BB2 Qs Flashcards

Question

State what type of herniation A-D are [4]

Answer 1

A: **Cingulate** (Subfalcine) B: **Central** (**transtentorial**) C: **Uncal** D: Downward cerebellar (**Tonsillar**)

Answer 2

**Uncal** Central (transtentorial) Cingulate (Subfalcine) Transcalvarial Upward cerebellar (transtentorial) Downward cerebellar (Tonsillar)

Answer 3

What type of herniation is depicted? Uncal Central (transtentorial) **Cingulate (Subfalcine)** Transcalvarial Upward cerebellar (transtentorial) Downward cerebellar (Tonsillar)

Answer 4

What type of herniation is depicted? Uncal Central (transtentorial) Cingulate (Subfalcine) **Transcalvarial** Upward cerebellar (transtentorial) Downward cerebellar (Tonsillar)

Answer 5

What type of herniation is depicted? **Uncal** Central (transtentorial) Cingulate (Subfalcine) Transcalvarial Upward cerebellar (transtentorial) Downward cerebellar (Tonsillar)

Answer 6

What type of herniation is depicted? **Uncal** Central (transtentorial) Cingulate (Subfalcine) Transcalvarial Upward cerebellar (transtentorial) Downward cerebellar (Tonsillar) Uncal herniation. Arrows point to the medial temporal lobe that has herniated through the tentorial incisura to compress the midbrain

Answer 7

Decorticate posturing (figure top) decerebrate posturing (figure bottom)

Answer 8

Which of the following is most likely to occur to a young adult with a skull fracture? A: SDH = subdural haematoma **B: EDH = epidural haematoma** C: IPH = intraparenchymal haemorrhage D: SAH = subarachnoid haemorrhage

Answer 9

**Intracerebral haematoma (ICH)**

Answer 10

Epidural haematoma (EDH)

Answer 11

What type of hameotoma is depicted? Epidural haematoma (EDH) Subdural haematoma (SDH) **Subarachnoid haematoma (SAH)** Intracerebral haematoma (ICH)

Answer 12

What type of hameotoma is depicted? Epidural haematoma (EDH) Subdural haematoma (SDH) **Subarachnoid haematoma (SAH)** Intracerebral haematoma (ICH) There is high-attenuation blood in the Sylvian fissures (blue arrows) and the interhemispheric fissure (red arrow) seen on this non-contrast enhanced CT of the brain. Do not confuse normal, physiologic calcifications (white and black arrows) for bloo

Answer 13

Which of the following opiods has a large half life so is used for long dosing? Herion Dextromoramide Meptazinol **Methadone** Morphine

Answer 14

Which of the following opiods produces the least amount of respiratory depression? Herion Dextromoramide **Meptazinol** Methadone Morphine

Answer 15

A patient develops acute left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. Which cerebral vessel is involved? A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Vertebrobasilar artery **C. Middle cerebral artery** D. Posterior cerebral artery

Answer 16

Which neurologic deficit is associated with infarct of the anterior cerebral artery? A. Upper extremities motor function and temperature sensation B. Posture **C. Lower extremities motor function** D. Cervical level sensation

Answer 17

**Right MCA Stroke** (or non-dominant hemisphere stroke) Neglect syndrome

Answer 18

A 66-year-old male with a past medical history of right middle cerebral artery stroke presents for evaluation. During one of his sessions, he was asked to draw a clock and write the time at 15 minutes after 3. The clock has a flat left side, and the numbers 1 through 8 are correct in order but crowded onto to right side of the clock. The patient was able to draw the hands correctly. When asked to copy an object, he was able to do the right side appropriately but was missing the left side of the drawing. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? A. Hemianopsia **B. Hemineglect** C. Visual constructional abilities D. Hemiparesis

Answer 19

(A = middle meningeal artery) **Epidural (extradural) hematoma**

Answer 20

Which of the following is the most common? A B C D

Answer 21

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 22

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 23

What are the MR signal characteristics of early subacute intracranial hemorrhage? A. Dark of T1, Bright on T2 B. Dark on T1, Dark on T2 C. Bright on T1, Bright on T2 **D. Bright on T1, Dark on T2**

Answer 24

A patient presents to the emergency department with a severe headache and is suspected of having a subarachnoid bleed. What is the next step in the investigation? A. Brain MRI B. CT of the brain with contrast **C. CT of the brain without contrast** D. Lumbar puncture

Answer 25

A patient develops acute left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. Which cerebral vessel is involved? A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Vertebrobasilar artery **C. Middle cerebral artery** D. Posterior cerebral artery

Answer 26

Which neurologic deficit is associated with infarct of the anterior cerebral artery? A. Upper extremities motor function and temperature sensation B. Posture **C. Lower extremities motor function** D. Cervical level sensation

Answer 27

**Right MCA Stroke** (or non-dominant hemisphere stroke) Neglect syndrome

Answer 28

A 66-year-old male with a past medical history of right middle cerebral artery stroke presents for evaluation. During one of his sessions, he was asked to draw a clock and write the time at 15 minutes after 3. The clock has a flat left side, and the numbers 1 through 8 are correct in order but crowded onto to right side of the clock. The patient was able to draw the hands correctly. When asked to copy an object, he was able to do the right side appropriately but was missing the left side of the drawing. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? A. Hemianopsia **B. Hemineglect** C. Visual constructional abilities D. Hemiparesis

Answer 29

(A = middle meningeal artery) **Epidural (extradural) hematoma**

Answer 30

Subarachnoid hematoma

Answer 31

Which of the following is the most common? A B C D

Answer 32

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 33

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 34

What are the MR signal characteristics of early subacute intracranial hemorrhage? A. Dark of T1, Bright on T2 B. Dark on T1, Dark on T2 C. Bright on T1, Bright on T2 **D. Bright on T1, Dark on T2**

Answer 35

A patient presents to the emergency department with a severe headache and is suspected of having a subarachnoid bleed. What is the next step in the investigation? A. Brain MRI B. CT of the brain with contrast **C. CT of the brain without contrast** D. Lumbar puncture

Answer 36

Which artery would a stroke occur in to cause this eye sight deficit? Anterior Cerebral Artery Middle Cerebral Artery **Posterior Cerebral Artery** Internal Carotid Artery Homonymous Hemianopia after Posterior Cerebral Artery Territory Infarction (Mosaic, VF, MRI)

Answer 37

A patient has a recent stroke and presents to you because they have are having problems with urinary incontinence. Where was their stroke most likely to have occured? **Anterior Cerebral Artery** Middle Cerebral Artery Posterior Cerebral Artery Internal Carotid Artery

Answer 38

Which artery has caused this stroke? Right Anterior Cerebral Artery Left Anterior Cerebral Artery Right Middle Cerebral Artery Right Posterior Cerebral Artery **Left Posterior Cerebral Artery**

Answer 39

A: SCA B: BA C: PCA D: AICA E: VA

Answer 40

Which of the following is the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage? arteriovenous malformation berry aneurysm cerebral amyloid angiopathy dural arteriovenous fistula **trauma**

Answer 41

Subarachnoid hematoma

Answer 42

**Xanthochromia** is the presence of **bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid** and is sometimes the only sign of an **acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.**

Answer 43

**Subarachnoid hematoma** Lumbar puncture - Evidence of blood in 3% of people with normal CT

Answer 44

Which receptor is involved in cold sensitisation? TRPV1 **TRPM8** TRPV2 TRPC2 TRPV2

Answer 45

What primary afferent sensory fibre in the foot would be activated by a putting on a sock? Alpha **Beta** Delta C-fibre All of the above

Answer 46

Lamina I & Lamina II

Answer 47

Medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus

Answer 48

A: CA2 B: CA3 Both undergo atrophy in epilepsy

Answer 49

The CA areas are all filled with densely packed **pyramidal** cells that make up the stratum pyramidale

Answer 50

EAAT1 EAAT2 (causes more glutamate in synapse)

Answer 51

Chanderlier cell specialized GABAergic interneuron subtype that selectively innervates pyramidal neurons at the axon initial segment (AIS), the site of action potential generation

Answer 52

which of the following is formed from basilar artery: anterior spinal artery middle cerebral artery **posterior cerebral artery** posterior inferior cerebellar artery anterior cerebral artery

Answer 53

what is C? middle cerebral artery basilar artery **posterior cerebral artery** anterior cerebral artery internal carotid artery

Answer 54

what is C? middle cerebral artery basilar artery posterior cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery **internal carotid artery**

Answer 55

what is B? **middle cerebral artery** basilar artery posterior cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery internal carotid artery

Answer 56

1. **opthalmic artery:** orbit & retina. connects to external carotid artery 2. **posterior communicating:** connext with carotid & vertebral artery system 3. **middle cerebral artery:** connects to basal ganglia and lateral 2/3rds of cortex 4. **anterior cerebral artery:** connects with medial side frontal & parietal lobes, anastamoses with MCA

Answer 57

which artery is a branch of the ICA that occurs in the cavernous sinus? middle cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery posterior communicating artery menigeal branch **opthalmic artery**

Answer 58

which of the following supplies the basal ganglia & lateral 2/3rd of the cortex? **middle cerebral artery** anterior cerebral artery posterior communicating artery menigeal branch opthalmic artery

Answer 59

which of the following connects to the external carotid artery? middle cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery posterior communicating artery menigeal branch **opthalmic artery**

Answer 60

which of the following supplies the corpus callosum? middle cerebral artery **anterior cerebral artery** posterior communicating artery menigeal branch opthalmic artery

Answer 61

**cavernous sinus**

Answer 62

which artery most commonly supplies Broca's & Wernicke's areas? ACA **MCA** PCA Basilar A ICA

Answer 63

1: **anterior cerebral A** 2: **middle cerebral A** 3: **posteror cerebral A** 4: **anterior choroidal A** 5: **lenticulostriate (branch of MCA)**

Answer 64

which artery provides blood to the midbrain & thalamus PICA AICA superior cerebllar artery pons **posterior cerebral artery**

Answer 65

A 40-year-old male construction worker fell from the 2nd floor of a construction site. He initially lost consciousness. At the emergency department, the patient regained consciousness and again deteriorated. CT scan revealed a biconvex hyperdensity on the left temporoparietal region. The patient's findings are most consistent with an injury of what artery? A. Ophthalmic artery B. Temporal artery **C. Middle meningeal artery** D. Left basilar artery

Answer 66

A 65-year-old male is hit on the head with a baseball bat. He temporarily loses consciousness and then recovers 20 minutes later. To ensure that everything is fine, he is seen in the emergency department where he promptly collapses again and becomes unresponsive. The pathology behind his disorder is most likely related to which of the following? A. Emboli to the ophthalmic artery B. Injury to the temporal artery **C. Bleeding from the middle meningeal artery** D. Injury to the anterior communicating vessels

Answer 67

Epidural hematma commonly effects which cranial nerve? **CN III** CN IV CN V CN VI CN VII

Answer 68

Which type of haematoma has a delayed onset? Epidural haematoma Subarachnoid haematoma **Subdural haematoma** Intracranial haematoma

Answer 69

Which type of haematoma is commonly desribed as a thunderclap headache? Epidural haematoma **Subarachnoid haematoma** Subdural haematoma Intracranial haematoma

Answer 70

The arrow would most likely cause which of the following? Epidural haematoma **Subarachnoid haematoma** Subdural haematoma Intracranial haematoma | Arrow = aneursym

Answer 71

A patient develops acute left hemiplegia involving the face more than the arm and leg. The suck and grasp reflexes and speech are preserved. Which cerebral vessel is involved? A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Vertebrobasilar artery **C. Middle cerebral artery** D. Posterior cerebral artery

Answer 72

Which neurologic deficit is associated with infarct of the anterior cerebral artery? A. Upper extremities motor function and temperature sensation B. Posture **C. Lower extremities motor function** D. Cervical level sensation

Answer 73

Which neurologic deficit is associated with infarct of the anterior cerebral artery? A. Upper extremities motor function and temperature sensation B. Posture **C. Lower extremities motor function** D. Cervical level sensation

Answer 74

**Right MCA Stroke** (or non-dominant hemisphere stroke) Neglect syndrome

Answer 75

A 66-year-old male with a past medical history of right middle cerebral artery stroke presents for evaluation. During one of his sessions, he was asked to draw a clock and write the time at 15 minutes after 3. The clock has a flat left side, and the numbers 1 through 8 are correct in order but crowded onto to right side of the clock. The patient was able to draw the hands correctly. When asked to copy an object, he was able to do the right side appropriately but was missing the left side of the drawing. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? A. Hemianopsia **B. Hemineglect** C. Visual constructional abilities D. Hemiparesis

Answer 76

**Split-brain syndrome** ACA syndrome - **because supplies corpus callosum**

Answer 77

(A = middle meningeal artery) **Epidural (extradural) hematoma**

Answer 78

Subarachnoid hematoma

Answer 79

Which of the following is the most common? A B C D

Answer 80

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 81

**red arrow: EDH** brown arrow shows how EDH respects the suture margins **yellow arrow points at SAH** **green arrow: SDH** blue arrow shows the fracture

Answer 82

What are the MR signal characteristics of early subacute intracranial hemorrhage? A. Dark of T1, Bright on T2 B. Dark on T1, Dark on T2 C. Bright on T1, Bright on T2 **D. Bright on T1, Dark on T2**

Answer 83

A patient presents to the emergency department with a severe headache and is suspected of having a subarachnoid bleed. What is the next step in the investigation? A. Brain MRI B. CT of the brain with contrast **C. CT of the brain without contrast** D. Lumbar puncture

Answer 84

Which artery would a stroke occur in to cause this eye sight deficit? Anterior Cerebral Artery Middle Cerebral Artery **Posterior Cerebral Artery** Internal Carotid Artery Homonymous Hemianopia after Posterior Cerebral Artery Territory Infarction (Mosaic, VF, MRI)

Answer 85

A patient has a recent stroke and presents to you because they have are having problems with urinary incontinence. Where was their stroke most likely to have occured? **Anterior Cerebral Artery** Middle Cerebral Artery Posterior Cerebral Artery Internal Carotid Artery

Answer 86

Which artery has caused this stroke? Right Anterior Cerebral Artery Left Anterior Cerebral Artery Right Middle Cerebral Artery Right Posterior Cerebral Artery **Left Posterior Cerebral Artery**

Answer 87

A: SCA B: BA C: PCA D: AICA E: VA

Answer 88

Which of the following is the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage? arteriovenous malformation berry aneurysm cerebral amyloid angiopathy dural arteriovenous fistula **trauma**

Answer 89

Subarachnoid hematoma

Answer 90

**Xanthochromia** is the presence of **bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid** and is sometimes the only sign of an **acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.**

Answer 91

**Subarachnoid hematoma** Lumbar puncture - Evidence of blood in 3% of people with normal CT

Answer 92

What does the CT depcit? Epidural haematoma **Subarachnoid haematoma** Subdural haematoma Intracranial haematoma

Answer 93

A: ICH B: SDH C: SAH

Answer 94

L: SAH R: ICH

Answer 95

Which of the following is a cluster headache? A **B** C D E

Answer 96

Which of the following does a migraine start from ? A **B** - hypothalamus C D E

Answer 97

Which of the following would detect a change in pH? **ASICs** TRPM8 Nav1.7 TRPV1

Answer 98

Which of the following would detect the cooling effect of this sweet? ASICs **TRPM8** Nav1.7 TRPV1

Answer 99

Which of the following would detect the heating effect of this food? ASICs TRPM8 Nav1.7 **TRPV1** aka capsaicin receptor

Answer 100

Which of the following serve to receive and transmit information primarily relating to acute pain? Aα Aγ **Aδ** Aβ C

Answer 101

Which of the following serve to receive and transmit information primarily relating to touch? Aα Aγ Aδ **Aβ** C

Answer 102

Which of the following serve to transmit information primarily relating to pain, temperature and itch. Aα Aγ Aδ Aβ **C**

Answer 103

Which of the following serve to transmit information primarily relating to proprioception (muscle sense) **Aα** Aγ Aδ Aβ C

Answer 104

Which of the following serve to transmit information relating to this image? Aα Aγ Aδ **Aβ** C

Answer 105

Which of the following serve to transmit information relating to this image? Aα Aγ **Aδ** Aβ C

Answer 106

Mutations in which of the following would cause this diease? ASICs TRPM8 **Nav1.7** Congenital insensitivity to pain (CIP): TRPV1

Answer 107

TRKA gene codes for TrKA receptor: causes NGF to be rpoduced

Answer 108

Which of the following is key in modulation of pain and empathy Anterior cingulate cortex Prefrontal cortex **Insula** Amygdala

Answer 109

A 56-year-old right-handed man is brought to the emergency department 90 minutes after acute-onset right arm weakness, difficulty forming words, and sustained dizziness. His past medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabetes and hypertension. A CT head without contrast demonstrates no acute hemorrhage or lesion, but shows an area of hypodensity and associated mild parenchymal swelling deep within the left peri-Sylvian fissure. Which of the following vessels is most likely implicated in the etiology of this patient's current condition? A. M1 segment of the middle cerebral artery B. A2 segment of the anterior cerebral artery C. A3 segment of the anterior cerebral artery **D. M2 segment of the middle cerebral artery** insula is supplied by the M2 MCA

Answer 110

Which of the following is A **Anterior cingulate cortex** Prefrontal cortex Insula Amygdala

Answer 111

Which of the following is the amygdala A **B** C D E

Answer 112

Which of the following modulates pain by releasing seratonin on descending pathways? PAG Locus coeruleus **Raphe nucleus** Amygdala Reticular formation

Answer 113

Which of the following modulates pain by releasing noradrenaline on descending pathways? PAG **Locus coeruleus** Raphe nucleus Amygdala Reticular formation

Answer 114

A: Peri-aqueductal grey (PAG) B: Locus coeruleus C: Raphe nucleus

Answer 115

A: allodynia B:hyperalgesia

Answer 116

Slipped disc

Answer 117

**Hip pain** -- radiates to knee

Answer 118

Right shoulder

Answer 119

A 24-year-old patient presents to the hospital complaining of sharp pain on the left side of her forehead. Which of the following artery supplies the part of the brain necessary for the sensory processing of this pain? A. Right posterior inferior cerebellar artery B. Left posterior cerebral artery **C. Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery** D. Anterior communicating artery The left posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the spinal trigeminal nucleus on the left lateral medulla.

Answer 120

D. Left spinal trigeminal nucleus A A college student on a winter break at a resort falls asleep near a radiator in the room. He wakes up feeling hot as the left side of his face is close to the radiator. Where does the initial processing of this sensory information take place? A. Right spinal trigeminal nucleus B. Left nucleus ambiguous C. Trigeminal motor nucleus **D. Left spinal trigeminal nucleus**

Answer 121

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

Answer 122

A: normal B: coma C: Vegetative state D: Minimally concious state E: Locked in syndrome

Answer 123

A 45-year-old man with a history of diabetes is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state. With brief noxious stimulation, the patient has no movement or change in mental status, and the eyes remain closed. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition? A. Stupor B. Obtundation C. Lethargy **D. Coma**

Answer 124

Which of the following is associated with Alzheimer’s disease Locked-in syndrome Coma **Akinetic mutism** Minimally conscious state Vegetative state (VS) / Unresponsive wakefulness syndrome (UWS)

Answer 125

Which of the following is associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome **Locked-in syndrome** Coma Akinetic mutism Minimally conscious state Vegetative state (VS) / Unresponsive wakefulness syndrome (UWS)

Answer 126

Decorticate: Damage above red nucleus

Answer 127

A: Vegetative state B: Minimally conscious state (MCS)

Answer 128

What would you try and identify around 300 ms after an auditory change in a monotonous sequence of sound to assess consciousness in an comatose patient? P200 **P300** P400 P500

Answer 129

The P300 appearance corresponds to the activation of a **frontoparietal** network.

Answer 130

Zolpidem is used orally as a short term treatment (2-6 weeks) for insomnia, but has been shown to cause patients to momentarily awake from PVS. What is its MoA? Glutamate receptor agonist Glutamate receptor antagonist **GABA-A receptor agonist** GABA-A receptor antagonist

Answer 131

Which of the following is ketamine's target? **NMDA glutamate receptors** CB1 receptors GABA-A receptors 5HT3 receptors

Answer 132

Which of the following are ethanol's targets? [2] **NMDA glutamate receptors** CB1 receptors **GABA-A receptors** 5HT3 receptors

Answer 133

**C. Prefrontal region and dopamine**

Answer 134

**B. Cocaine**

Answer 135

Which of the following would be the most appropriate for the blank space? The meso-limbic dopamine system that projects from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the **[]** has been implicated in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse Amygdala Hypothalamus Cingulate cortex Pre-frontal cortex **Nucleus accumbens**

Answer 136

Which of the following would be the most appropriate for the blank space? The meso-limbic dopamine system that projects from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the **[]** has been implicated in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse Amygdala Hypothalamus Cingulate cortex Pre-frontal cortex **Nucleus accumbens**

Answer 137

Which of the following would be the most appropriate for the blank space? The meso-limbic dopamine system that projects from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the **[]** has been implicated in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse Amygdala Hypothalamus Cingulate cortex Pre-frontal cortex **Nucleus accumbens**

Answer 138

Activation of which receptor by dynorphins and GABA-A underlines the mechanism of withdrawal symptoms NMDA receptors Mu opoid receptors Dopamine (D1) receptors **Kappa opoid receptors**

Answer 139

Atypical antipsychotic drugs target which receptor/s D1 receptors D2 receptors D1 & D2 receptors D1 & 5-HT2 receptors **D2 & 5-HT2 receptors**

Answer 140

What is the most common type of dementia? **Alzheimers Disease** Vascular Dementia Mixed AD + VaD Dementia with Lewy Body

Answer 141

Which of the following is associated with late onset AD PSEN1 PSEN2 APP **APoE**

Answer 142

Which change in AD pathophysiology relates to cognitive decline? Beta amyloid plaques **Hyperphosporylated Tau**

Answer 143

Which of the following is used for tretment for severe AD? **memantine** donepezil rivastigmine galantamine

Answer 144

Which of the following treatments for AD is a NMDA antagonist **memantine** donepezil rivastigmine galantamine

Answer 145

A 57-year-old male comes to the office for a routine visit. His symptoms are a shuffling gait, pill-rolling tremor, and a masked face. What is the underlying pathology of the disease? A. Loss of alpha-synuclein, leading to a destruction of the caudate of the basal ganglia B. Lesions in bilateral aspects of the internal capsule **C. Destruction of the substantia nigra pars compacta and striatum** D. Apoptosis in the substantia nigra pars reticulata

Answer 146

A 65-year-old man with a past medical history of hypertension presents to the emergency department after being found down and somnolent at home by his wife. On physical exam, the patient is showing left-sided weakness and has difficulty understanding words spoken to him. A brain MRI is obtained, which shows a stroke in the area of the brain composed of the caudate and lenticular nuclei. Where are the basal ganglia located? A. The inferior aspect of the temporal lobe B. Parietal lobe near the central sulcus C. Lateral aspect of the pons D.**Surrounding the thalamus**

Answer 147

3 Head of caudate nucleus 4 Putamen 9 Internal capsule

Answer 148

A: **Putamen** B: **Globus pallidus (internal and external capsule)** Together: **Lentiform nucleus**

Answer 149

**Caudate nucleus**

Answer 150

A: **caudate nucleus** B: **internal capsule** C: **putamen** D:**globus pallidus** E: **subthalamic nuclei**

Answer 151

Which numbers are the: caudate nucleus: **8** putamen: **12** internal capsule: **9** lateral ventricle: **19**

Answer 152

A: **caudate nucleus** B: **putamen** C: **Globus pallidus external** D: **Globus pallidus internux** E: **Subthalamic nucleus** F: **Substantia nigra (SN)**

Answer 153

4: (head) of **caudate nucleus** 13: **putamen** 14: **internal capsule**

Answer 154

3: **Head of caudate nucleus** 4: **Putamen** 9: **Internal capsule**

Answer 155

5: **ICA** 7: **Basilar artery** 10: **Caudate nucleus** 11: **Internal capsule** 12: **Lentiform nucleus (Putamen & Globus pallidus** 13: **Caudal extremity of caudate nucleus**

Answer 156

1 Internal capsule 2 Head of the caudate nucleus

Answer 157

**athetosis** Lesions to which region causes this symptom? Subthalamic nuclei Substantia nigra Pre supplementary motor area Lentiform nucleus **Dorsal striatum**

Answer 158

A: **caudate nucleus & putamen** B: **substantia nigria pars reticulata** C: **globus pallidus internal** D: **superior colliculus** E: **VA / VL complex - in the thalamus**

Answer 159

Below is a coronal section of the cerebrum. Which of the following labels corresponds to an intrinsic nuclei of the basal ganglia? A B **C** D

Answer 160

Which structure separates the caudate nucleus from the putamen? Lateral ventricle **Internal capsule** Globus pallidus Claustrum

Answer 161

Parkinsons: **hypokinetic disease** HD: **hyperkinetic disease**

Answer 162

**Ballismus** Lesions to which region causes this symptom? **Subthalamic nuclei** Substantia nigra Pre supplementary motor area Lentiform nucleus Dorsal striatum

Answer 163

Which of the following is the substantia nigra A B C D **E**

Answer 164

Which stages of Braak staging of Parkinsons are symptoms most likely to develop? Braak 1 & 2 **Braak 3 & 4** Braak 5 & 6

Answer 165

Which of the following dopamine agonists can be used as a transdermal patch? bromocriptine, pramipexole ropinirole **rotigotine** Apomorphine

Answer 166

carbidopa and benserazide utilise whoch of the following mechanisms? Dopamine agonist COMT inhibitor **Decarboxylase inhibitor** MAO inhibitor

Answer 167

Q Which of the following dopamine agonists can be used as an infusion for major motor fluctuations? bromocriptine, pramipexole ropinirole rotigotine **Apomorphine**

Answer 168

selegiline utilise utilise which of the following mechanisms? Dopamine agonist COMT inhibitor Decarboxylase inhibitor **MAO inhibitor**

Answer 169

Which drug class may be used as an adjunct to levodopa therapy Dopamine agonist **COMT inhibitor** Decarboxylase inhibitor MAO inhibitor

Answer 170

Which of the following are longer acting drugs require fewer daily doses and this can be an advantage when there are swallowing difficulties **Dopamine agonist** COMT inhibitor Decarboxylase inhibitor MAO inhibitor

Answer 171

Which of the following are longer acting drugs require fewer daily doses and this can be an advantage when there are swallowing difficulties **Dopamine agonist** COMT inhibitor Decarboxylase inhibitor MAO inhibitor

Answer 172

State which of the following pattern of MS is depicted **Primary progressive MS (PPMS)** Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS) Secondary progressive MS (SPMS): Clinically isolated syndrome (CIS)

Answer 173

State which of the following pattern of MS is depicted Primary progressive MS (PPMS) **Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)** Secondary progressive MS (SPMS): Clinically isolated syndrome (CIS)

Answer 174

State which of the following pattern of MS is depicted Primary progressive MS (PPMS) Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS) **Secondary progressive MS (SPMS):** Clinically isolated syndrome (CIS)

Answer 175

Which area of the brain is where conscious intentions are formed and we become aware of motor movement? orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex **posterior parietal cortex** medial pre-frontal cortex dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex

Answer 176

Which of the following areas are involved in Initiating, inhibiting and swtiching executive behaviour: input to the basal ganglia about stop / start orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex posterior parietal cortex medial pre-frontal cortex **dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex**

Answer 177

which of the following guides and monitos actions that are internally guided according to preferences and goals orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex posterior parietal cortex **medial pre-frontal cortex** dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex

Answer 178

Which of the following modulates the degrees of cognitive control need to keep in behaviour in line with the goal orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex posterior parietal cortex **medial pre-frontal cortex** dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex

Answer 179

Which of the following modulates value for rewards and punishers **orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex** posterior parietal cortex medial pre-frontal cortex dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex

Answer 180

“pseudopsychopathic” behaviours occurs due to lesions in which of the following brain areas **orbitofrontal (pre-frontal) cortex** posterior parietal cortex medial pre-frontal cortex dorso-lateral pre-frontal cortex

Answer 181

Purple: premotor orange: dorsolateral prefrontal green: orbitofrontal grey: FEF

Answer 182

pre-motor cortex

Answer 183

supplementory motor area:

Answer 184

Which of the following ensures that the eyes do not lag behind when the head moves to one side rubrospinal tract reticulospinal tract lateral vestibulospinal tract **medial vestibulospinal tract**

Answer 185

Which of the following controls posture and balance rubrospinal tract reticulospinal tract **lateral vestibulospinal tract** medial vestibulospinal tract

Answer 186

Which of the following controls flexor muscle tone **rubrospinal tract** reticulospinal tract lateral vestibulospinal tract medial vestibulospinal tract

Answer 187

tectospianl

Answer 188

tectospinal

Answer 189

Which of the following synapses on the extensor antigravity motor neurons rubrospinal tract reticulospinal tract **lateral vestibulospinal tract** medial vestibulospinal tract

Answer 190

Lenticulostiate arteries

Answer 191

1 - superior temporal gyrus; 2 - inferior frontal gyrus; 3 - insular cortex; 4 - temporal stem; **5 - internal capsule;** **6 - thalamus;** **7 - lentiform nucleus** (the internal and external globus pallidus and the putamen) 8 - frontal horn; 9 - superior circular sulcus; 10 - inferior circular sulcus.

Answer 192

A: **M1: horizontal section** B: **M3: cortical section** C: **Sylvian section**

Answer 193

M1: **supplies blood supply to the basal ganglia via the lenticulostriate arteries & motor cortex**. Causes a very bad lesion M3: **Only supplies motor cortex alone** - Less bad lesion

Answer 194

The corticobulbar tracts provide innervation to the musculature of which region of the body? **Head and neck** Upper limbs Lower limbs Neck

Answer 195

A lesion of the CST cranial to the decussation of the pyramids will result in deficits on the **contralateral** side. A lesion of the CST caudal to the decussation of the pyramids will result in deficits on the **ipsilateral** side.

Answer 196

**Corticobulbar tract**

Answer 197

A: **purkinje layer** B: **molecular layer (outer)** C: **granular layer (inner)**

Answer 198

1 Superior cerebellar peduncle 2 Middle cerebellar peduncle 3 Cerebellar tonsil 4 Inferior semilunar lobule

Answer 199

10 Flocculus of cerebellum

Answer 200

A: Anterior lobe B: Posterior lobe C: Flocculonodular lobe.

Answer 201

A: Midbrain B: Superior cerebellar peduncle C: Pons D: Pyramid E: Olive

Answer 202

A: middle cerebellar peduncle B: cerebellar hemisphere C: Inferior cerebellar peduncle

Answer 203

A: vermis B: anterior lobe C: posterior lobe

Answer 204

A: Floccus B: cerebellar tonsil C: vermis D: superior cerebellar peduncle E: 4th ventricle

Answer 205

A: middle cerebellar peduncle

Answer 206

20: Vermis 35 Superior cerebellar peduncle 36 Inferior cerebellar peduncle 37 Middle cerebellar peduncle 38 Cerebellar hemisphere

Answer 207

Superior cerebellar artery

Answer 208

A: AICA B: PICA C: Superior Cerebellar Artery D: PCA E: ICA F: ACA

Answer 209

when the blood has to enter the PICA, it has to **essentially do a U-turn** into the **PICA**. Turbulent flow makes atheroma’s easy to form due to erosion/endothelial damage caused by this flow | 7 = PICA

Answer 210

A: molecular layer B: granular cell layer C: Purkinje cells

Answer 211

Which of the following EEG frequencies are responsbile for 'active wakefullness & REM sleep'? Gamma **Beta** Alpha Theta Delta

Answer 212

Which of the following EEG frequencies are active during for 'sleep & meditation'? Gamma Beta Alpha **Theta** Delta

Answer 213

Which of the following EEG frequencies are active during 'active information processing''? **Gamma** Beta Alpha Theta Delta

Answer 214

Which of the following EEG frequencies are occur while resting with the eyes closed'? Gamma Beta **Alpha** Theta Delta

Answer 215

Which type of tremor indicates Parkinsons Disease unless proven otherwise? Reemergent tremor **Resting tremor** Intentional tremor Postural tremor

Answer 216

Targeting which area of the brain may help elleviate addiction? Brodmann area 25 (Subcallosal cingulate) Hypothalamus Thalamic centromedian/parafascicular complex **Nucleus Accumbens** Anterior of the fornix

Answer 217

Targeting which area of the brain may help alleviate anorexia? Brodmann area 25 (Subcallosal cingulate) **Hypothalamus** Thalamic centromedian/parafascicular complex Nucleus Accumbens Anterior of the fornix

Answer 218

Targeting which area of the brain may help AD? Brodmann area 25 (Subcallosal cingulate) Hypothalamus Thalamic centromedian/parafascicular complex Nucleus Accumbens **Anterior of the fornix**

Answer 219

Targeting which area of the brain may help treatment resistant deepression? **Brodmann area 25 (Subcallosal cingulate)** Hypothalamus Thalamic centromedian/parafascicular complex Nucleus Accumbens Anterior of the fornix

Answer 220

Targeting which area of the brain may help Tourette Syndrome? Brodmann area 25 (Subcallosal cingulate) Hypothalamus **Thalamic centromedian/parafascicular complex** Nucleus Accumbens Anterior of the fornix

Answer 221

**3- Disruption hypothesis** DBS activates axon terminals in the stimulated nucleus, induces extensive release of neurotransmitters, such as GABA and glutamate (Glu), and dissociates inputs and outputs in the stimulated nucleus

Answer 222

'Deep brain stimulation also excites afferent axons antidromically' Which of the following best describes this theory of how DBS works 1- Inhibition hypothesis **2- Excitation hypothesis** 3- Disruption hypothesis 4- Neuro-network modulation hypothesis

Answer 223

Which of the following nuclei is connected to cerebrocerebellum? **Dentate** Emboliform Globos Fastigial

Answer 224

A: Fastigial B: Interposed nuclei C: Dentate nuclei

Answer 225

A 65-year-old male presents with his wife. The wife has noticed frequent falls over the past few months. She states that the patient often takes long pauses between syllables of words. On examination, he is alert and able to follow commands. There is also jerky speech, dysmetria, and some difficulty with tandem gait. Which other feature is most likely to be present in this patient? **A. Horizontal nystagmus** B. Downbeat nystagmus C. Horizontal diplopia D. Vertical diplopia

Answer 226

Inability to conduct this exam would indicate a lesion to which part of the cerebellum? cerebrocerebellum spinocerebellum **vestibulocerebellum**

Answer 227

The heeel to foot test assesses which part of the cerebellum? **cerebrocerebellum** spinocerebellum vestibulocerebellum

Answer 228

This image is testing for which of the following? **Dysdiadochokinesis** Dysmetria Intention tremors Unsteady gait

Answer 229

Neocerebellar

Answer 230

Which of the following is the anterior / ventral spinocerebellar tract A **B** C D E F

Answer 231

Which of the following is the posterior / dorsal spinocerebellar tract **A** B C D E F

Answer 232

A. **Spinocerebellum** comprises the anterior lobe and vermis, connected to the fastigial, globose and emboliform nuclei B. **Cerebrocerebellum** is comprised of the posterior lobe (cerebellar hemispheres) controlled by the dentate nucleus C. **Vestibulocerebellum** comprises the flocculonodular lobe and its connections to the lateral vestibular nucleus of the pons

Answer 233

A: inferior cerebellar peduncle B: Vestibular nuclei

Answer 234

Ventral Posterolateral Nucleus (VPL)

Answer 235

NSAIDs combat fever by inhibiting which prostaglandin? ** Prostaglandin E2** Prostaglandin I2 Prostaglandin D2 Prostaglandin F2

Answer 236

Which nuclei controls circadian rhythm? Paraventricular nucleus **Suprachiasmatic nucleus** Arcuate nucleus Pre-optic nucleus Supraoptic nucleus

Answer 237

GABA & Galanin neurons project from which nucleus? Paraventricular nucleus Suprachiasmatic nucleus Arcuate nucleus **Pre-optic nucleus** Supraoptic nucleus

Answer 238

Which EEG wave represents feeling of being drowsy? **Alpha** Beta Theta Delta

Answer 239

Which sleep stage does this EEG show? Beta REM Theta **Alpha** Delta

Answer 240

Which sleep stage does this EEG show? Beta REM **Theta** Alpha Delta

Answer 241

Which sleep stage does this EEG show? Beta **REM** Theta Alpha Delta

Answer 242

What is the biggest cause of insomnia? Primary insomnia **Psyciatric disorders** Medication Unknown

Answer 243

Which stage of sleep normally lasts the longest? Stage 1 **Stage 2** Stage 3 Stage 4

Answer 244

A deficency in which of the following causes narcolepsy? **Orexins** Histamines GABA Melatonin Setaonin

Answer 245

A: Benzo B: Barbiturate

Answer 246

Pregabalin acts on the α2δ subunit of what type of channels **Ca2+** K+ Amines Na+ NH3

Answer 247

Ketamine works as an antagonist to which of the following? Ca2+ AMPA glutamate receptor Amines Na+ **NMDA Glutamate receptor**

Answer 248

Baclofen is an agonist to which of the following Ca2+ AMPA glutamate receptor Amines **GABA** NMDA Glutamate receptor

Answer 249

Which class of drugs can you not use / creates lots of AEs if they eat food like red wine, cheese or mature cheese? TCAs SNRIs MAOIs SSRIs

Answer 250

Which is the first line drug choice for treating depression TCAs SNRIs **MAOIs** SSRIs

Answer 251

Which is the most selective SSRI? **citalopram** sertraline fluoxetine paroxetine

Answer 252

Which of the following is a reversible MAOI? phenelzine **moclobemide** tranylcypromine agomelatine

Answer 253

Which of the following drug class cause discontinuation syndrome TCAs SNRIs MAOIs **SSRIs**

Answer 254

Which of the following is noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor? Duloxetine **Reboxetine** Mirtazapine Tianeptine Trazodone

Answer 255

Which of the following is noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants? Duloxetine Reboxetine **Mirtazapine** Tianeptine Trazodone

Answer 256

Which of the following is a serotonergic antagonist and reuptake inhibito (SARI)? Duloxetine Reboxetine Mirtazapine Tianeptine **Trazodone**

Answer 257

Which of the following reduces the increased default mode network connectivity seen in depression? **Duloxetine** Reboxetine Mirtazapine Tianeptine Trazodone

Answer 258

Which drug class has the highest risk for mania if used to treat depression in bipolar patients? **TCAs** SNRIs MAOIs SSRIs

Answer 259

Which area is the DBS target for treating depression: **subgenual cingulate cortex** What the is the Broadmann area? 21 22 23 24 **25**

Answer 260

Which of the following would be used to treat treatment resistant depression Duloxetine **Esketamine** Mirtazapine Brexanalone Trazodone

Answer 261

Which of the following would be used to treat post-partum depression Duloxetine Esketamine Mirtazapine **Brexanalone** Trazodone

Answer 262

The Frontal Eye Fields are supplied by which artery ACA **MCA** PCA Anterior Choroidal Lenitculate striate

Answer 263

Urinary incontinence is caused by a stroke to which of the following: **ACA** MCA PCA Anterior Choroidal Lenitculate striate

Answer 264

Anosmia is caused by a stroke to which of the following: **ACA** - olfactory bulb MCA PCA Anterior Choroidal Lenitculate striate

Answer 265

Abulia: an absence of willpower or an inability to act decisively, a symptom of schizophrenia or other mental illness. **ACA** frontal lobe MCA PCA Anterior Choroidal Lenitculate striate

Answer 266

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia is caused by a stroke to which of the following ACA **MCA** Optic Radiation effected PCA Anterior Choroidal Lenitculate striate

Answer 267

Which lobe undergoes most degeneration in AD Frontal Parietal **Temporal** Occipital

Answer 268

Significant loss of temporal lobe + cholinergic nuclei Especially **hippocampus + entorhinal cortex**

Answer 269

Significant loss of **striatal volume**: Enlarged ventricles as a result

Answer 270

In HD which part of the basal ganlgia becomes hyperactive? GPin Putamen **GPex** Result in **inhibited STN = GPint** is not able to inhibit thalamus Caudate nucleus

Answer 271

WHAT IS LABELLED 4? **Caudate** Internal capsule Globus pallidus Nucleus Accumbens Fornix Lateral Ventricles

Answer 272

WHAT IS LABELLED 8? Internal capsule Thalamus **Fornix** Nucleus Accumbens Septum pellucidum Globus pallidus int.

Answer 273

What is 13? Internal capsule Amygdala **Hippocampus** Caudate Putamen Globus pallidus int

Answer 274

What is A? **Cingulate gyrus** Parahippocampal gyrus Thalamus Lateral ventricles Insular cortex

Answer 275

Substantia Nigra Subthalamic nucleus

Answer 276

Stenosis to which artery causes 10% of all strokes? ACA **Carotid** PICA Lenticulostriate MCA

Answer 277

The -Bamford classification for stroke bases the classification of which factor? Vasculature effected **Whole clinical picture** Aetiology Imaging (MRI / CT)

Answer 278

The Toast classification for stroke bases the classification of which factor? Vasculature effected Whole clinical picture **Aetiology** Imaging (MRI / CT)

Answer 279

Lies above the **corpus callosum**

Answer 280

A: **Dentate gyrus** B: **Parahippocampal gyrus** C: **Uncus of parahippocampal gyrus**

Answer 281

A: **cingulate gyrus** B: **corpus callosum** C: **fornix** D: **parahippocampal gyrus** E: **subcallosal area**

Answer 282

A: **Fornix** B: **Cingulate cortex** C: **Thalamus** D: **Mamilllary body** E: **Hippocampus** F: **Amygdala**

Answer 283

A: **Anterior commissure** B: **Amygdala** C: **Hippocampal**

Answer 284

14 Pulvinar of thalamus 15 Mamillary body 16 Optic tract 17 Anterior commissure

Answer 285

18 **Fornix** 19 Longitudinal stria 20 **Dentate gyrus** 21 **Hippocampal** fimbria 22 Pes **hippocampi**

Answer 286

Which of the following is the amygdala **A** B C D E

Answer 287

Which part of the limbic region can modulate the startle reflex? Hippocampus **Amygdala** Parahippocampal gyrus Posterior cingulate gyrus Anterior cingulate gyrus

Answer 288

Which of the following is involved in memory formation **Hippocampus** Mamilliary bodies Parahippocampal gyrus Posterior cingulate gyrus Anterior cingulate gyrus

Answer 289

Which of the following is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation Hippocampus Mamilliary bodies Parahippocampal gyrus Posterior cingulate gyrus **Anterior cingulate gyrus**

Answer 290

Which of the following is involved in recalling emotional memories Hippocampus Mamilliary bodies Parahippocampal gyrus **Posterior cingulate gyrus** Anterior cingulate gyrus

Answer 291

Toxoplasma gondii is a parasite that exploits this role of which part of the limbic system? Hippocampus **Amygdala** Parahippocampal gyrus Posterior cingulate gyrus Anterior cingulate gyrus Toxoplasma gondii parasite linked to **risky business behavior**?

Answer 292

which of the following does the mastoid fonatelle turn into after sutures have closed? bregma pterion **asterion** lamboid gonion

Answer 293

which of the following does the sphenoid fonatelle turn into after sutures have closed? bregma **pterion** asterion lamboid gonion

Answer 294

Which suture connects the two parietal bones to the frontal bone? Sagittal suture Squamous suture **Coronal suture** Lambdoid suture

Answer 295

How many bones contribute to the orbit? 5 6 **7** 8 9

Answer 296

The glossopharnygeal nerve passes through which foramen? **Jugular foramen** Superior orbital fissure Foramen ovale Internal acoustic meatus Foramen rotundum

Answer 297

The facial nerve passes through which foramen? Jugular foramen Superior orbital fissure Foramen ovale **Internal acoustic meatus** Foramen rotundum

Answer 298

the spinal cord terminates at the: cauda equina filum terminale **conus medullaris** foramen magnum 1st coccygeal vert

Answer 299

Which vertebral level do you go under to perform a lumbar puncture? L1 **L2** L3 L4 L5

Answer 300

which foramen does the internal carotid artery pass over the top of? foramen spinosum carotid canal jugular foramen **foramen lacerum** foreman magnum

Answer 301

spinal accessory nerves leave the skull via which foramen? foramen spinosum carotid canal **jugular foramen** foramen lacerum foramen magnum

Answer 302

Q You are examining a 79-year-old woman who presented last night with stroke-like symptoms. She has suspected lateral medullary syndrome. On examination, she has loss of taste in the posterior third of her tongue and an absent gag reflex. What structure does the likely affected cranial nerve pass through? Foramen ovale Foramen rotundum Hypoglossal canal Internal auditory meatus **Jugular foramen** CNIX passses through here

Answer 303

Q From which of these foraminae does the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull? Foramen ovale Foramen rotundum Foramen spinosum **Superior orbital fissure** Foreman magnum

Answer 304

What is the most likely diagnosis of this image? **Shingles** Trigeminal neuralgia Hand, foot and mouth Measle

Answer 305

Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal Mandibular Branch, Cervical branch

Answer 306

What is the most likely diagnosis? [1] Left sided haemorrhage Right sided haemorrhage Left sided tumour **Right sided tumour** This is most likely an acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma) - a type of tumour.

Answer 307

Acoustic schwannomas are most likely to affect **CNVIII (vestibulocochlear) first**

Answer 308

A: **cerebral aquaduct** B: **olfactory tract** C: **Optic nerve and optic chiasma** D: **Oculomotor nerve (n. III)** E: **Substantia nigra** F: **Trochlea nerve**

Answer 309

A: **Oculomotor nerve (n. III)** B: **Trigeminal nerve (n. V)** C: **Abducent nerve (n. VI)** D: **Facial nerve (n. VII)** E: **Vestibulocochlear nerve (n. VIII)**

Answer 310

27 Flocculus of cerebellum 28 Glossopharyngeal nerve (n. IX) & VN (n X) 29 Hypoglossal nerve (n. XII) 30 Accessory nerve (n. XI) 31 Vermis of cerebellum

Answer 311

Anterior cingulate gyrus and parahippcampal gyrus

Answer 312

Which of the following is A Anterior cingulate gyrus Hippocampus Amygdala **Dentate gyrus** Parahippocampal gyrus Uncus of parahippocampal gyrus

Answer 313

Which of the following is B? Mamillary Bodies **Hippocampus** Amygdala Dentate gyrus Parahippocampal gyrus Fornix

Answer 314

Which of the following is A? Mamillary Bodies Hippocampus **Amygdala** Dentate gyrus Parahippocampal gyrus Fornix

Answer 315

Which of the following is F? Mamillary Bodies Hippocampus Amygdala Dentate gyrus Parahippocampal gyrus **Fornix**

Answer 316

Locked-in syndrome arises due to damage at **ventral pons** lateral pons superior pons inferior pons

Answer 317

Persistent vegetative state is defined as **Vegetative state persisting for at least 1 month after TBI or non-TBI.** Vegetative state persisting for at least 12 months after traumatic injury. Vegetative state persisting for at least 3 months after non-traumatic causes Vegetative state persisting for at least 6 months after non-traumatic causes Vegetative state persisting for at least 2 months afterTBI or non-TBI.

Answer 318

A: Minimally consciousness state B: vegatative syndrome C: locked in syndrome D: REM sleep E: coma

Answer 319

Zolpidem is a drug that causes patients to temporarily leave vegetative state. What is its MoA? GABA-A antagonist **GABA-A agonist** NMDA Glutamate antagonist NMDA Glutamate agonist AMPA Glutamate antagonist

Answer 320

Amantadine helps patients recover from TBI. What is its mechanism of action? GABA-A antagonist GABA-A agonist **NMDA Glutamate antagonist** AND **blocks dopamine reuptake** NMDA Glutamate agonist AMPA Glutamate antagonist

Answer 321

Urbach-Wiethe disease is a build up of which ion that causes wasting of the amygdala Na+ K+ Cl- **Ca2+** H+

Answer 322

Which of the following is a gene that is associated with late onset AD? PSEn1 PSEN2 **MAPT** APP APOE4

Answer 323

A person with which of the following may have: slurred, nasal-sounding or breathy speech Dysarthrophonia **Dysarthria** Dysphonia Aphasia

Answer 324

A 60-year-old female has non-fluent aphasia characterized by good comprehension but poor repetition. What is the best description of this condition? A. Wernicke aphasia **B. Broca aphasia** C. Anomic aphasia D. Mixed transcortical aphasia

Answer 325

A mass lesion with an ICP of ≥ [] mmHg can cause herniation 12 14 16 18 **20** Normal: 5-15 mmHG

Answer 326

A patient presents to A&E with a GCS of less than what a score will cause them to have an immediate CT scan? <15 <14 **< 13** <12 <11

Answer 327

What size haematoma would be evacuated regardless of GCS? > 3cm2 **> 30cm2** > 3 mm2 > 30 mm2

Answer 328

Which of the following may not present with symptoms for weeks / months? **A: subdural haematoma** B: epidural haematoma C: intraparenchymal haemorrhage D: subarachnoid haemorrhage

Answer 329

**Cingulate (subfalcine)**

Answer 330

A Status epilepticus is a form of epilepsy which is a life-threatening medical emergency where seizures last more than how many minutes? 3 mins **5 mins** 8 mins 10 mins

Answer 331

Which of the following should not be used to treat an absence seizure as they may exacerbate it? Sodium valproate Lamotrigine **Phenytoin** Pregabalin Ethosuximide

Answer 332

Which drug class increases the duration of GABA channels? Benzodiazepines **Barbiturates** Sulfonamides GABA agonists

Answer 333

Which drug class increases the frequency of the opening of GABA channels? **Benzodiazepines** Barbiturates Sulfonamides GABA agonists

Answer 334

Which of the following inhibits GABA transaminase to prevent GABA breakdown **Vigabatrin** Levetiracetam Phenobarbitone Tiagabine

Answer 335

Which of the following targets GAT-1 transporter to inhibit GABA reuptake Vigabatrin Levetiracetam Phenobarbitone **Tiagabine**

Answer 336

Q Which of the following type of channel does carbamazepine target? Ca2+ GABA **Na+** Glutamate

Answer 337

Which of the following common causes a sudden occipital headache A: subdural haematoma B: epidural haematoma C: intraparenchymal haemorrhage **D: subarachnoid haemorrhage**

Answer 338

Xanthochromia occurs from which type of bleed A: subdural haematoma B: epidural haematoma C: intraparenchymal haemorrhage **D: subarachnoid haemorrhage**

Answer 339

Pre-natal viral infection is associated with which of the following? Depression Anxiety Epilepsy **Schizophrenia** AD

Answer 340

SCH patients have reduced density of whichof the following: **Oligodendrocyte** less of the gene neuroreguin Astrocytes Ependymal cells Microglial cells

Answer 341

SCH patients have reduced density of whichof the following: **Oligodendrocyte** less of the gene neuroreguin Astrocytes Ependymal cells Microglial cells

Answer 342

SCH patients have reduced density of whichof the following: **Oligodendrocyte** less of the gene neuroreguin Astrocytes Ependymal cells Microglial cells

Answer 343

SCH patients have reduced density of whichof the following: **Oligodendrocyte** less of the gene neuroreguin Astrocytes Ependymal cells Microglial cells

Answer 344

Which of the following is caused by 'imbalance of production and absorbtion of endolymph, which ulitmately can result in tympanic membrane bursting' benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) labyrinthitis **ménière's disease** vestibular neuritis perilymph fistula

Answer 345

What does this image depict? benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) labyrinthitis **ménière's disease** vestibular neuritis perilymph fistula

Answer 346

What does this image depict? **benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)** labyrinthitis ménière's disease vestibular neuritis perilymph fistula

Answer 347

Hallpike’s Manoeuvre:

Answer 348

With the patient lying in supine position, the head is lowered quickly below the horizontal plane of the table and **turned to one side.** The patient then sits up and the test is repeated, turning the **head to the other side**. If there is vestibular dysfunction, the patient will **develop nystagmus** and complain of vertigo within 10 seconds of head movement

Answer 349

Vestibular-ocular reflex

Answer 350

A 17-year-old female presents with worsening hearing on her right side. The clinician identifies a significant amount of cerumen impaction in the right external auditory canal. The patient is positioned supine, and her head is elevated 30 degrees. The right auditory meatus is irrigated with warm water. After a large piece of cerumen dislodges, the clinician continues to irrigate; however, the patient states she "feels funny." What will most likely be seen on an ocular exam? **A. Fast beating nystagmus towards the right** B. Fast beating nystagmus towards the left C. Conjugate eye deviation towards the right D. Conjugate eye deviation towards the left

Answer 351

**B. Stimulation of the left ear with cold water causes right nystagmus** This patient has suffered a traumatic brain injury (TBI). With an intact gag reflex, CN IX and X are intact, as is the vestibulo-ocular reflex (CV VIII and III/IV). Therefore, one would expect a positive response to caloric testing, which can be remembered by recalling the pneumonic "COWS," cold opposite, warm same.

Answer 352

A: ampullae B: utricle C: saccle

Answer 353

A: Ampulla B: Cupulla C: Crista D: Vestibulocochlea nerve

Answer 354

SCN9A codes for which of the following TRPM8 TRPV1 ASICS **Nav7**

Answer 355

Loss of which of the following would cause congenital insensitivity to pain? TRPM8 TRPV1 ASICS **Nav7**

Answer 356

The lateral spinothalamic tract finishes its path two locations. One of them is listed below - which is it? Primary somatosensory cortex Secondary somatosensory cortex **Rostral insula** AND **Anterior cingulate gyrus** Amygdala Orbitofrontal cortex

Answer 357

ventral posterior lateral nucleus (VPL) ventral posterior inferior nucleus (VPI)

Answer 358

medial dorsal nucleus ventral posterior inferior nucleus (VPI)

Answer 359

The sprouting of which fibres in the dorsal horn can modulate chronic pain Aalpha **Abeta** Adelta C

Answer 360

Neuron growth factor is coded for by which gene? SCN9A **TRKA** MC1R COMT

Answer 361

Which of the following dampens pain? Serotonin **Dopamine** Noradrenaline

Answer 362

Which of the following causes vasodilation in the peripheral sensitisation to pain? Histamines H+ ATP **Substance P** along with **CGRP**

Answer 363

After major depression after significant life events, which receptor undergoes polymorphism? Dopamine Noradrenaline **Serotonin** Glutamate

Answer 364

subgenual cingulate cortex

Answer 365

Which of the following causes weight gain as side effect? **TCAs**: blockage of histamines 1 receptors SNRIs MAOIs SSRIs

Answer 366

Which of the following is the most cardiotoxic? **Amitriptyline** Nortriptyline Citalopram Sertraline Fluoxetine

Answer 367

Which of the following requires a PPI is also using an NSAID? TCAs SNRIs MAOIs **SSRIs**

Answer 368

Which of the following does not cause discontinuation syndrome? Amitriptyline Nortriptyline Moclobemide Trazodone **Agomelatine**

Answer 369

Which antidepressant medications have a possible increased risk of suicidality among pediatric and young adult (up to age 25) populations? TCAs SNRIs MAOIs **SSRIs**

Answer 370

This patient is most likely to have suffered from Depression AD **MS**: decrease in white matter Parkinsons Epilepsy

Answer 371

Deficiency in which vitamin is associated with MS? Vitamin B1 Vitamin C Vitamin B6 **Vitamin D** Vitamin B12

Answer 372

This histological slide is most likely from a patient suffering from which of the following? Depression AD **MS** Parkinsons Epilepsy

Answer 373

Which viral infection is associted with MS? **Epstein-Barr Virus** Toxoplasmosis gondii Cytomegalovirus Human papilloma virus

Answer 374

A 28-year-old healthy female presents to the provider's office because of double vision, which started 4 days ago. She has a 2-week history of right-sided numbness and mild headaches. She is a nonsmoker and does not drink alcohol. On examination, vital signs were normal. Eye examination shows isochoric pupils equally reactive to light, and the extraocular muscle exam shows **she is unable to gaze past the midline with her right eye and develops horizontal nystagmus of the left eye when looking to the left**. Convergence and eye movement to the right are normal. There were no other cranial nerve deficits. The motor examination was normal. The sensory exam reveals a slight deficit on the left arm and leg to light touch and pinprick. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's lesion? A. Bickerstaff encephalitis B. Infarction of the pons C. Autoimmune vasculitis **D. Multiple sclerosis** The patient has a right internuclear ophthalmoplegia secondary to a lesion at the right medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF).

Answer 375

If a patient is unable to gaze past the midline with her right eye and develops horizontal nystagmus of the left eye when looking to the left, where is her lesion? [1] **right medial longitudinal fasciculus** Internuclear ophthalmoplegia presents with **impairment** of **adduction** Looking to the opposite side of the affected eye will cause double vision.

Answer 376

MS: Dawsons fingers

Answer 377

What is 8? Corpus Callosum Hippocampus Subthalamic nuclei **Nucleus accumbens** Putamen

Answer 378

What is 8? Anterior commissure **Fornix** Lateral ventricle Putamen Nucleus accumbens

Answer 379

What is 5? Hypothalamus Fornix Amygdala **Hippocampus** Thalamus

Answer 380

What is 5? Hypothalamus Fornix **Amygdala** Hippocampus Thalamus

Answer 381

What is 3? **Hypothalamus** Fornix Amygdala Hippocampus Thalamus

Answer 382

What is 10? Hypothalamus **Fornix** Amygdala Hippocampus Thalamus

Answer 383

A:Cingulate cortex nuclei B: Anterior thalamic C:Mammillary bodies D: hippocampus

Answer 384

A firefighter, with a history of traumatic brain injury after falling from a ladder, presents to the clinic for follow-up. He complains of anterograde amnesia ever since the accident. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals damage to the hypothalamic structure involved in memory. What thalamic nucleus receives input from the affected structure? A. Midline nucleus B. Dorsomedial nucleus C.** Anterior nucleus** D. Lateral dorsal nucleus

Answer 385

An MRI of a 56-year-old man shows a lesion in the amygdala. Which relevant pathway involving the amygdala has been proposed as a substrate for the human ability to infer the intentions of others from their language, gaze, and gestures? A. Dorsal route via stria terminalis B. Ventral part via amygdalofugal pathway C. Via the amygdala's connections to the hypothalamus D. The** basolateral circuit** !!

Answer 386

Which part of the brainstem is this? Midbrain Medulla (Superior) Medulla (Inferior) **Pons** Anteriorly the pons bulges forwards,

Answer 387

Which part of the brainstem is this? Midbrain **Medulla (Open / Superior)** Medulla (Closed / Inferior) Pons

Answer 388

Which part of the brainstem is this? **Midbrain** This can be identified by the large cerebral peduncles anteriorly Medulla (Open / Superior) Medulla (Closed / Inferior) Pons

Answer 389

Which part of the brainstem is this? Midbrain Medulla (Open / Superior) **Medulla (Closed / Inferior)** Pons

Answer 390

Where is the lesion? A B C **D** E F

Answer 391

This photo shows a histopathological slide from a patient with MS. What does it show? **Inflammation** Astrocytosis Demyelination Focal apoptosis Microglial activation

Answer 392

What is indicated by letter A? **PAG** Nucleus raphe magnus Nucleus reticularis paragigantocelluaris Dorsal horn VTA

Answer 393

This image shows a picture of an NMDA receptor. Which molecule binds at D? Ca2+ **Mg2+** K+ Na+ Zn

Answer 394

Which of the following does the tuberomamillary nucleus secrete to stimulate sleep? **Histamines** Orexins Noradrenaline Serotonin Actelycholine

Answer 395

ID the CN CN II CN III **CN IV** CN V CN VI

Answer 396

What is the arrow pointing to? **Hippocampus** Amygdala Thalamus Fornix Cingulate gyrus Hypothalamus

Answer 397

Damage to this stucture would cause **Truncal ataxia** Tremo Babinski sign Hyperkinesia Bradykinesia

Answer 398

Damage to this stucture would cause **Truncal ataxia** Tremo Babinski sign Hyperkinesia Bradykinesia

Answer 399

Which of the following is a major output system to the thalamus? A B C **D**: GPin E

Answer 400

The structure indicated is involved with which function? **Memory transmission** Memory formation Memory storage Memory retrieval Affective labelling of a memory

Answer 401

Loss of dopaminergic input to the BG leads to **insufficient activation of D1 receptors** Activation of direct pathway Insufficient activation of D2 receptors Activation of thalamus Inhibiton of internal globus pallidus

Answer 402

A patient suffers an aterial intracranial bleed. The artery most likely goes through which of the following? 1 2 **3** 4 5

Answer 403

What type of herniation would occur underneath this structure? **Uncal** Tonsilar Tentorial Subfalcine Transforaminal

Answer 404

What type of herniation would occur underneath this structure? **Uncal** Tonsilar Tentorial Subfalcine Transforaminal

Answer 405

Where is the fracture Lacrymal Zygomatic Frontal **Maxilla** Ethmoid Sphenoid

Answer 406

A: ethmoid B: sphenoid C: zygomatic

Answer 407

Pavlovs dogs is an example of what type of conditioning? [1] Observational learning **Classical conditioning** Operant conditioning Emotional conditioning

Answer 408

Q You got scared when a dog barked angrily at you entering his owners house. What term is used to describe the dog barking? Conditional response Conditional stimulus Natural reflex **Unconditional stimulus** Unconditional response

Answer 409

Stage fright is an example of Observational learning Classical conditioning Operant conditioning **Emotional conditioning**

Answer 410

What term is given for the fur coat after Albert was conditioned? Conditional response **Conditional stimulus** Natural reflex Unconditional stimulus Unconditional response

Answer 411

What is the term give for the horrible tasting substance used to avoid onychiphagia? Conditional response Conditional stimulus Natural reflex Unconditional stimulus **Unconditional response**

Answer 412

systematic desensitization [1]

Answer 413

Which of the following best describes the type of therapy? 'Placing someone with claustrophobia in a crowded room for two hour' **Flooding therapy** Implosion therapy Systematic desensitisation Operant conditioning

Answer 414

systematic desensitization [1]

Answer 415

Which of the following best describes the type of therapy? 'Placing someone with claustrophobia in a crowded room for two hour' **Flooding therapy** Implosion therapy Systematic desensitisation Operant conditioning

Answer 416

Which of the following is predominately filled with cartliage? **Foramen lacerum** Carotid canal Foramen rotundum Foramen magnum

Answer 417

70-year-old male presented to the emergency department complaining of blurred vision on his right eye. CT angiogram shows an embolus on the right ophthalmic artery. By which route would an embolus most likely reach the ophthalmic artery? A. Internal carotid canal – foramen rotundum – cavernous sinus to medial anterior clinoid process **B. Internal carotid canal – foramen lacerum – cavernous sinus to medial anterior clinoid process** C. Internal carotid canal – foramen lacerum – cavernous sinus lateral to anterior clinoid process D. Internal carotid canal – foramen spinosum – cavernous sinus medial to anterior clinoid process

Answer 418

Which of the following thalamic nuclei is involved with memory Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) Ventral posterior lateral nucleus (VPL) **Anterior nucleus (A)** Ventral lateral nucleus (VL) Ventral anterior nucleus (VA)

Answer 419

Which of the following thalamic nuclei is involved with hearing Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) **Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)** Ventral posterior lateral nucleus (VPL) Anterior nucleus (A) Ventral lateral nucleus (VL) Ventral anterior nucleus (VA)

Answer 420

Which of the following thalamic nuclei is involved with motor input from basal ganglia Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) Ventral posterior lateral nucleus (VPL) Anterior nucleus (A) Ventral lateral nucleus (VL) Ventral anterior nucleus (VA)

Answer 421

Atrophy of which component of the basal ganglia is responsible for Graham’s Parkinsonian symptoms? Putamen Caudate Globus pallidus **Substantia nigra**

Answer 422

A 76-year old male in a senior facility was brought to his provider due to difficulty sleeping for 6 months. His wife died two months ago and aggravated further his sleep problem. Regulation of his sleep cycle and control of consciousness is a function of which of the following? **A. Reticular formation** B. Hypothalamus C. Basal ganglia D. Pineal gland

Answer 423

Which of the following would most likely be cause from damage to the hippocampus? Loss of procedural memory Anterograde amnesia **Impaired spatial cognition** Retrograde amnesia Imparied attention

Answer 424

Lorraine describes her father’s recent behavioural changes in more detail: he seems uninterested in doing things, is missing bills, and does not seem to enjoy playing with his great grandchildren as he usually did. Wich part of the brain is most likely affected? **Cingulate cortex** Many types of behavioural changes are common in Alzheimer’s Disease, but this picture suggests apathy, characterised by poor motivation and altered affect (this also commonly coexists with depression). This suggests involvement of the cingulate cortex (probably anterior cingulate cortex) as well as the prefrontal and orbital frontal cortex.

Answer 425

Observational learning is a **Relational learning** Motor learning Perceptual learning Stimulus response learning

Answer 426

Which of the following occurs from changes between one sensory system and the motor system Relational learning Motor learning Perceptual learning **Stimulus response learning**

Answer 427

Which of the following occurs from changes in one sensory system Relational learning Motor learning **Perceptual learning** Stimulus response learning

Answer 428

Which of the following is learning about the relationship among individual stimuli **Relational learning** Motor learning Perceptual learning Stimulus response learning

Answer 429

The hippocampus, medial temporal lobe and neocortex is involved with which type of memory * **episodic memory**: personal episodes in time and space

Answer 430

The amygdala and cerebellum are involved with which type of memory * episodic memory * semantic memor * procedural memory (skills and habits) * **classical conditioning**

Answer 431

The lateral and anterior temporal cortex, prefrontal cortex are involved with which type of memory? * episodic memory * **semantic memory** * procedural memory (skills and habits) * classical conditioning

Answer 432

The striatum, cerebellum and motor cortex are involved with which type of memory? * episodic memory * semantic memor * **procedural memory** (skills and habits) * classical conditioning

Answer 433

Information processed by the sensory neocortex provides input to the hippocampus via the dentate gyrus perirhinal cortex parahippocampal gyrus **entorhinal cortex**

Answer 434

The projects in the dentate gyrus are called: Subiculum Schaffer Collaterals **Mossy fibres** Pyramidal cells Granule cells

Answer 435

The projections between CA3 and CA1 in the hippocampus are called Subiculum **Schaffer Collaterals** Mossy fibres Pyramidal cells Granule cells

Answer 436

The [] is a pivotal structure positioned between the hippocampus proper (CA1) and entorhinal and other cortices **Subiculum** Schaffer Collaterals Mossy fibres Pyramidal cells Granule cells

Answer 437

**Perforant pathway**

Answer 438

What is B? Subiculum Schaffer Collaterals **Mossy fibres** Pyramidal cells Perforant pathway

Answer 439

Label C Subiculum **Schaffer Collaterals** Mossy fibres Pyramidal cells Perforant pathway

Answer 440

Which area of the brain undergoes lesions to cause working memory loss? Temporal **Frontal** Occipital Parietal

Answer 441

Which area of the brain undergoes lesions to cause long term memory loss? **Temporal** Frontal Occipital Parietal

Answer 442

Which hormone increases during REM sleep? [1] Insulin Prolactin **Growth Hormone** Oxytocin Ghrelin

Answer 443

Which of the following increases during periods of stress? Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 **REM**

Answer 444

Which of the following is good at combating oxidative stress during sleep? Cortisol **Melatonin** Leptin Ghrelin

Answer 445

Tuberomamillary (TMN) system is involved in keeping the body awake. Which molecule controls it? Dopamine Noradrenaline Orexins Melatonin **Histamines**

Answer 446

GABA & Galanin neurons project from which nucleus? Paraventricular nucleus Suprachiasmatic nucleus Arcuate nucleus Pre-optic nucleus Supraoptic nucleus

Answer 447

Which stage of sleep normally lasts the longest? Stage 1 **Stage 2** Stage 3 Stage 4 REM

Answer 448

which of the following is a benzodiazapene prescribed for chronic insomnia? * lorazepam - short term * temazepam - short term * Zolpidem - long term & z drug * **eszopiclone**

Answer 449

which of the following has the shortest half life? * lorazepam * temazepam * **Zolpidem** * eszopiclone benzos: long half life; z drugs: short half life

Answer 450

A deficiency in which of the following causes narcolepsy? Dopamine Noradrenaline **Orexins** Melatonin Histamines

Answer 451

Which of the following is depicted **Intentional** **tremor**: occurs with a goal-directed movement and worsens as approaching the target

Answer 452

Which of the following genes involved in SCH is responsible for neurodevelopment and also signalling in corticolimbic areas Dysbindin **DISC1** COMT BDNF Neuregulin 1

Answer 453

Which of the following genes involved in SCH causes synaptic plasticity and myelination Dysbindin DISC1 COMT BDNF **Neuregulin 1**

Answer 454

Which of the following genes involved in SCH may affect dopamine D2 receptor levels and glutamate and GABA transmission **Dysbindin** DISC1 COMT BDNF Neuregulin 1

Answer 455

Which of the following is implicated in SCH? **A** dorsolateral prefontal B C D E

Answer 456

Which of the following is most likely causing A? Epilepsy Parkinsons **Schizophrenia** Multiple sclerosis Huntingdons

Answer 457

A: mesolimbic system - **hyperactive** B: mesocortical system: **hypoactive**

Answer 458

Typical anti-psychotics have which of the following effect? Relieve postive and negative symptoms **Relieve positive symptoms only** Relieve negative symptoms only Relieve cognitive symptoms only

Answer 459

Which of the following is tardive dyskinesia A B C **D**

Answer 460

Which of the following is acute dystonia A B **C** D

Answer 461

**neuroleptic malignant syndrome**

Answer 462

Alchohol / ethanol decreases the effect of which channel to cause psychodepression? Na+ K+ Cl- **Ca2+** H+ DOES NOT act on a single specific receptor protein.

Answer 463

Which of the following inibits dopamine uptake? Caffeine MDMA Alcohol Cannabis **Cocaine**

Answer 464

What does the yellow rectangle represent? Caffeine MDMA Alcohol Cannabis **Cocaine**

Answer 465

Which of the following is an adenosine antagonist? **Caffeine**: adenosine promotes sleep

Answer 466

3 key functions: I. Stimulate **release** of **catecholamines** II. **Inhibit** **catecholamine** **recapture** by the uptake system III. **Inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO)** activity

Answer 467

Which specific receptors do atypical anti-pyschotics target? 5-HT1A Na **5-HT2A** strong antagonists; weak D2 receptors D1

Answer 468

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is particularly useful for negative symptoms? Risperidone Quetiapine Aripiprazole Clozapine **Olanzapine**

Answer 469

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is a partial agonist at pre-synaptic D2 but an antagonist at post-synaptic D2? Risperidone Quetiapine **Aripiprazole** Clozapine Olanzapine

Answer 470

Which of the following may cause an increased risk of infection? Risperidone Quetiapine Aripiprazole **Clozapine** Olanzapine

Answer 471

**weight gain** rise in **prolactin**: sexual dysfunction, galactorrhoea, amenorrhea

Answer 472

Inhibit **Adenylate cyclase**, thus inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels.

Answer 473

Clozapine targets which receptor D1 D2 D3 **D4**

Answer 474

A 30-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of irregular menses. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past two years. The patient has a history of schizophrenia but has been stable on her current antipsychotic medication. She discontinued oral contraceptives and has abstained from both alcohol and nicotine for approximately one year as she and her husband are planning to start a family. The physical exam is unremarkable and the patient denies suicidal or homicidal ideations, denies auditory or visual hallucinations, cognition and judgment are intact. What is the most likely hormonal abnormality causing this patient's symptoms? A. Increased gonadotropin hormone secretion B. Decreased human growth hormone secretion **C. Increased prolactin secretion** D. Decreased thyroid hormone production

Answer 475

The hippocampus receives direct input from: A. Parahippocampal cortex. B. Cingulate cortex. C. Amygdala. D. Septalnuclei and hypothalamus. **All of the above.**

Answer 476

The output of the amygdala (arrow) is to A. Septal nuclei and hypothalamus. B. Dorsomedial thalamus. C. Orbitofrontal cortex. D. Ventral striatum. **E. All of the above.**

Answer 477

While picnicing in the meadow the wind suddenly delivers the foul odor of a rotting smell. You vomit. Think of the circuitry involved in executing the motor act. Which does it NOT include? **A. Activity in the solitary tract** The solitary tract consists of primary sensory axons subserving taste and visceral sensation. Only after the act of vomiting would this pathway be active. While a lot of what we think of as taste is smell, the stimulus in this case is olfactory and involves the other structures listed.

Answer 478

Axons in this structure are A. Primary sensory axons. **B. Secondary sensory axons.** Myelinated axons in the core of the olfactory tract are secondary sensory axons leaving pyramidal (mitral) cells and traveling to the olfactory cortex.

Answer 479

What is the relationship of the hippocampus to this region of the lateral ventricle? A. Its in the floor of the ventricle. **B. Its in the roof of the ventricle.** C. It is rostral to the ventricle. D. It has no relationship to the ventricle.

Answer 480

What structure on the ventral surface of the brain is the best indicator of the position of the amygdala? A. The parahippocampal gyrus. B. The internal carotid artery. C. The posterior cerebral artery. **D. The uncus.** The uncus is the most conspicuous landmark and directly overlies the amygdala.

Answer 481

Which of the following are specific sensory relay nuclei to primary somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus)? A. Dorsomedial nucleus. B. Intralaminar nuclei. **C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei.** D. Anterior thalamic nuclei. E. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei.

Answer 482

What is the major thalamic source of afferents to this gyrus? A. Dorsomedial nucleus. B. Intralaminar nuclei. C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei. **D. Anterior thalamic nuclei.** The anterior nuclei project to the cingulate gyrus. The cingulate gyrus projects to all areas of cortex and vice versa.

Answer 483

Axons of hippocampal pyramidal cells travel in the A. Ventral (amygdalofugal) pathway. B. Stria terminalis. **C. Fornix.** Correct! Hippocampal pyramidal cells send most of their axons through the fornix.

Answer 484

These pallidal efferents go to: A. **Thalamus**. B. Putamen. C. Red nucleus. D. A and B. E. A, B, and C.

Answer 485

he majority of hypertensive hemorrhages occur in the basal ganglia. Rupture of branches of which artery are most common? A. Middle cerebral. **B. Lenticulostriate or lateral striate.** C. Anterior cerebral. D. Anterior communicating. E. Posterior communicating.

Answer 486

Hemiballismus on the left side is usually due to a vascular accident affecting the: A. Left subthalamic nucleus. **B. Right subthalamic nucleus.** C. Right striatum. D. Left striatum.

Answer 487

This is a picture is of the brain of a patient with Huntington's Disease. Microscopically you would see: A. Loss of melanin filled cells in the striatum. **B. Loss of cells in the caudate and putamen.** Huntington's disease is characterized by a loss of the medium sized cells in the caudate and putamen. Cell loss also occurs in the cerebral cortex. This is an autosomal dominant disease appearing in the 30s or 40s with abnormal jerking movements and mental deterioration.Click on the numbers to see a motion sequence of Huntington's disease: 22756 to 22884*.

Answer 488

This is a picture is of the brain of a patient with Huntington's Disease. Microscopically you would see: A. Loss of melanin filled cells in the striatum. **B. Loss of cells in the caudate and putamen.** Huntington's disease is characterized by a loss of the medium sized cells in the caudate and putamen. Cell loss also occurs in the cerebral cortex. This is an autosomal dominant disease appearing in the 30s or 40s with abnormal jerking movements and mental deterioration.Click on the numbers to see a motion sequence of Huntington's disease: 22756 to 22884*.

Answer 489

The basal ganglia exert their effects on motor behavior through the: A. Rubrospinal tract. B. Vestibulospinal tract. C. Reticulospinal tract. **D. Corticospinal tract.** E. All of the above.

Answer 490

A patient with a resting tremor in the right hand is killed in a traffic accident and is autopsied. The neuropathology report states there is a loss of cells in: A. The right substantia nigra. **B. The left substantia nigra.** C. The right globus pallidus. D. The left globus pallidus.

Answer 491

**B. The pontomedullary junction.** CN VI, VII, and VIII enter/exit the brain stem at the junction of the medulla and pons.

Answer 492

**D. Loss of facial sensation.** Facial sensation, mediated by CN V would not be affected by a tumor compressing CN VIII, unless the tumor is large enough to press on CN V or affect the descending nucleus and tract of V in the medulla.

Answer 493

**C. Signals orientation with respect to gravity.** The macula with its otoliths in a gelitinous membrane signals gravity and acceleration changes by deforming the kinocilia.

Answer 494

The medial vestibulospinal tract and MLF aid in: A. Orienting toward visual stimuli. B. Maintaining visual fixation. C. Stabilizing the head in space. D. Vestibulocollic reflex (i.e. head bobbing when you fall asleep in lecture). **E. All of the above.**

Answer 495

Ataxia is defined as: A. Inability to perform rapidly alternating movements. B. Error in the range of movement. C. Lack of continuity in the execution of movements. **D. Error in the rate, force, and direction of movement.** E. Muscle weakness.

Answer 496

What course do the axons follow in reaching these nuclei in the pons? **A. Cortex-->internal capsule-->cerebral peduncle.** B. Cortex-->internal capsule-->red nucleus. C. Cortex-->thalamus-->cerebellar peduncle. D. Thalamus-->internal capsule-->cerebellar peduncle.

Answer 497

**D. A and B.** The fastigial nucleus projects to vestibular and reticular nuclei on the same side. The dentate, globose and emboliform project to the opposite red nucleus and thalamus through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

Answer 498

**E. All of the above.** All of these deficits occur with upper motor neuron pathology. Upper motor neurons are located in the cerebral cortex. This Golgi impregnated section of the cerebral cortex shows cells bodies and dendrites of pyramidal cells. Click on the numbers for a motion sequence: 31739 to 31802*.

Answer 499

All of the following are sensory radiations from this structure EXCEPT: **A. Olfactory radiations**. B. Optic radiations. C. Auditory radiations. D. Somatosensory radiations.

Answer 500

Cortical afferents in the internal capsule have their cell bodies located in: A. The dorsal horn. B. The dorsal column nuclei. **C. The thalamic nuclei**. D. The cerebral cortex.

Answer 501

What brain stem region lies or sits in the tentorial notch (incisure)? A. Pons. B. Cerebellum. C. Temporal lobes. **D. Midbrain** E. Hypothalamus.

Answer 502

The main role of the septal nucleus is.. Memory acquisition and recall, formation of long-term memory Emotional content of stimuli: fear, anxiety and danger **Pleasure and reward** Affective significance

Answer 503

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1] Anterior spinothalamic **Lateral spinothalamic** Reticulospinal Rubrospinal

Answer 504

A: **entorhinal cortex** B: **dentate gyrus** C: **CA3** D: **CA1**

Answer 505

Which of the following is the entorhinal cortex? **A** B C D E

Answer 506

Which of the following is the anterior thalamus ? A B C D **E**

Answer 507

Which of the following is the parahippocampal gyrus? A B **C** D E

Answer 508

Which of the following is the perirhinal cortex? A **B** C D E

Answer 509

orbitofrontal cortex cingulate cortex (The anterior part of the cingulate cortex merges into the orbitofrontal cortex)

Answer 510

Which of the following is involved in the limbic system? A B **C** D E

Answer 511

**Parahippocampal gyrus**: It is primarily involved in the **acquisition of new memories**

Answer 512

The fornix axons end in the **septal nuclei** and the **mammillary body** of the hypothalamus

Answer 513

1. Information goes from the cingulate cortex to the parahippocampal gyrus 2. Information goes from the parahippocampal cortex to the hippocampus 3. Information from the hippocampus goes along the fornix to the mamillary bodies of the hypothalamus 4. Information goes from the hypothalamus to the anterior thalamus 5. Information goes from the anterior thalamus back to the cingulate cortex

Answer 514

A: septal nucleus B: nucleus accumbens

Answer 515

The accumbens (ventral striatum) is involved in the **initiation and termination of behaviours** (motor actions) that **activate reward pathways** For example, the act of chewing and swallowing are rewarding as they immediately precede food entering the stomach (which releases peptides that act to trigger reward pathways in the brain.

Answer 516

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1] Anterior spinothalamic **Lateral spinothalamic** Reticulospinal Rubrospinal

Answer 517

Which of the following best describes the type of therapy? 'a technique in behavior therapy that generally involves imagined stimuli and in attempting to enhance anxiety arousal by adding imaginary exposure cues believed by the therapist to be relevant to the client’s fear' Flooding therapy **Implosion therapy** Systematic desensitisation Operant conditioning

Answer 518

systematic desensitization [1]

Answer 519

Which of the following best describes the type of therapy? 'Placing someone with claustrophobia in a crowded room for two hour' **Flooding therapy** Implosion therapy Systematic desensitisation Operant conditioning

Answer 520

During behavioural training, the food acts as: 1. A conditioned response 2. An unconditioned response 3. A conditioned stimulus **4. An unconditioned stimulus** 5. An irrelevant stimulus

Answer 521

1. Left tonsillar herniation 2. Right tonsillar herniation **3. Left uncal herniation** 4. Right uncal herniation 5. Left subfalcine herniation 6. Right subfalcine herniation

Answer 522

A is the 1. Amygdala 2. Caudate nucleus 3. Hippocampus 4. Hypothalamus **5. Insula** 6. Nucleus accumbens 7. Septal nucleus

Answer 523

Damage to the arrow causes 1. Anhedonia 2. Loss of fear 3. Mania **4. Anterograde amnesia** 5. Retrograde amnesia 6. Contralateral neglect 7. Loss of working memory

Answer 524

This nucleus inhibits the sub-thalamic nucleus as part of the indirect pathway. 1. A **2. B** GPex 3. C 4. D 5. E

Answer 525

1. Caudate nucleus 2. Globus pallidus externa 3. Globus pallidus interna 4. Putamen 5. Substantia nigra **6. Thalamus**

Answer 526

ID A 1. Amygdala 2. Cingulate cortex 3. Fornix 4. Hippocampus 5. Insula 6. Septum pellucidum **7. Uncus**

Answer 527

ID A 1. Amygdala 2. Cingulate cortex 3. Fornix 4. Hippocampus 5. Insula 6. Septum pellucidum **7. Uncus**

Answer 528

The structure indicated by the arrow is 1. Deiter’s nucleus **2. Dentate nucleus** 3. Fastigial nucleus 4. Inferior olivary nucleus 5. Interposed nucleus 6. Superior olivary nucleus

Answer 529

Damage to C causes 1. Aphasia 2. Loss of conjugate gaze **3. Apraxia to external commands** 4. Apraxia to internal commands 5. Loss of voluntary control of movements

Answer 530

The image shows the EEG trace and separate brain wave activity responses to opening and shutting the eyes. **1. the alpha wave** 2. the beta wave 3. the delta wave 4. the theta wave 5. the gamma wave

Answer 531

Prolonged stimulation of nociceptors or cellular injury induces a flare response. The neurotransmitter responsible for this is 1. Glutamate **2. Substance P** 3. ATP 4. Acetylcholine 5. Noradrenaline

Answer 532

The cortical region that has herniated indicated by the purple arrow is 1. Frontal eye field 2. Parahippocampus 3. Insula 4. Supplementary motor cortex **5. Cingulate cortex** 6. Prefrontal cortex

Answer 533

Identify the white substance over the metal seeker 1. Pia mater **2. Arachnoid mater** 3. Arachnoid granulation 4. Dural mater 5. Periostium 6. Dural sinus

Answer 534

Which image depicts the consequences of damage to the posterior lobe of the cerebellum? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D **5. E**

Answer 535

In Parkinson’s disease cells of which labelled structure degenerate? 1. A 2. B 3. C **4. D** 5. E 6. F 7. G 8. H

Answer 536

The pathology in this image is associated with 1. Parkinson’s disease 2. Alzheimer’s disease 3. Kluver-Bucy syndrome 4. Epilepsy **5. Multiple sclerosis**

Answer 537

Axons of which pathway are found in the SCP? 1. Spinocerebellar 2. Olivocerebellar 3. Trigeminocerebellar 4. Pontocerebellar **5. Dentothalamic**

Answer 538

Axons of which pathway are found in the SCP? 1. Spinocerebellar 2. Olivocerebellar 3. Trigeminocerebellar 4. Pontocerebellar **5. Dentothalamic**

Answer 539

The large slow EEG waves are indicative of which stage of sleep 1. Stage 1 2. Stage 2 3. Stage 3 **4. Stage 4** 5. REM

Answer 540

**1. Amygdala**

Answer 541

This is a test for 1. Pain sensation 2. Ataxia **3. Graphesthesia** 4. Stereognosis 5. Extinction

Answer 542

The vascular injury shown here is 1. Extradural 2. Subdural 3. Subarachnoid 4. Diffuse axonal injury **5. Contusion**

Answer 543

Identify the aperture. 1. Obex 2. Median aperture 3. Lateral aperture 4. Cerebral aqueduct **5. Interventricular foramen**

Answer 544

Which area is thought to be associated with the visuo-spatial sketchpad? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E **6. F**

Answer 545

What structure is indicated by the arrow? 1. Pia mater 2. Skin 3. Connective tissue 4. Aponeurosis 5. Loose connective tissue 6. Periostium **7. Dura mater** 8. Arachnoid mater

Answer 546

* All of the following become hyperactive in depression; state x amygdala * hippocampus * **Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex** & ventrolateral * subgenual cingulate cortex * medial prefrontal cortex

Answer 547

Clopidogrel

Answer 548

Which of the following is most sensitive to vertical acceleration when sensing movement? Utricle Crista **Saccle** Ampulla

Answer 549

Which of the following is most sensitive to horizontal acceleration when sensing movement? **Utricle** Crista Saccle Ampulla

Answer 550

Meniere's disease is associated with A. loss of vestibular hair cells B. damage to the vestibular nuclei C. damage to cranial nerve VIII D. damage to Scarpa's ganglion **E. excess endolymph in the membranous labyrinth**

Answer 551

Which of the following is correct regarding vestibular nuclei? A. There are six B. They are located beneath the floor of the third ventricle C. They receive afferent fibers from the spinal ganglion D. They project only to the cerebellum **E. They are connected to the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nerve nuclei by the medial longitudinal fasciculus**

Answer 552

Which sensory receptor is most sensitive to angular acceleration? **A. Crista** B. Utricle C. Saccule D. Organ of Corti

Answer 553

Linear acceleration is transduced in the: A. Cupula B. Cristae **C. Maculae: the maculae are more sensitive to linear, not angular acceleration** D. Organ of Corti E. Scarpa's ganglion

Answer 554

Make the best match between the below listed condition and the visual field defect. Match: occlusional of the left posterior cerebral artery A. Contralesional superior quadranopia with macular sparing B. Contralesional inferior quadranopia with macular sparing **C. Contralesional homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing** **There will be macular sparing because the caudal and lateral striate cortex receives a collateral blood supply from branches of the middle cerebral artery** D. Bitemporal hemianopia E. Inability to recognize objects or colors

Answer 555

Which of the basal ganglia nuclei receive direct cortical input? A. Claustrum and amygdala. B. Centromedian nucleus and subthalamic nucleus. C. Substantia nigra pars compacta and globus pallidus external. D. Globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra pars reticulata. **E. Caudate and putamen**

Answer 556

The spinocerebellum contains the... **A. vermis and intermediate zone of the anterior and posterior lobes.** B. Vermal and floccular parts of the flocculonodular lobe. C. Lateral portions of the cerebellum. D. Posterior lobe and interposed nuclei. E. Anterior lobe and dentate nuclei.

Answer 557

The lateral vestibular nuclei are functionally analogous to the... A. Red nucleus B. Purkinje cells C. Basal ganglia D. Thalamus **E. Deep cerebellar nuclei**

Answer 558

The diagnosis “Definite Alzheimer’s Disease” is established by: **A. autopsy of the patient’s brain** B. behavioral analysis C. PET analysis D. CAT analysis E. MRI analysis

Answer 559

Which of the following is not a visible boundary of the hypothalamus in a hemisected brain? A. The median eminence B. The mammillary body **C. The optic chiasm** D. The internal capsule E. The anterior commisure

Answer 560

Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is most important for encoding the set point for daily circadian rhythms? A. supraoptic nucleus B. arcuate nucleus **C. suprachiasmatic nucleus** D. preoptic anterior nucleus E. paraventricular nucleus

Answer 561

Inhibition of ACTH secretion by cortisol is an example of what type of neuroendocrine feedback loop? A. ultra-short loop feedback B. short-loop feedback C. indirect long-loop feedback **D. direct long-loop feedback** E. indirect ultra-long loop feedback

Answer 562

Leptin receptors are most abundant in which of the following hypothalamic nuclei? A. paraventricular B. periventricular C. preoptic/anterior D. ventromedial **E. arcuate**

Answer 563

A successful new diet drug might have which of the following effects in the hypothalamus? A. Activates NPY receptors B. Blocks αMSH receptors **C. Activates leptin receptors** D. Stimulates AGRP synthesis E. Reduces CART synthesis

Answer 564

The postcommissural fornix projects to which structure? A. Substantia innominata. **B. Mammillary bodies** C. Ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus D. Nucleus basalis of Meynert E. Anterior cingulate cortex.

Answer 565

Which structure is NOT part of the Papez circuit? A. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus **B. Ventral nucleus of the thalamus** C. Cingulate gyrus D. Hippocampus E. Mammillary bodies

Answer 566

A 50-year old patient with recent damage to the hippocampus from a stroke would likely have all of the following deficits EXCEPT: A. Difficulty learning new facts B. Difficulty describing a recent event C. Difficulty learning a new vocabulary word **D. Difficulty recalling a childhood memory** **The hippocampus is involved in the formation of new memories, but not in the storage of old memories after they have been consolidated**. E. Difficulty remembering a face

Answer 567

Short term memories can involve all of the following processes EXCEPT: **A. Regulation of gene expression** Regulation of gene expression is associated with long-term memories and not short-term memories.

Answer 568

Classical conditioning is an example of: A. Semantic memory B. Episodic memory **C. Implicit memory** D. Declarative memory E. Nonassociative memory

Answer 569

A 43-year old cerebral vascular accident patient was diagnosed as having persistent unilateral spatial agnosia or "visual neglect". What cerebral region was most likely involved? **A. Non-dominant parietal-occipital cortex** B. Dominant parietal-occipital cortex C. Dorsal prefrontal cortex D. Dominant temporal-occipital cortex E. Non-dominant temporal-occipital cortex

Answer 570

A delta fibers transmit primarily A. burning diffuse pain information **B. pricking localized pain information This answer is CORRECT!** **A delta fibers carry sharp/pricking pain, all the others are carried by C fibers** C. aching diffuse pain information D. visceral pain information E. phantom pain information

Answer 571

A: **ampulla** B: **cupulla** C: **crista**

Answer 572

A: ampulla B: endolymph C: membranous labyrinth D: perilymph E: bony labyrinth

Answer 573

Ampulla Hair cells Endolymph Crista **Cupulla**

Answer 574

Ampulla Hair cells Endolymph **Crista** Cupulla

Answer 575

Carotid artery

Answer 576

Which fibres have a path in the lateral spinothalamic tract? Aβ; Að & C **Að & C** Aβ & C Aβ & Að C

Answer 577

Which part of the brain has reduced glucose metabolism during depression parahippocampus hypothalamus hippocampus **subgenual anterior cingulate cortex** fornix

Answer 578

Which fibres have a path in the Anterior Spinothalamic Tract? **Aβ; Að & C** Að & C Aβ & C Aβ & Að C

Answer 579

In the transmission of the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract, the pathway synapses at the mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus (MDvc) and posterior thalamus (VPI and VMpo). From where does the third order neuron of the LST pathway go to after the mediodorsal nucleus? Rostral insula Mamilliary bodies **Anterior cingulate cortex (ACC)** Primary somatosensory cortex Primary motor cortex

Answer 580

In the transmission of the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract, the pathway synapses at the mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus (MDvc) and posterior thalamus (VPI and VMpo). From where does the third order neuron of the LST pathway go to after the posterior thalamus? **Rostral insula** Mamilliary bodies Anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) Primary somatosensory cortex Primary motor cortex

Answer 581

In the transmission of the Anterior Spinothalamic Tract, the pathway synapses at the mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus (MDvc) and posterior thalamus (VPI and VMpo). From where does the third order neuron of the AST pathway go to finalise? Rostral insula Mamilliary bodies Anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) **Primary somatosensory cortex** Primary motor cortex

Answer 582

A: **subthalamic nuclei** B: **substantia nigra** C: **thalamus** (sub is on top)

Answer 583

Which supplies the majority of the blood to the globus pallidus? anterior choroidal artery (AChA) **middle cerebral artery (MCA)** anterior cerebral artery (ACA). posterior cererbral artrey (PCA) lenticulostriate artery

Answer 584

Which supplies the medial portion of the globus pallidus? **anterior choroidal artery (AChA)** middle cerebral artery (MCA) anterior cerebral artery (ACA). posterior cererbral artrey (PCA) lenticulostriate artery

Answer 585

Which supplies the anterior and inferior of the globus pallidus? anterior choroidal artery (AChA) middle cerebral artery (MCA) **anterior cerebral artery (ACA)**. posterior cererbral artrey (PCA) lenticulostriate artery

Answer 586

Which supplies the superior and posterior of the globus pallidus? anterior choroidal artery (AChA) **middle cerebral artery (MCA)** anterior cerebral artery (ACA). posterior cererbral artrey (PCA) lenticulostriate artery

Answer 587

A 65-year-old man was brought by his daughter to his provider due to tremors and increasing stiffness in both arms and legs. This has led the patient to fall twice while attempting to turn. On examination, the patient had increased muscle tone, resting tremors, and difficulty initiating movements when asked to move. A single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) was done, showing reduced uptake in the striatum. How would this reduced uptake affect the pathways? A. It reduces inhibitory signals projected to the subthalamus. **B. It increases inhibitory signals projected to the subthalamus.** C. It reduces the stores of neurotransmitters present in the globus pallidus externus. D. It increases inhibitory signals projected to the substantia nigra pars reticularis.

Answer 588

Which of the following outputs to the superior colliculi? globus pallidus external globus pallidus internal **substantia nigra, pars reticula** subthalamic nuclei

Answer 589

**pill-rolling' rest tremor**; looks like you are trying to roll a pill between your thumb and index

Answer 590

Regulating movement: * Play a critical role in **movement initiation** * Allow **switching** between motor programs (e.g. **stop or start a movement**) * **Inhibit** **antagonistic** and **unnecessary** **movements** * Regulate movement **force**

Answer 591

Which of the following type of diabetes is usually caused by one gene Latent Autoimmune Diabetes of Adults Type two diabetes Gestatational diabetes **Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young**

Answer 592

PYY has the biggest effect on which part of the GI system Stomach Duodenum Jejunum Ileum **Colon**

Answer 593

PYY has the is produced from which type of cells: D cells A cells **L cells** B cells

Answer 594

B12 & Folate Deficiency Leads to **atherosclerosis**

Answer 595

A patient with which of the following HbA1c reading would have diabetes 41 mmol/mol 43 mmol/mol 45 mmol/mol 47 mmol/mol **49 mmol/mol** - 48 is the cut off

Answer 596

What is the most common type of CNS tumour in children? Neuroblastoma **Medulloblastoma** Glioblastoma Schwannoma

Answer 597

Morphine has what effect after binding to Mu receptor: Increases K+ and Ca2+ **Increases K+ and decreases Ca2+** Decreases K+ and Ca2+ Decreases K+ and increases Ca2+

Answer 598

Baclofen is an agonist to which of the following Ca2+ AMPA glutamate receptor Amines **GABA** NMDA Glutamate receptor

Answer 599

Which type of seizure would you not give phenytoin or carbamazepine in order to prevent worsening of symptoms Focal seizure **Absence seizure** Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizures Atonic Seizures Myoclonic Seizures

Answer 600

Which type of seizure would you give carbamazepine or lamotrigine as first line treatment? **Focal seizure** Absence seizure Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizures Atonic Seizures Myoclonic Seizures

Answer 601

Which type of seizure would you give sodium valproate as first line treatment? Focal seizure Absence seizure **Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizures** Atonic Seizures Myoclonic Seizures

Answer 602

Which type of seizure would you give sodium valproate or ethosuximide as first line treatment? Focal seizure **Absence seizure** Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizures Atonic Seizures Myoclonic Seizures

Answer 603

Which anti-epileptic treatment is teratogenic **Sodium Valproate** Ethosuximide Lamotrigine Levetiracetam Lorazepam

Answer 604

Which anti-epileptic treatment works by bind to synaptic vesicle protein SV2A causing a reduction in neurones Sodium Valproate Ethosuximide Lamotrigine **Levetiracetam** Lorazepam

Answer 605

Which anti-epileptic treatment would be used to treat status epilepticus Sodium Valproate Ethosuximide Lamotrigine Levetiracetam **Lorazepam** & **Diazepam**

Answer 606

Xanthochromia occurs in Subdural haemorrhage Epidural haemorrhage **Subarachnoid haemorrhage** Intracerebral haemorrhage

Answer 607

Which type of hematoma can present with blood in lumbar puncture? Subdural haemorrhage Epidural haemorrhage **Subarachnoid haemorrhage** Intracerebral haemorrhage

Answer 608

A: thalamus B: sensory cortex C: amygdala

Answer 609

Following a sudden sound, which of the following pathways, A to E, provides the unconscious route that mediates the fear reaction **C.ear → thalamus → amygdala → emotional response**

Answer 610

Following a sudden sound, which of the following pathways, A to E, provides the conscious route that mediates the fear reaction and also allows appraisal of the stimulus that caused the fear? **E.ear → thalamus → cortex → amygdala → emotional response**.

Answer 611

A 45-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following a head injury. His history is significant for alcohol use disorder and 5 mg of diazepam is administered intravenously every 2 hours as ordered. After administering a dose, you observe the patient's respiratory rate change from 20 breaths/min to 6 breaths/min. Which drug should be readily available to treat this complication? A. Fentanyl B. Fluorouracil C. Naloxone **D. Flumazenil**

Answer 612

Phenelzine belongs to which drug class **MOAI (irreversible)**

Answer 613

Tranylcypromine belongs to which drug class SNRI SSRI MOA (reversible) TCA **MOA (irreversible)**

Answer 614

Which of the following are antagonists to alpha 1 adrenoreceptors and create side effects like postural hypotension SNRI SSRI MOA (reversible) **TCA** MOA (irreversible)

Answer 615

Moclobemide belongs to which drug class? SNRI SSRI **MOA (reversible)** TCA MOA (irreversible)

Answer 616

Describe the mechanism of action of agomelatin Binds to MT1 and MT2 receptors only Binds to MT1 and MT2 receptors; 5HT agonist **Binds to MT1 and MT2 receptors; 5HT antagonist** 5HT agonist 5HT antagonist

Answer 617

Which combination of food and drug can result in an idiosyncratic reaction leading to hypertensive crises? A. Ergotamine and cheese B. Selegiline and beer **C. Phenelzine and red wine** D. Tranylcypromine and caffeine

Answer 618

Which of the following binds to Monoamine oxidase A to cause inhibition? Tranylcypromine **Moclobemide** - reversible inhibitor; others all bind to MOA-B Phenelzine Selegiline

Answer 619

Schizophrenia: **Clozapine** Depression: **Esketamine**

Answer 620

Weight gain due to TCA use is due to antagonist effect at which receptor? Alpha 1 adrenoreceptors Alpha 2 adrenoreceptors Muscarinic receptors **H1 receptors**

Answer 621

**chlorpromazine**, thioridazine, fluphenazine, , flupenthixol

Answer 622

thioridazine flupenthixol **chlorpromazine** fluphenazine haloperidol

Answer 623

**Diabetes** ( & metabolic syndrome)

Answer 624

Which is most toxic in an overdose? SNRI SSRI MOA (reversible) **TCA** MOA (irreversible)

Answer 625

**locus coeruleus** Hallmark of PD !

Answer 626

**1. Caudate nucleus**

Answer 627

**6. Prefrontal cortex**

Answer 628

**2. Arachnoid mater**

Answer 629

Identify structure 21. **1. Amygdala**

Answer 630

The vascular injury shown here is 1. Extradural 2. Subdural 3. Subarachnoid 4. Diffuse axonal injury **5. Contusion**

Answer 631

**1. Uncal herniation**

Answer 632

**1. Uncal herniation**

Answer 633

Shaken baby syndrome The **SBS** is characterized by a triad of encephalopathy, subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages.

Answer 634

**3. Sub-falcine herniation**

Answer 635

**1. Uncal herniation** Increased intracranial pressure in a 58-year-old man with right middle cerebral artery infarction causing marked bilateral uncal herniation with notching (arrows). The notching is more prominent on the right side

Answer 636

1. Uncal herniation

Answer 637

**2. Tonsillar herniation**

Answer 638

Which type of haemorrhage is seen here Epidural **Subdural** Subarachnoid Intracerebral

Answer 639

**Epidural**

Answer 640

**Subarachnoid**

Answer 641

**Subarachnoid**

Answer 642

Which type of haemorrhage is seen here Epidural Subdural **Subarachnoid** Intracerebral

Answer 643

**Epidural**

Answer 644

D. The diagnosis is tuberculous meningitis with foci of caseating necrosis (Your Answer) Feedback: CORRECT! The gross picture shows inflammatory exudates in the subarachnoid space, as well as several foci of caseous necrosis over the cerebellar hemispheres. Microscopy shows necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. A ZN stain should be done to look for acid=fast bacilli.

Answer 645

What is a form of learning whereby behaviour is changed because of the consequences? Classical conditioning Aversion therapy **Operant condiitoning** Negative reinforcement

Answer 646

Insitituitonal neurosis

Answer 647

Which of the following accompanies taking drugs to escape adverse withdrawal effects Postive reinforcement **Negative reinforcement** Theory of reasoned action Low self efficacy

Answer 648

Dose-dependent kinetics

Answer 649

Blocks GABA uptake

Answer 650

Mesolimbic

Answer 651

Hypothalamus

Answer 652

Codiene; Heroin

Answer 653

**Bupropion** is an effective pharmacotherapy to aid smoking cessation

Answer 654

Extrapyramidal symptoms

Answer 655

Carbidopa or benserazide

Answer 656

Purkinje cells

Answer 657

**Septal nuclei**

Answer 658

**Amygdala**

Answer 659

Cingulate gyrus

Answer 660

Deja-vu is associated with epilepsy in which brain region of the brain? Frontal **Temporal** Occipital Parietal

Answer 661

**Entorhinal** cortex acts as an interface between hippocampus and cerebral cortex.

Answer 662

**Induction of liver microsomal enzymes**

Answer 663

Which of the following is an example of an SSRI **Paroxetine** Phenelzine Phenytoin Lithium

Answer 664

dry mouth, constipation

Answer 665

Hepatoxicity

Answer 666

The largest dural fold is the Tentorium cerebelli Tentorial notch **Falx cerebelli**

Answer 667

**Tentorium cerebelli**

Answer 668

**Falx cerebelli**

Answer 669

**Between L3 & L4** The spinal cord ends at the vertebral level L1/2 so lumbar punctures are performed below this level.

Answer 670

Frank blood in the subarachnoid space is irritating and can cause (aseptic) **meningitis**.

Answer 671

**Sub dural** When the head is accelerated, the inertia of the brain causes its movement to lag behind that of the skull. This leads to traction on bridging veins running between brain and dura mater, which get torn.

Answer 672

**Sub dural** Blood from the ruptured vessels spreads freely through the subdural space and can envelop the entire hemisphere. Because of the forces involved in producing a subdural haemorrhage, there is very often damage to axons in the underlying brain as well

Answer 673

Which of the following commonly accumlates over a period of hours **Epidural** Sub dural Sub arachnoid Intracranial

Answer 674

**MRI T2** T2 is generally the more commonly used, but T1 can be used as a reference for anatomical structures or to distinguish between fat vs. water bright signals. | T2 – TWO tissues are bright: fat and water (WW2 – Water is White in T2)

Answer 675

**MRI T1**

Answer 676

The **right middle cerebral artery** is the most likely to have ruptured in this scenario, as this travels out laterally to supply the lateral region of the cortex.

Answer 677

The haemorrhage is in the region of the right middle cerebral artery **Left-sided upper limb paraesthesia** and **left-sided upper limb weakness.** Aphasia is less likely in this case, as Broca’s area (responsible for expressive speech) is most commonly found on the left hemisphere, along with Wernicke’s area (responsible for receptive speech).

Answer 678

Infection is a possible consequence of **compound skull fracture** in which the scalp is torn

Answer 679

**depressed fracture**

Answer 680

**Linear parietal fracture**

Answer 681

Comminuted depressed skull fracture

Answer 682

**Temporal**

Answer 683

Acceptable responses: *Lucid, Lucid interval*

Answer 684

**Epidural**

Answer 685

Acceptable responses: *temporal bone, right temporal bone, temporal, right temporal*

Answer 686

Venous blood

Answer 687

**oculomotor nerve**

Answer 688

Parietal Occipital **Temporal** Frontal

Answer 689

Acceptable responses: *medulla, medulla oblongata*

Answer 690

**Tonsillar herniation** Compresses the medulla oblongata: **contains the respiratory and cardiac centers** & can result in death

Answer 691

**21 mmHg**: normal is 7-15mmHg

Answer 692

**Right posterior cerebral artery** Ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremity - branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain

Answer 693

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia - **posterior cerebral artery**

Answer 694

**Anterior inferior cerebellar artery** Sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness - anterior inferior cerebellar artery

Answer 695

Basilar artery

Answer 696

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 697

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 698

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 699

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 700

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 701

Which of the following is not used to classify if a headache is a migraine? Light bothers person (a lot more than without a headache) **Lasts longer than 30mins** Headache limits ability to work or study Feel nauseated or sick

Answer 702

Which drug can be used as a prophylasix for cluster headaches if used at high dose nifedipine diltiazem amlodipine **verapamil**

BB2 Qs Flashcards

(761 cards)