BKAT study guide (1) Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

What does MONA stand for in the initial measures for treating angina?

A
  • Morphine
  • Oxygen
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Aspirin

These are the key medications used in the management of angina.

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2
Q

The most appropriate nursing action for a patient who is depressed in the first few days after having an MI is to: _______.

A

Encourage the patient to ventilate feelings and concerns

This approach helps address emotional well-being post-MI.

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3
Q

What should the nurse do if a post-MI patient’s heart rate increases from 80’s to 90’s when getting out of bed?

A

Check vital signs

Monitoring vital signs is crucial for assessing the patient’s stability.

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4
Q

The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to?

A

Increase in cardiac output

This goal is essential for improving tissue perfusion.

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5
Q

Elevated cardiac enzymes occur in all of the following except: _______.

A

CHF

Elevated enzymes are typically seen in trauma, CABG, and pericarditis.

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6
Q

What is the classic EKG change in an MI?

A

ST segment elevation

This change is a key indicator of myocardial infarction.

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7
Q

After an arterial catheter is removed, direct pressure should be applied for how long?

A

5-10 minutes

This is important to prevent bleeding at the site.

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8
Q

A CVP reading directly measures pressure where?

A

Right atrium

This measurement is used to assess right heart function.

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9
Q

You can use an arterial line for all the following except: _______.

A

Administration of drugs

Arterial lines are primarily for monitoring blood pressure.

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10
Q

What is a normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A

4-12 diastolic

This pressure helps assess left heart function.

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11
Q

Normal pulmonary artery pressure is _______.

A

8-20

The average is typically around 11-20.

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12
Q

Elevated Central Venous Pressure shows: _______.

A

Right sided heart failure

This indicates fluid overload in the right heart.

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13
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure shows pressure in: _______.

A

Left ventricle

This measurement is crucial for assessing left ventricular function.

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14
Q

If the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is elevated, it can indicate: _______.

A

Left sided heart failure

This is particularly indicative of left ventricular failure.

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15
Q

The wave in the cardiac cycle that shows atrial depolarization is: _______.

A

P Wave

This wave is essential for understanding cardiac electrical activity.

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16
Q

The P-R interval is how long?

A

0.12 – 0.2

This interval measures the time between atrial and ventricular depolarization.

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17
Q

A QRS complex longer than 0.12 may indicate: _______.

A

Bundle branch block

This condition affects the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart.

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18
Q

What does failure to sense look like?

A

Pacing spike within QRS

This indicates that the pacemaker is not detecting the heart’s intrinsic activity.

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19
Q

What is the initial drug treatment for ventricular tachycardia?

A

Lidocaine 50-100 mg

This medication is used to stabilize the heart rhythm.

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20
Q

Why is A-flutter so dangerous?

A

It can cause the ventricular rate to increase

This can lead to decreased cardiac output and other complications.

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21
Q

A drug given in complete heart block is: _______.

A

Atropine

This medication helps increase heart rate in bradycardic patients.

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22
Q

What is the correct setting to defibrillate?

A

200-300 joules

This range is typically used for effective defibrillation.

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23
Q

Signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade include all except: _______.

A

Bradycardia

Common signs include hypotension and muffled heart sounds.

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24
Q

You have a patient that is apneic and the monitor is showing asystole. What drug is initially given?

A

Epinephrine

This is a critical medication for managing cardiac arrest.

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25
To avoid **sepsis** when dealing with a central venous catheter, the most important thing you can do is: _______.
Use aseptic care when dealing with the catheter ## Footnote This practice is essential for infection prevention.
26
What is the earliest sign of an increase in **ICP**?
Changes in LOC ## Footnote This is a critical indicator of increased intracranial pressure.
27
Increased ICP is characterized by all except: _______.
Decreased pulse pressure ## Footnote Increased ICP typically presents with Cushing's triad.
28
The drug used to decrease **ICP** is: _______.
Mannitol ## Footnote This osmotic diuretic helps reduce intracranial pressure.
29
What are the **normal ABG values**?
* pH 7.35-7.45 * PCO2 35-45 * PO2 80-100 ## Footnote These values are essential for assessing respiratory and metabolic function.
30
Patient on a ventilator with a **low volume alarm** likely indicates: _______.
A tube disconnection ## Footnote This situation requires immediate assessment and correction.
31
What is the most important intervention to prevent **aspiration** in a patient on continuous tube feedings?
Check the position of the feeding tube Q4 hours ## Footnote Ensuring proper placement is crucial for patient safety.
32
What is the **peak time** of rapid acting insulin?
1 to 2 hours ## Footnote This timing is critical for managing blood glucose levels.
33
What is the **acceptable amount of urine output** per hour in a patient with renal failure?
30 cc ## Footnote This is a guideline for monitoring renal function.
34
What is the **most common symptom** of toxic blood level of lidocaine?
Metal taste ## Footnote This side effect indicates potential toxicity.
35
Which body system is most useful to determine the correct dosage of **lidocaine**?
Hepatic ## Footnote Liver function affects drug metabolism and clearance.
36
How many **micrograms** are in 1 milligram?
1000 mcg ## Footnote This conversion is important for medication dosing.
37
What is the **earliest detection of bleeding** in a patient who has a gastric tube?
Observing the color of the gastric contents ## Footnote This observation is crucial for identifying potential GI bleeding.
38
What is the **initial drug treatment** for ventricular tachycardia?
Lidocaine 50-100 mg ## Footnote This medication is used to stabilize the heart rhythm.
39
Monitor is showing the correct pattern for a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. You can do all the following except:
Flushing the line.
40
What is the purpose of enclosing a pacemaker generator in a rubber glove:
Prevents electrical interference with the pacemaker.
41
If the RN sees ventricular fibrillation, they should first:
Establish unresponsiveness.
42
A patient has atrial flutter with a ventricular response into the 150’s. Use:
Cardioversion, Verapamil, or Digoxin.
43
You get a patient back with a chest tube system in place following thoracic s/s. What would be considered an excessive amount of fluid over the next few hours?
150
44
When setting up to suction a patient, you should adjust negative pressure to
-120mmHg
45
Chest physical therapy on a post op patient with a chest tube in the LEFT side. Breath sounds are decreased in the RIGHT base of his lungs. This indicates
atelectasis.
46
Chest percussion and postural drainage would be contraindicated in:
Pulmonary hemorrhage.
47
Assessing endotracheal tube position. The most appropriate action an RN can take is:
Listen bilaterally to breath sounds.
48
Your patient has an endotracheal tube in place and you ask if he’s doing okay this morning. He responds with an audible voice saying “Yes.”
Check the functioning of the cuff.
49
A high-pressure alarm on a ventilatory can be triggered by all of the following except:
leaky cuff
50
Patient comes in from a motor vehicle accident with closed chest trauma and a deviated trachea. The most likely reason is:
tension pneumothorax.
51
Patient is 3 days post op with a fractured LEFT femur. They suddenly become short of breath. Likely:
fat embolism.
52
Patient is admitted with severe burns. The most important treatment in the next 24 hours is:
fluid replacement
53
One of the most dangerous side effects in rewarming a hypothermic patient is
decreased CO
54
You have a patient that is on a hypothermia blanket
observe frequently to ensure there is no tissue injury.
55
Patient is admitted with cervical spine injury – the most important thing to do is:
hold c-spine/immobilize the head.
56
Most important body system observation for patient with c-spine injury
respiratory.
57
Positive Babinski reflex in adults is:
abnormal
58
Caring for a patient in the acute period of a stroke includes all except
increasing sensory input
59
in doing hourly neuro checks you do all except:
urinary output
60
DKA s/s:
fruity breath, rapid deep breathing, dry warm skin
61
Insulin shock (hypoglycemia) s/s:
weakness, diaphoresis, headache
62
In treating a patient with DKA in a coma you could do all the following except:
give dextrose 50% IV
63
You have a diabetic patient on regular insulin scale and he is complaining of being nervous and feeling faint – you should do all of the following except:
use PRN orders for regular insulin
64
Patient who is acutely ill with DM will usually need
a higher dose of insulin
65
Physiologic response to stress in an acutely ill patient will usually show changes in HR, urine output, and BP in which direction:
increased HR, decreased urinary output, increased BP
66
Peak times of insulin:
rapid acting 1 to 2 hours; short acting 2 to 3 hours; intermediate 4 to 12 hours; long acting 12 to 24 hours
67
how many hours after giving NPH (intermediate) on NPO patient would you expect a reaction to occur:
4-6
68
Thyroid storm s/s:
delirium, elevated temp, tachycardia
69
Post-op craniotomy patient fasting BG of 100 c/o extreme thirst and urine specific gravity is 1.001 – you should suspect:
diabetes insipidus (cannot regulate fluid volume/dilute urine/often deficient in hormone vasopressin – helps control water retention in kidneys)
70
You will be given a picture of a urine gravity reading around .015 in a cylinder with a measure in it – it will ask you what it indicates: .
.015 is a normal urine concentration
71
Which lab test is not a good indicator of renal function
catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine – stress response)
72
Patient with acute renal failure – medications that are normally excreted through the kidneys will probably be:
decreased in dosage
73
Enteral feeding in an acute renal failure patient includes
low sodium, low K, and restricted protein
74
Acute renal failure patient suddenly develops dyspnea, breath sounds-rales, and tachycardia – most likely indicates
fluid overload
75
Patient with hyperkalemia would show what on EKG
wide QRS and peaked T waves
76
Peritoneal dialysis patients’ solutions do not contain
creatinine
77
Peritoneal dialysis complications include all except:
hyperkalemia
78
Peritoneal dialysis fluid change to a brown color in the drainage system
characteristic of peritonitis
79
Nursing considerations for a patient on peritoneal dialysis include all the following except:
maintaining immobility
80
Hyperosmolar non-ketoic dehydration coma can be prevented in a patient on parenteral nutrition therapy early by:
checking blood sugar
81
Patient has a Blakemore tube in place to control bleeding from esophageal varices – most important part of nursing care is:
maintain pressure in the balloons
82
Low intermittent suction is used to remove gastric contents in all the following situations except:
controlling bleeding
83
Acute GI bleed in critically ill patients can occur because of:
the body’s response to stressors
84
Regarding all patients reviving gastric lavage to control acute GI bleeding include all of the following except:
using distilled water for lavage
85
Patient is post cholecystectomy and you notice coffee ground emesis coming from NG tube
test drainage for blood
86
Patient is actively bleeding from the GI tract and getting a blood transfusion. If the patient’s body temperature suddenly increases, you should:
stop the transfusion
87
IV Dopamine should be administered carefully because
it’s a vesicant and infiltration can lead to tissue necrosis.
88
Dilantin will crystalize in all IVF except
NS
89
In using nitroprusside, precautions need to be taken – except
for alertness to hypertensive crisis
90
Which drug needs to be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal insufficiency
cortisone
91
Digitalis toxicity can cause side effects except:
rapid A-V conduction (it would slow it)
92
Patient is bradycardic and the Dr does not want to order Atropine – what other medication can they order to increase HR:
Isuprel
93
Caring for a patient where body fluid exposure is probable, it would be important to observe
universal precaution
94
You are caring for a patient who is intubated who needs frequent suctioning – most appropriate precautions are:
gloves and mask