of diarrhea in ruminants. T or F
True
102
81. The definitive host for ***Neospora caninum***, which causes abortion and neonatal disease in ruminants, is the \_\_\_\_\_\_. Neospora causes ___ in cattle?
Dog
abortions
103
82. Domestic ruminants are the definitive hosts for ***Sarcocystis*** spp. T or F
82. False- carnivores (including humans) are the definitive hosts.
104
83. Toxoplasmosis (***Toxoplasma gondii***) can cause ____________ in sheep and goats.
Abortion
105
84. The obligate intracellular protozoal parasite of cattle causigng herd infertility problems is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
84. ***Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) fetus***
106
85. Name four (or more) common nematode parasites of domestic ruminants.
85. ***Haemonchus contortus, H. placei*** – sheep and goats
***Ostertagia (Teladorsagia) circumcincta*** – sheep and goats
***Ostertagia ostertagi*** – cattle
***Trichostrongylus vitrinus, T. colubriformis*** – sheep and goats, ***T. axei***- cattle, sheep and goats
***Nematodirus spathiger, N. battus
Cooperia curticei***– sheep and goats,***C. punctata, C. oncophora*** – cattle, sheep and goats
***Grongeyloides papillosus-*** sheep and cattle
***Bunostomum trigonocephalum*** – sheep
***Oesophagostomum columbianum, O. venulosum*** – sheep and cattle
***Chabertia ovis*** – sheep, goats, cattle
***Trichuris spp.*** – sheep , goats, cattle
***Dictyocaulus filaria***- sheep, ***D. viviparus*** – cattle
107
86. Name two (or more) common cestode parasites of domestic ruminants.
86. ***Moniezia expansa
Thysanosoma actinoides
Taenia hydatigena
Echinococcus granulosus*** (hydatid cyst disease)
108
87. Name one (or more) common trematode parasite of domestic ruminants.
87. ***Fasciola hepatica*** (liver fluke)
* **Fascioloides magna*** (liver fluke)
* **Dicrocoelium dendriticum*** (liver fluke)
* **Paramphistomum microbothrioides, P. cervi*** (rumen fluke)
109
88. Symptoms of mite infestation in ruminants are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
88. Chronic dermatitis, intense pruritis
110
89. T/F Lice are generally species-specific.
True
111
90. Ruminants are susceptible to many species of ___________ (hard-shell ticks) and ___________ (soft-shell ticks).
90. Ixodidae, Argasidae
112
91. Nasal bots in sheep are the larval form of the botfly \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
91. ***Oestrus ovis***
113
92. ***Cochliomyia hominivorax*** (***Callitroga americana***) is also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
92. The screwworm fly
114
93. Sheep keds, known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, can transmit the _____ virus.
93. ***Melophagus ovinus***
bluetongue
115
94. Ringworm in ruminants is mostly caused by dermatophytes of the genera:
Trichophyton and Microsporidium
116
95. Calves are more prone to abomasal and duodenal ulcers than adult cattle. T or F
True
117
96. Bloat is caused by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
96. Usually the consumption of abundant quantities of succulent forages or grains.
118
97. Pregnancy toxemia (ketosis) occurs in ewes that either are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
97. Obese, carrying twins or triplets.
119
98. Male ruminants suffer from urolithiasis more commonly than female ruminants. T or F
True
120
99. White muscle disease is due to a deficiency of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
99. Selenium or vitamin E
121
100. Polioencephalomalacia is due to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, often resulting from toxic plants or moldy feed containing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
100. Thiamin deficiency, thiaminases
122
101. Neonatal ruminants must receive colustrum within 24 hours after birth to prevent this condition.
101. Failure of passive transfer
123
102. Catheter sites or injections can cause iatrogenic infection or nerve injury. T or F
True
124
Fainting goats have what inherited condition, which serves as a model for which human condition?
caprine myotonia congenita
Thomson's disease - human myotonia congenita
125
the process of preparing cattle for research with appropriate transitional diet and vaccination program is known as
backgrounding
126
What compounds are produced by the rumen ecoystem?
volatile fatty acids - acetic, proprionic, butyric
vitamin B complex
vitamin K
protein
127
Elevation of which liver enzyme is most indicative of hepatic damage in goats?
a. AST
b. LDH
c. ALT
d. GGT
d. GGT
ALT can be used in sheep and cattle.
128
Male ruminants may develop urinary calculi as a result of the following except
a. excessive phosphorus
b. low calcium-phosphorus ration
c. low magnesium
d. excessive magnesium
c. low magnesium
129
130
Describe cycle type, estrus cycle duration, and gestation length of cattle, sheep, and goats
cattle: polyestrous, 18-24 days, 270-292 days
sheep: seasonal polyestrous induced by increasing day length, 14-19 days, 147-150 days
goats: seasonal polyestrous induced by increasing day length, 18-24 days, 144-155 days
131
Describe the placentation of ruminants
epitheliochorial, cotyledonary
132
which ungulate commonly exhibits pseudopregnancy?
goat
133
describe Bacillus anthracis
nonmotile, encapsulated, spore forming, aerobic, gram-positive bacillus
134
135
What organsism causes Struck in sheep?
Clostridium perfringens type C - beta (necrotizing) toxins lead to hemorragic lesions
136
Most common cause of acute mastitis in sheep
Mannheimia hemolytica
137
Most common cause of acute mastitis in goats
Staphylococcus spedermidis and other spp.
138
Import bans on ruminants from Germany could be due to the discover of what agent in 2011?
Schmallenberg virus (orthobunyvirus)
139
Ruminants
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