1
Q
What must your erosion control plan adhere to?
A
2003 EPA Construction General Permit (or local standard, whichever is more stringent)
2
Q
What is a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
A
A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities
3
Q
How is a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment more in depth?
A
A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative
4
Q
What are the types of sensitive sites to avoid building on?
A
- Prime farmland
- Flood plain
- Land within 50’ of wetlands
- Land within 100’ of a water body
5
Q
Who defines Prime Farmland?
A
The U.S. Department of Agriculture
6
Q
What is the building requirement for projects in places without legally adopted flood hazard map?
A
Cannot build on a floodplain subject to a 1% or greater chance of flooding in any given year
7
Q
Development Footprint
A
Total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project
8
Q
What are the requirements for surrounding density?
A
Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density within 1/4 mile radius of the project boundary meets either the ‘separate residential and nonresidential densities’ or ‘combined density’ values
9
Q
What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?
A
0.5 nonresidential density (FAR) and 7 residential density (DU/acre)
OR
22,000 sf / are of buildable land combined density
10
Q
What are the requirements for diverse uses?
A
Construct or renovate a building or a space within a building such that the building’s main entrance is within 1/2 mile walking distance of the main entrance of four to seven (1 point) or eight or more (2 points) existing and publicly available diverse uses
11
Q
What are the five use categories for diverse uses?
A
- Food retail
- Community-serving retail
- Services
- Civic and community facilities
- Community anchor uses
12
Q
What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit?
A
1/4 mile walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or within a 1/2 mile walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals
13
Q
Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?
A
A functional entry - a building opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance
14
Q
How many bike racks are required for a commercial building?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 5% of all regular building occupants (no fewer than 4 spaces per building)
15
Q
How many bike racks are required for residential projects?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 30% of all regular building occupants
16
Q
How many shower and changing facilities are required for a commercial project?
A
At least one of the first 100 FTE and one additional for every 150 regular building occupants thereafter
17
Q
How do you calculate an FTE?
A
An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8
18
Q
How many preferred parking spaces are required for Green Vehicles?
A
Provide preferred parking for green vehicles for 5% of the total vehicle parking capacity of the site
19
Q
How many EVSE stations must be installed for Green Vehicles?
A
2% of all parking spaces (preferred parking spaces may not be counted)
20
Q
Preferred Parking
A
The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a building (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are the closest to the entrance used by employees
21
Q
For previously developed or graded sites, how much habitat needs to be restored?
A
30% (including the building footprint) of all portions of the site
22
Q
What is an example of a monoculture planting, which would no help with restoring/protecting habitat?
A
Turf grass
23
Q
What areas can be excluded from the vegetation and soil requirements to restore/protect habitat?
A
Vegetated landscape areas that are constructed to accommodate rainwater infiltration
24
Q
For school projects where areas can be excluded from soil restoration criteria to restore/protect habitat?
A
Athletic fields
25
What amount of financial support can be provided to restore/protect habitat?
$0.40 / sf
26
What are the distance limitations when providing financial support to protect/restore habitat?
Financial support must be provided to a nationally or locally recognized land trust or conservation organization within the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project's state (or within 100 miles of the project for projects outside the U.S.). For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance
27
What should be included in a sustainable landscape plan?
List of all plant species, noting whether or not they are native/adapted; info about invasive species and pests those plants may harbor; best maintenance practices for the chosen plants, and site maps showing boundaries for the protected habitat areas
28
What are the IESNA lighting zones?
LZ0 - Wilderness
LZ1 - Dark (parks, rural areas)
LZ2 - Low (residential, light industrial)
LZ3 - Medium (commercial, industrial, high density residential)
LZ4 - High (metro areas)
29
When an organization/agency is providing space for shared use to students, what should be included?
Auditorium, Gym, Cafeteria, One or more classrooms, Swimming Pool, or Playing Field
30
What slope is important for heat island effect - roof?
Greater than 2:12 slope means steeped slop and requires an initial SRI of 39 or greater. 2:12 slope or less requires an SRI of 82 or greater
31
What causes skyglow?
Stray light from unshielded light sources and light reflecting off surfaces that then enter the atmosphere and illuminate and reflect off dust, debris, and water vapor
32
For Schools to achieve Site Master Plan, how many other credits must be met?
At least 4 of 6 of these credits:
- LT Credit High Priority Site
- SS Credit Site Development - Protect or Restore Habitat
- SS Credit Open Space
- SS Credit Rainwater Management
- SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
- SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
33
What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?
1 to 1 (i.e. 50/50 male to female)
34
What fixtures and fittings must be included in the indoor water use reduction calculations?
- Water closets
- Urinals
- Lavatory faucets
- Showers
- Kitchen sink faucets
- Pre-rinse spray valves
35
What is the discount parking rate for Green Vehicles?
20% discount
36
When can wetlands count as open space?
Wetlands or naturally designed ponds may count as open space and the side slope gradients average 1:4 (vertical : horizontal) or less and are vegetated
37
What are the benefits of commissioning?
- Reduced Energy Use
- Lower Operating Costs
- Reduced Contractor Callbacks
- Better Building Documentation
- Improved Occupant Productivity
- Verification that Systems perform with Owner' Project Requriements
38
What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification?
- Cx report
- Current facility requirements
- Operations and maintenance plan
39
What energy-related systems must be commissioned?
- Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
- Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
- Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
- Renewable energy systems
40
What do the Owner's Project Requirements typically include?
- Owner and User Requirements
- Environmental and Sustainability Goals
- Energy Efficiency Goals
- Indoor Environmental Quality Requirements
- Equipment and System Expectations
- Building Occupant and O&M Personnel Requirements
41
What should the Basis of Design include?
Primary Design Assumptions, Standards & Narrative Descriptions
42
Process Energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?
- Miscellaneous Equipment
- Computers
- Elevators
- Escalators
- Kitchen Cooking & Refrigeration Equipment
- Laundry Washing & Drying
- Lighting Exempt from Power Allowance (e.g. Medical Equipment)
- Other (e.g. Waterfall or Fountain Pumps)
43
Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?
- Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, facade, or building grounds)
- HVAC
- Service water heating for domestic or space heating purposes
44
What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?
Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration
45
What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making building systems more energy efficient?
An economizer
46
What refrigerant management procedure governs reducing annual leakage of CFC-based refrigerants to 5% or less?
EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI Rule 608
47
What are the three (3) compliance path options described in Optimize Energy Performance (EA Credit 1)?
- Option 1. Whole Building Energy Simulation
- Option 2. Prescriptive Compliance Path: ASHRAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide
- Option 3. Prescriptive Compliance Path: Advanced Buildings Core Performance Guide
48
What are the six (6) components of ASHRAE 90.1?
- Building envelope
- HVAC
- Service Water Heating
- Power
- Lighting
- Other Equipment
49
What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?
- Orientation
- Site Energy Sources
- Efficient Envelope
- Energy Recovery Systems
49
What are the thresholds for the Renewable Energy Production credit?
LEED BD+C (except Core and Shell): 1%, 5%, 10%
LEED BD+C Core and Shell: 1%, 3%, 5%
50
What are the eligible types of systems for Renewable Energy Production?
- Photovoltaic systems
- Wind energy systems
- Solar thermal systems
- Biofuel-based electrical systems
- Geothermal heating or electric systems
- Low-impact hydroelectric power systems
- Wave & tidal power systems
51
What biofuel systems are NOT eligible for Renewable Energy Production?
- Combustion of municipal solid waste
- Forestry biomass waste other than mill residue
- Coated Wood
- Treated Wood
51
What are the two (2) Options for Enhanced Refrigeration Management?
Option 1. No refrigerants or Low-impact Refrigerants
Option 2. Calculation of Refrigeration Impact
51
What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental Refrigerant Management requirements?
- Small HVAC units (less than 0.5lbs of refrigerant)
- Standard refrigerators
- Small water coolers
51
What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project's energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates
52
What are the two (2) Options for determining electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Option 1. Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance
Option 2. Estimate electricity using CBECS database
52
RECs can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 2, electricity use
53
Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 1 or Scope 2 emissions
53
What are the the three (3) basic methods for ventilating buildings?
- Mechanical Ventilation (active ventilation)
- Natural Ventilation (passive ventilation)
- Mixed-Mode Ventilation (both mechanical and natural ventilation)
53
What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?
25 feet
54
What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)?
25 feet
54
What is the maximum background noise level allowed for HVAC equipment in classrooms required for Minimum Acoustical Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)?
40 dBA
54
What acoustic issues need to be considered for Acoustic Performance?
- HVAC background noise
- Sound transmission
- Reverberation time
- Sound reinforcement and masking systems
55
At what % must an outdoor air delivery monitoring system generate an alarm for insufficient airflow values or carbon dioxide?
10% variation from design values
55
What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?
25 people or more per 1,000 square feet
55
For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilation rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?
30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1
56
What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?
MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)
57
How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?
Follow the CIBSE flow diagram
58
What is required for Construction IAQ Management Plan?
- Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
- Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
- Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
- Prohibit smoking in the building and within 25' of entrances
59
What are the five (5) areas SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?
- HVAC protection
- Source control
- Pathway interruption
- Housekeeping
- Scheduling
60
What are the two (2) Options for Indoor Air Quality Assessment?
Option 1. Flush-out
Options 2. Air testing
61
What are the two (2) building flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment?
- 14,000 cubic feet of outdoor air per SF of floor area @ 60 degrees F & 60% relative humidity
OR
- 3,500 cubic feet of outdoor air per SF of floor area @ minimum rate of .30cfm until reaching 14,000 cubic feet per SF
62
At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment?
3 to 6 feet above floor to represent the breathing zone
63
What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?
California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)
64
How long must permanent entryway systems be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies?
10 feet in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances
65
What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?
MERV 13 (F7) or higher
66
What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck partitions or hard-lid ceilings for interior cross-contamination prevention?
- Garages
- Housekeeping and laundry areas
- Copying and printing rooms
67
What % of the building occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?
At least 90% of individual occupant spaces and 100% of shared multi-occupant spaces
68
How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?
3: on, off, and mid-level
69
What % of the building occupants must have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?
At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared multi-occupant spaces
70
What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?
Option 1. ASHRAE Standard 55-10
OR
Option 2. IOS and CEN Standards
71
What are the six (6) primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?
- Metabolic Rate
- Clothing Insulation
- Air Temperature
- Radiant Temperature
- Air Speed
- Humidity
72
What are the three (3) options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?
Option 1. Simulation: Spatial daylight autonomy and annual sunlight exposure
Option 2. Simulation: Illuminance calculations
Option 3. Measurement
73
What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?
75% = 1 point
74
What are the four kinds of views?
- Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different directions at least 90 degrees apart
- Views that include at least two of the following: (1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; (3) objects at least 25 feet from the exterior of the glazing
- Unobstructed views located within the distance of three times the head height of the vision glazing
- Views with a view factor of 3 or greater
75
What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Views?
75% = 1 point
76
Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what percent of the required area for Quality Views?
30%
77
What dBA must background noise from HVAC equipment be reduced to for Minimum Acoustic Performance?
40 dBA
78
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?
2 points
79
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for IN Credit Innovation for the innovation option?
5 points
80
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits?
4 points
81
What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?
One LEED AP with a specialty appropriate for the project
82
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits?
4 points
83
At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what five (5) materials?
- Paper
- Corrugated
- Cardboard
- Glass
- Plastics
- Metals
84
What do calculations need to be done for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
Weight or volume
85
What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
50% 1 point
75% = 2 points
86
What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Management Planning?
Waste diversion goals
87
What is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?
End User
88
What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredients optimization?
REACH Optimization
89
For Innovation credit when pursuing Option 1 Innovation what must the team identify?
Intent to proposed innovation credit, proposed requirement(s) for compliance, proposed submittals, and strategies used to meet requirement(s)
90
What is a BAS?
Building Automation System
It uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.
91
What is WaterSense?
WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.
92
At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed for breathing zone requirements?
Between 3 and 6 feet above the floor
93
When can certification be revoked?
Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.
94
What is Technical Release (TR) 55?
An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculate storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service
95
What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
- Site conditions
- Massing and orientation
- Basic envelope attributes
- Lighting levels
- Thermal comfort ranges
- Plug and process load needs
96
What water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
- Interior water demand
- Outdoor water demand
- Process water demand
- Supply sources
97
How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?
At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects
98
What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?
EPA's Target Finder
99
What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
- LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
100
What percentage of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?
There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained.
101
When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?
At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements
102
What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?
At least 25% from off site or on site at a percentage of the surface area
103
What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?
- Global warming potential (greenhouse gases)
- Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
- Acidification of land and water sources
- Eutrophication
- Formation of tropospheric ozone
- Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
104
When conducting a whole-building life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?
A minimum of 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building
105
For a whole-building life-cycle assessment what is the service life of a the baseline building?
60 years
106
What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?
Products and materials that are extracted, purchased within 100 miles of the project valued at 200% of their cost
107
What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?
At least 20 different permanently installed projects sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers
108
What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?
Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products
109
What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?
Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 product
110
How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary performance for product disclosure?
At least 40 qualifying products
111
A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?
Each of the three types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope
112
Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?
30%
113
All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?
ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044, and EN 15804 or ISO 21930
114
What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?
- Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
- Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
- U.N. Global Compact: Communication of Progress
- ISO 25000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
115
What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?
- Extended producer responsibility
- Bio-based materials
- Wood products
- Material reuse
- Recycled content
116
What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?
- GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
- Cradle to Cradle Certified
- REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)
117
What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
118
What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?
- Topography
- Hydrology
- Climate
- Vegetation
- Soils
- Human use
- Human health effects
119
What should be used to estimate the water storage capacity of a site during a site assessment?
Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside of the U.S.
120
What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?
A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after three years of weather exposure
121
What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?
Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)
122
What reduction is required for demand response?
At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand
123
What types of demand response programs are acceptable?
Semi-automated and automated (not manual)
124
What is load shedding?
An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control
125
What is the contract period for demand response?
A minimum of one year with intention of multiyear renewal
126
What are the three options for high priority sites?
Option 1. Historic district
Option 2. Priority designation
Option 3. Brownfield remediation
127
What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?
On an infill location
128
What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?
- Site listed by the EPA National Priorites List
- Federal Empowerment Zone site
- Federal Enterprise Community site
- Federal Renewal Community site
- Department of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
- Site in a U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development's Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area
- Local equivalent program administered at the national level for projects outside the U.S.
129
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail or ferry)?
72 weekday, 40 weekend
130
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?
24 weekday, 6 weekend
131
What can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?
When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date
132
What must a bicycle network connect to?
At least one of the following:
- at least 10 diverse uses
- a school or employment center, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
- a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
133
How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?
Within 200-yards walking or bicycle distance
134
What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?
Within 3-mile bicycling distance of the project boundary
135
Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet walking distance of any main entrance
136
Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet walking distance of any functional entry
137
What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
- Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements
- A percent reduction form a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)
138
When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit
139
How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
5% of total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios
140
What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?
25% minimum
141
How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?
30% of total site area (including building footprint) or greater
142
What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?
Physically accessible
143
What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?
- Paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
- Paving or turf that encourages physical activity
- Year-round garden space
- Community gardens
- Preserved or created habitat
144
When can a vegetated roof count towards vegetation for Open Space?
When a project has a density of 1.5 FAR
145
How much rainfall must be managed for a project with a zero-lot-line with a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?
85th Percentile
146
What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
LID and green infrastructure
147
For a project with open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?
95th Percentile
148
When managing rainwater using natural land cover conditions what must be done?
Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the postdeveloped condition
149
When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?
10 years worth
150
What precent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?
100%
151
What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?
75%
152
Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what three-year aged solar reflectance?
0.28
If the three-year aged value information is not available use materials with an initial SR of at least 0.33
153
How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?
The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces
154
Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?
- Three year aged SRI at least 32
- Or a vegetated roof
- Or covered by energy generation systems
155
What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?
Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 200 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours
156
What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light trespass requirements?
- Specialized lighting for transportation
- Lighting for facade and landscape, lighting in MLO lighting zones 3 and 4
- Lighting for theatrical purposes
- Government-mandated roadway lighting
- Hospital emergency departments, including associated helipads
- Lighting for the national flag in MLO lighting zones 2, 3, or 4
- Internally illuminated signage
157
How many conditions are there where the lighting boundary can be different than the property boundary?
There are 3 conditions.
158
When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?
No more than 5 feet apart
159
If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to meet the Light Trespass requirements?
No.
Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Trespass
160
What is a BUG rating?
A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U), and glare (G) (taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance). BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.
161
What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?
Two or more of the following:
- Irrigation
- Indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
- Domestic hot water
- Boilers
- Reclaimed water
- Other process water
162
What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process water?
80% must be submetered
163
What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-Level-Water Metering?
Monthly and annual summaries
164
How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?
A five-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first
165
What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
Non-potable water
166
What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculation baseline?
30% reduction from calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month
167
How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
- Plant species selection
AND
- Irrigation efficiency
Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite
168
What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?
Nonvegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be excluded at the project teams' discretion.
169
What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
50% from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month
170
How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% for outdoor water use reduction?
Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technology
171
What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
15% from the baseline
172
What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?
55%
173
What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?
A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters
174
What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?
A 10-cycle minimum
175
Any individual energy end use that represents ___ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?
10%
176
How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?
36 months
177
What energy sources must be metered in a building?
- Electricity
- Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
- Biofuels
- District chilled water, steam, and hot water
178
How often must advanced meters be able to report data?
Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually
179
What three components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?
Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning
180
Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?
No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Option 2
181
What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?
Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least three material streams
182
When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?
2.5 lbs / SF of waste for the building's floor area
183
What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?
Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris
184
What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage, and disposal?
Choose two of these three:
- Batteries
- Mercury containing lamps
- Electronic waste
185
What two simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?
sDA and ASE
186
What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?
300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
187
What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?
1000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
188
When do the daylight simulations for Option 2 Simulation: Illuminance calculations occur?
9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox
189
At what height should daylight measurements be taken?
30 inches above the finished floor for the default workplane height
LEED AP v4
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