1
Q
Fascia of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds entire muscle
A
Epimysium
2
Q
Small bundle or cluster of muscle fibers
A
Fascicle
3
Q
Connective tissue extensions from the epimysium that surround each fascicle
A
Perimysium
4
Q
Connective tissue extensions from the perimysium that surround the muscle fibers and are attached to the sarcolemma
A
Endomysium
5
Q
Composed of linear series of repeating sarcomeres
A
Myofibril
6
Q
Responsible for muscle contraction. Composed of thick and thin filaments
A
Myofilaments
7
Q
Thin cell membrane, enclosing a skeletal muscle fiber cell
A
Sarcolemma
8
Q
What is a special feature of the sarcolemma?
A
Invaginates into the sarcoplasm of the muscle cell, forming T-tubules
9
Q
What is a muscle fiber made up of?
A
Bundle of myofibril, sarcomere and type 1 and 2 fibers
10
Q
What are the type 1 fibers?
A
Red
11
Q
What are the type 2 fibers?
A
White
12
Q
What is the basic contractile unit of striated muscle fibers?
A
Sarcomere
13
Q
Where are the sarcomere found?
A
Between the Z lines
14
Q
What gives muscles the striated pattern?
A
Sarcomere
15
Q
What are the components of thin filaments?
A
Actin, Troponin complex, Tropomyosin
16
Q
What are the components of thick filaments?
A
Myosin (multiple molecules of myosin make up the thick filament)
17
Q
Describe the structure of Myosin
A
Tail of intertwined helices and 2 globular heads
18
Q
What is the role of the globular heads of Myosin?
A
To bind ATP and actin
19
Q
What functions as an ATPase enzyme?
A
Myosin
20
Q
Appx. 500 myosin heads of thick myosin filament form what?
A
Cross bridges
21
Q
Myosin heads of thick filament form cross bridges that interact with actin to do what?
A
Shorten the sarcomere
22
Q
What are the subunits of Troponin?
A
TnC, TnI, TnT
23
Q
What provides myofibrils with large amounts of energy allowing for muscle contraction?
A
Mitochondria
24
Q
What fibers have more numbers of mitochondria?
A
Slow twitch (red)
25
What organelle is responsible for regulating calcium storage, release and uptake?
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
26
What organelle allows for rapid transfer of action potentials to the interior fiber?
T-Tubules
27
T-tubules play an important role in what?
Regulating cellular calcium concentration
28
What are the smallest functional units of a muscle?
Sarcomere
29
What two proteins are found in the sarcomere?
Myosin and actin
30
What must happen before muscle contraction begins?
Myosin heads bind with ATP
31
What fibers are found to have higher numbers of mitochondria?
Slow-Twitch (red)
32
What fibers are found to have larger sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Fast Contracting (White)
33
What initiates muscle action?
Nerve impulse
34
When an action potential occurs, what is released?
Stored Calcium ions
35
What actions allow the myosin head to bind to active sites on the actin filament?
When Calcium binds with troponin, the tropomyosin molecules are lifted off the active sites of the actin filament, allowing the myosin head to bind.
36
What provides energy for muscle action?
When the myosin head binds to ATP- ATPase on the myosin head splits the ATP into a usable energy source
37
What happens when myosin binds with actin?
The myosin head tilts and pulls the actin filament so they slide across each other. This results in muscle contraction.
38
When does muscle action end?
When calcium is pumped out of the sarcoplasm to the SR for storage.
39
What are type 1 (Red) muscle fibers?
Type 1 fibers have high aerobic endurance and are suited to low-intensity endurance activities
40
What are type 2 (White) muscle fibers?
Type 2 fibers are better for anaerobic or explosive exercises.
41
What muscle fibers are found to be rich in mitochondria?
Type 1
42
A muscle that has slow contractile speed allowing for slow prolonged activity would have what type fibers?
Type 1 (Red)
43
What fibers are mixed oxidative-glycolytic fibers?
Type IIa
44
These muscle fibers have moderate aerobic capacity and fatigue resistance
Type IIa
45
What are the features of Type IIa muscle fibers?
Moderate aerobic/oxidative capacity
Moderate fatigue resistance
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Mixed oxidative-glycolytic fiber
46
What fibers are glyolytic fibers?
Type IIb
47
Which of the following is/are NOT a feature of Type IIb fibers?
High anaerobic/glycolytic capacity
High motor unit strength
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Slow contractile speed
High Fatigue resistance
Slow contractile speed and high fatigue resistance are NOT features of type II b
48
What class of muscles are responsible for movement?
Agonists
49
What prevents overstretching of agonist mucsles?
Antagonist
50
What assists the agonists and fine tunes direction of movement?
Synergists
51
What happens in concentric muscle action?
The muscle shortens
52
What happens in static muscle action?
The muscle length is unchanged
53
What happens in eccentric muscle action?
The muscle lengthens
54
What are the "stem cells" located in skeletal muscles?
Satellite cells
55
What are the cells involved in muscle growth and repair?
Satellite cells
56
What cells become activated when a muscle is injured?
Satellite cells
57
What is formed when satellite cells are activated after muscle injury?
New muscle fibers or myofibers
58
What is the primary function of Myostatin?
Regulate muscle growth and development
59
What is inhibited with myostatin?
It inhibits the proliferation and differentiation of muscle cells
60
Myostatin is produced and secreted by what cells?
Skeletal muscle cells
61
Where does smooth muscle receive its nerve signals from?
Autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic)
62
Smooth muscle can be divided into what two categories?
Single Unit (visceral)
Multi-Unit
63
Where is Single Unit smooth muscle typically found?
GI tract, bile duct, ureters, uterus, many blood vessels
64
Where is Multi Unit smooth muscle typically found?
Ciliary and iris muscles of the eye, base of hair follicles, smaller airways to lungs, walls of large blood vessels
65
In what type of smooth muscle does each fiber contract independently?
Multi-Unit
66
In what type of smooth muscle do the fibers work together as one unit?
Single Unit
67
What type of smooth muscle would you find where very small, fine movements are needed?
Multi Unit
68
Although smooth muscle contains thick and thin filaments, what do they NOT contain?
Myofibrils or sarcomere
69
What are the actin filaments of smooth muscle attached to?
Dense bodies (analogous to the Z-discs of striated muscle)
70
What configuration allows myosin to pull actin filament in opposite directions, in smooth muscle?
Side-polar cross-bridges
One side bend in one direction and the other side bends in the opposite (Think Chinese finger trap! When you pull in opposite directions it "flattens out"/pulls tight)
71
Once smooth muscle is initiated, low energy is needed to keep the tonic contraction, which can last for hours or even days. What is an example of this?
Maintaining blood pressures
72
What is different about the SR in smooth muscle compared to skeletal?
It is only slightly developed
73
What is the major source of Ca2+ for smooth muscle contraction?
Extra cellular fluid
74
What is not present in all smooth muscle fibers, but when it is, is found near the cell membrane?
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
75
What feature is believed to excite calcium release from the SR in smooth muscle?
Caveolae
76
What structure in smooth muscle is similar to that of T-tubes from skeletal muscle?
Caveolae
77
If the SR is more extensive in smooth muscle, what is the result?
More rapid contractions
78
What do smooth muscles use Calmodulin for?
As a calcium binding protein to regulate contraction process (rather than troponin as in skeletal muscle)
79
What is the result of activated calmodulin?
It activates enzyme MLCK which phosphorylates specific regions of Myosin
80
What happens to phosphorylated myosin?
It binds to actin, forming a cross-bridge allowing muscles to contract
81
What happens when the ion calcium concentration is reduced?
Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate from the myosin light chain, causing muscle relaxation
82
Found in the cytoplasm, Dense bodies serve as what?
Anchoring points for actin filament
83
The arrangement of actin, myosin and dense bodies allow for what in smooth muscle?
Coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscle
84
What cells make up the myocardium?
Cardiomyocytes or cardiocytes
85
Cardiac muscle contains a less developed....
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
86
What are the similarities between cardiac and skeletal muscle?
Fibers are striated
Myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin
Similar organization of sarcomere
T-tubes also release calcium
87
What are some differences in cardiac muscle compared to skeletal?
Cardiac muscles:
Contraction is involuntary
Fibers are shorter and branched
Usually uninucleated
Interconnected by intercalated discs
Generate their own action potential (pacemaker fibers)
88
Cardiac action potential is NOT initiated by nervous activity, instead, it is generated by what?
Pacemaker cells
89
Pacemaker cells have what kind of action potential?
Automatic
90
Where are pacemaker cells found?
Sinoatrial node of right atrium
91
Cardiac muscle is a function synctium. What does this mean?
It means the cells function together; they are electrically connected to each other through intercalated discs
92
Cardiac muscle fibers remain separated as distinct cells with their respective sarcolemma. So how are they connected?
Via intercalated discs
93
What muscle has single multinucleated fibers during embryonic development?
Skeletal muscle (morphological syncytium)
94
Dark, dense cross-band found in the end of each myocardial disc
Intercalated disc
95
What structure is continuous with the sarcolemma and contains important cell-cell junctions
Intercalated discs
96
What cell-cell junction provides mechanical strength and stability?
Desmosome
97
What are the functions of the gap junction?
Allow diffusion of ions and to allow action potential to travel easily from one cell to the next
98
What accounts for the striations in cardiac muscle?
Organized arrangement of actin and myosin filaments
99
Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they lack what?
Smooth muscle lacks myofibrils
100
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle contraction?
It covers the binding sites on actin, preventing myosin binding
101
What is the role of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction?
Binding to troponin, allowing actin-myosin interaction
102
How do T-tubules contribute to the excitation contraction coupling process in skeletal muscle cells?
By transmitting action potentials
103
Which connective tissue layer surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, enclosing all the muscle fascicles?
Epimysium
104
Four cell layers that make up the epidermis
1. Stratum corneum
2. Stratum granulosum
3. Stratum spinosum
4. Stratum basale
105
What layer of skin contains layers of keratinocytes and dead cells still connected by desmosomes?
Stratum corneum
106
What layer of skin has high keratin content and is where flattening of the cells occurs?
Stratum granulosum
107
In this layer of skin, cells are joined by desmosomes providing mechanical strength.
Stratum spinosum
108
What layer of skin contains the stem cells?
Stratum basale
109
In what layer do we find dendritic cells?
Stratum spinosum
110
In what layer do we find melanocytes?
Stratum basale
111
Where would we see a thicker, more prominent stratum corneum?
Hairless, thick skin (ie. pawpads)
112
What are the 4 cells of the epidermis?
1. Keratinocytes
2. Melanocytes
3. Langerhans Cells
4. Merkel's cells
113
What are the most prominent cells in the epidermis?
Keratinocytes
114
What are the 3 functions of keratinocytes?
1. Produce keratin- major structural protein for epidermis
2. Contribute to formation of the epidermal water barrier
3. Makes up majority of structure of the skin, hair and nails
115
In what skin layer does cell division occur?
Basal layer (stratum basale)
116
What are the intermediate keratin filaments?
Tonofilaments
117
What layers of skin does tonofilament synthesis occur?
Stratum basale and stratum spinosum
118
Extended response/Concept
Explain Keratin synthesis and the formation of the epidermal water barrier.
* Cell division occurs in the stratum basale where cells begin to synthesize tonofilaments. (intermediate keratin filaments)
*Cells are then pushed to the stratum spinosum where tonofilament synthesis continues and cells begin to produce keratohyalin granules which help convert granular cells to cornified (keratinization) and lamellar bodies.
* Cells are pushed into the stratum granulosum and continue to stratum corneum.
*Lamellar bodies are discharged by exocytosis into spaces between the SG and SC.
*Lamellar bodies and the lipid envelope create an epidermal water barrier.
119
Where does synthesis of melanocytes begin?
It begins in the premelanosomes from the amino acid Tryosine
120
What skin type will see faster lysosome degradation?
Light skin
121
What are the two forms of melanin pigments?
Eumelanin -> brownish black
Pheomelanin -> Reddish yellow
122
Why does exposure to UV light accelerate the rate of melanin production?
As a way to protect the skin
123
Where we do find Langerhans cells?
Stratum spinosum
124
Who are the first line defenders, also playing a role in antigen presentation?
Langerhans Cells
125
What cells are antigen presenting cells?
Dendritic cells
126
Where are Merkel's cells found?
Stratum basale
127
Where are Merkel's cells most abundant?
Where sensor perception is acute, such as fingertips
128
What are the cells of the dermis?
1. Fibroblasts (primary cells)
2. Macrophages
3. Leukocytes
4. Mast cells
129
Strong and flexible connective tissue composed by cells and collagen fibers
Dermis
130
Tissues derived from the epidermis extend into the dermis and give rise to what?
Sweat glands, sebaceous glands, papillae from hair and feathers
131
What nerve endings are found only in hairless skin?
Meissner (touch receptors)
132
What nerve endings have deep pressure receptors for mechanical and vibratory pressure?
Pacini
133
What nerve endings are only found in haired skin?
Hair follicle sensor (tactile hairs)
134
What nerve endings respond to mechanical displacement of adjacent collagen fibers?
Ruffini
135
Cells in what layer would produce new hair follicles in the invent of skin injury?
Stratum basale
136
Hair follicles are formed by invaginations of what layers?
The epidermis and dermis
137
What region of the hair bulb produces new daughter cells that are pushed towards the surface?
The matrix
138
Single layer of dead, scale-like keratinocytes
Cuticle
139
Several layers of dead keratinocytes containing hard keratin
Cortex
140
Dead loosely keratinized cells
Medulla
141
Smooth muscle associated to the hair bulb and anchored to the outer layer of the dermis. (Sympathetic innervated)
Piloerector muscle
142
Hair follicles have cycles of activity... List them in order and what they are associated with.
Anagen (growth) to Catagen (regression) to Telogen (resting) to Exogen (shedding)
143
What are the two types of feathers?
Flight
Covert (down)
144
What is the flat part of the feather?
Vane
145
What does the vane consist of?
Barbs that are at angles of 45 degrees
146
Hooklets are present where?
Only on the barbules of one side of the barb on feathers
147
The barbules of down feathers lack what?
Hooklets
148
Feathers from the same feather follicle can have what?
Different pigmentation
149
What are the glands of the skin?
Sebaceous glands
Sweat glands
Mammary glands
150
This duct opens into a hair follicle and/or pore on the skin surface
Sebaceous gland
151
What is the composition of sebaceous glands?
Detached, degraded epithelial cells as well as lipids and proteins
152
What is the function of sebaceous glands?
Lubrication of skin, water impermeability, inhibition of bacterial growth
153
There are no sebaceous glands associated with feathers. _________ glands in waterfowl are used for preening/water proofing feathers.
Uropygial glands
154
What are the two types of sweat glands?
Eccrine and Apocrine
155
What sweat glands are common in primates?
Eccrine glands
156
Where do eccrine glands open?
In the pores at the skin surface
157
Where are Na+ and Cl- reabsorbed in skin?
Eccrine glands
158
What glands are common in domestic animals?
Apocrine
159
Where do apocrine glands open?
Into the hair follicle
160
Odoriferous secretion composed of fatty acids and protein come from what glands?
Apocrine
161
What are the milk producing units?
Alveoli (acini)
162
What are clusters of alveoli?
Lobuli
163
What are clusters of Lobuli?
Lobi
164
What cells are involved in milk ejection?
Myoepithelial cells
165
Nutrient and water required for milk production diffuse from ________ ___________ and enter into the __________ ______
blood capillaries, epithelial cells
166
What are examples of cornified epidermal structures?
Hooves, claws, horns, claws, beaks, shells, scales
167
Horny hoof wall is formed by what?
Keratinization of the cells in the coronary band, recently produced horn is pushed downward as new horn is being formed.
168
At the coronary band, the _____ of the skin is continuous with the _____ of the hoof.
Dermis, Dermis
169
What hairs provide the smooth appearance, lie close against skin, and promote rain runoff?
Guard hairs
170
How do guard hairs develop?
The follicle develops from an ectodermal bud, the distal end of the bud forms a bulbous enlargement indented by mesenchymal papillar to form primitive hair follicle.
171
Long tail hairs of cattle
Fetlock tufts of horses
Feather of tail and limbs of certain breeds of dogs
These are examples of what?
Guard hairs
172
What hairs provide the soft undercoat?
Wool hairs
173
These hairs are shorter, more numerous than guard hairs and are concealed between the guard hair
Wool hairs
174
These hairs are substantially thicker and generally protrude beyond the neighboring guard hairs
Tactile hair
175
These hairs can reach deep into the SQ or even superficial muscles
Tactile hair
176
These hairs are characterized by the presence of venous sinus filled with blood and located between inner and outer layers of dermal sheath
Tactile hairs
177
Follicles of these types of hair appear early in development, before those of the coat hairs.
Tactile hairs
178
Structure that has thick epidermal covering, dermis, and SQ cushion or pulvinus
Torus/Tori (foot pad)
179
What is the difference between digitigrade and plantigrade?
Digitigrade - such as dogs- don't walk on the "soles" of their feet as much as their "digits"
Plantigrade - such as bears - put their weight mainly on the sole of their foot.
180
Ruminants and pigs have a digital pad called what?
Bulb- located in the hoof
181
Horses have digital pads called what?
Frog- located in the hoof
182
What are the three parts of the horse hoof?
Wall, Sole and associated pad (horny structure; corresponds with digital bulb or digital pad)
183
Strongly curved portion of the equine hoof that has sides that are sharply inflected to form bars
The wall
184
Space between the bars of an equine hoof
The frog
185
The part of the horse hoof that contacts the ground
Frog
186
The sole horn that fills the ground surface between the wall and the frog is a junction known as what?
The White Line
187
What is the band of soft horn that lies over the external surface of the wall near the junction of the skin?
Periople
188
What structure widens the back of the hoof, where it covers the bulbs of the heel and part of the frog?
Periople
189
Descends with the wall and dries to a protective glossy layer
Periople
190
What bonds the claw to the dorsal border of the bone?
Longitudinal interdigitations between the dermal and epidermal laminae
191
What make up the CNS?
Brain and spinal cord
192
What make up the PNS?
Spinal and cranial nerves
193
What is the role of the CNS?
The interpret incoming sensory information and issue instructions based on past experience and current conditions
194
What is the role of the PNS?
To carry impulses from the sensory receptors to the CNS and from the CNS to effectors
195
Afferent division (AKA sensory component) conducts impulses ________ the spinal cord and brain
Toward
196
Efferent division (AKA motor component) of the PNS conveys impulses ______ from the brain and spinal cord
Away
197
Afferent and Efferent are further subdivided into what?
Somatic and Visceral sytems
198
What system is concerned with both sensory and motor functions that determine relationship of the organism to the outside world?
Somatic
199
This system includes detection of stimuli in the skin, tissues of limb and trunk as well as behavioral actions
Somatic system
200
The somatic system can also be referred to as what?
The voluntary system
201
This system is concerned with sensory and motor functions that relate to the internal viscera
Visceral system
202
The motor component of the visceral peripheral nervous system is also referred to as what?
Autonomic system
203
Regulation of BP, HR, and the control of glandular activity and digestive process are controlled by what nervous system?
The Visceral (or Autonomic) nervous system
204
The Autonomic nervous system consists of what?
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
205
Visceral efferent fibers of the sympathetic division leave the CNS via the spinal nerves in the ___________ regions of the spinal cord
Thoracolumbar regions
206
The visceral efferent fibers of the parasympathetic division are found in a small group of cranial nerves and in spinal nerves of the ______ region of the spinal cord
Sacral region
207
The sympathetic division is responsible for what responses?
Flight or Fight
208
The parasympathetic division is responsible for what responses?
Conserving energy
Promotes housekeeping functions during rest.
209
What are the basic elements of the nervous system?
Neurons
210
Thin branching extensions of the cell body that conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body
Dendrites
211
A single branch (in most neurons) which conducts nerves away from the cell body?
Axon
212
What does gray matter of the brain contain?
Cell bodies of motor and association neurons
213
What does white matter of the brain contain?
Myelinated axons
214
All spinal nerves are ________ nerves, but not all cranial nerves are.
Mixed
215
What part of the brain controls coordination and fine tuning of movement?
Cerebellum
216
What part of the brain is the conscious perception of sensory input and initiation of conscious movement?
Cerebrum
217
What is the relay center for the brain, it filters sensory input and allows us to concentrate?
Brain stem (midprain, pons and medulla oblongota)
218
What is the corpus callosum responsible for?
Enabling communication between hemispheres
219
Reflexes do not require _______ input and does not imply consciousness.
Cerebral
220
Response requires _______ awareness
Cortical
221
What are the 5 elements of reflex arc?
1. Receptor
2. Sensory neuron
3. Integration center
4. Motor neuron
5. Effector
222
What are somatic reflexes?
They include all reflexes that stimulate skeletal muscle
223
What are autonomic reflexes?
They regulate the activity of smooth muscle, heart and glands. I.e. Digestion, elimination, blood pressure and sweating
224
Sensory (afferent) Nerves, Motor (efferent) nerves and Mixed nerves are based on what?
The direction of the nerve impulse
225
What are the 4 types of basic tissue that make up the organs of the body?
Epithelial
Connective
Muscular
Nervous
226
What are the three types of epithelium?
Lining (surface) epithelia
Glandular epithelia
Special epithelia
227
Where would you find lining epithelia?
Body surfaces, lining of luminal organs, tubular structures, body cavities
228
What is the function of glandular epithelia?
To synthesize, store and release various products
229
What type of epithelia contain sensory nerve endings?
Special epithelia
230
Where would you find special epithelia?
Skin, ears, tongue (nose and eyes but w/ modified neurons)
231
What are some characteristics of epithelium?
Supported by connective tissue
Avascular
Basement membrane
Cells are cohesive
Cells are polarized
232
Epithelium that is composed of flat, elongated cells, with a round to oval nucleus- often centrally located.
Simple Squamous Epithelium
233
Where would simple squamous epithelium be found?
Lining of body cavities (mesothelium), alveolar walls in lungs, inner lining of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels (called the endothelium)
234
What type of epithelium has tall, narrow cells with an oval nucleus located near the base?
Simple Columnar Epithelium
235
What kind of epithelium would you find lining the luminal surface of the stomach, SI, LI and gall bladder?
Simple columnar
236
What kind of epithelium would you see lining the oviduct?
Simple columnar ciliated
237
What type of epithelium is composed of a single layer of irregularly shaped and sized cells?
Pseudostratified
238
In what kind of epithelium would all cells touch the basement membrane but not all reach the apical surface?
Pseudostratified
239
Where would you find pseudostratified epithelium?
Nasal cavity and upper respiratory tract
240
What complication can be seen with a lack or absence of cilia?
Chronic respiratory infections
241
What epithelium is composed of several layers of cells?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
242
What are the two types of squamous epithelium?
Keratinized (cornified)
Non-keratinized
243
What type of epithelium is found in the dental pad of ruminants?
Stratified Squamous, Keratinized
244
Transitional epithelium is also called what?
Urothelium
245
What type of epithelium would you find lining the urinary bladder?
Transitional (Urothelium) epithelium
246
What makes Urothelium unique?
Superficial cells have specialized plasma membranes providing an osmotic barrier between urine and tissue fluids
247
In transitional epithelium, if the superficial cells are cuboidal with a dome shaped surface what does that indicate?
An empty bladder
248
In transitional epithelium, if the epithelium appears flattened and more like stratified squamous, what does that indicate?
A full bladder
249
Where are stem cells located?
Stratum basale (basal cell layer)
250
What are the criteria used to classify glandular epithelium?
Number of cells in the gland
Shape of duct and secretory units (adenomeres)
Type of product
Mode of secretion
251
Where are unicellular glands found?
Epithelial lining and glands of intestine as well as in the epithelial lining of the respiratory tract
252
What is an example of a unicellular gland?
Goblet cell
253
What gives the goblet cell it's unique shape?
The presence of abundant mucinogen granuls in the apical part of the cell
254
Where might you see goblet cells?
Simple columnar epithelium of the colon
255
What are the three types of multicellular glands?
Tubular
Acinar
Alveolar
256
What type of gland would you find in sweat glands, stomach glands or intestinal glands?
Tubular gland
257
What kind of gland is pie-shaped?
Acinar
258
What type of gland would you find in the small lumen (pancreas and salivary glands)?
Acinar
259
What gland provides a larger luminal space?
Alveolar
260
Where would you find alveolar glands?
Mammary glands, prostate, sebaceous glands
261
What shape corresponds to a rounded secretory unit?
Acinar
262
What shape corresponds to a bigger luminal space?
Alveolar
263
What is the parenchyma?
The collective secretory units and ducts of a compound gland
264
The connective tissue elements comprise what?
The stroma
265
Large glands are divided into _______ which are further divided into _______
Lobes, lobules
266
What is an example of cerumen?
Ear wax
267
What is the secretion of modified sweat glands in the external auditory canal?
Cerumen
268
What is sebum?
Oily secretion from the sebaceous glands
269
A gland that produces both mucous and serous secretion is called mixed. What is an example of this?
Saliva
270
What are the components of connective tissue?
Cells, Fibers, Ground substance (interstitial fluid)
271
What are some characteristics of connective tissue?
Supports epithelia
Vascularized
Cells lack polarity
Less cohesive
No basement membrane
272
What are some functions of connective tissue?
Joins tissues together
Gives form, subdivides organs
Physical support of body
Thermoregulation
Nutrition and storage (adipose)
Defense and repair mechanisms
273
What are the two types of cells of connective tissue?
Resident and transient
274
What are the 3 types of fibers in connective tissue?
Collagen, elastic, reticular
275
What are the two types of ground substance in connective tissue?
Macromolecules and interstitial fluid
276
What is the most numerous cell population in connective tissue?
Fibroblasts
277
What type of cells are fibroblasts?
Resident cells
278
What synthesizes the fibers of connective tissue?
Fibroblasts
279
What are examples of resident cells?
Reticular cells, Fibroblasts, Adipocytes, Macrophages, Mast cells
280
What type of cells would you find in lymph nodes, liver, spleen, that would not be subjected to high mechanical stress?
Reticular cells
281
What cells serve as scaffolding to the parenchyma of various organs?
Reticular cells
282
What cells specialize in depositing lipids?
Adipocytes
283
What are the two types of adipocytes?
Multiocular (brown)
Uniocular (white)
284
Where would you see multiocular adipocytes?
Newborns and hibernating animals
285
What is the resident phagocyte cell of connective tissue?
Macrophage
286
What are the macrophages in the liver? And the bone?
Kupffer cells (liver)
Osteoclasts (bone)
287
What cells are filled with basophilic granules?
Mast cells
288
What cells are involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions?
Mast cells
289
What does degranulation (activation) of mast cells cause?
Release of histamine and other chemical mediators that trigger symptoms of allergy
290
What is an example of transient connective tissue cells?
White blood cells
(Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes)
291
What are the most numerous fibers of connective tissue?
Collagen fiber
292
What are some characteristics of collagen fiber?
White, very high tensile strength, very strong, can only stretch 5% of initial length
293
What is the most abundant protein in the body?
Collagen
294
What cells synthesize collagen?
FIbroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts...etc (basically anything ending in -blast)
295
What is formed in the fibroblast and transported out of the cell to be assembled into collagen fibrils?
Procollagen
296
What is an important cofactor in collagen synthesis?
Vitamin C
297
Found in 90% of body's collagen, skin, bone, dentin, tendons, fibrocartilage; resists tensile forces
Type 1 collagen
298
Found in cartilage, resists compression
Type 2 collagen
299
Reticular fibers found in the stroma of expandable organs
Type 3 collagen
300
Basal lamina of the epithelia
Type 4 collagen
301
FIber found in aorta, arteries, lungs, vocal cords, dermis, ear pinna, epiglottis...
Elastic fibers
302
Individual, branching, anastomosing fibers
Elastic fibers
303
What fibers are stained by silver and serve as scaffolding to cells or cell groups of various organs?
Reticular fibers
304
What substance is produced by resident cells?
Ground substance
305
Composed of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
Ground substance
306
What link to core proteins to make proteoglycans?
GAGs
307
Properties of these molecules allow for binding of water, resisting compressive forces, cell adhesion to fibers, cell migration, barrier to bacterial/venom penetration
Ground substance
308
A solution of nutrients and dissolved gases derived from plasma
Interstitial fluid
309
Bathes the cells, fibers and ground substance, and aids in removing waste
Interstitial fluid
310
A decrease in skin turgor is what?
A LATE sign in dehydration
311
What are important in fluid movement and prevention of edema?
Lymphatics
312
True or false
Interstitial (tissue) fluid is visible on slides
False - NOT visible on slides
313
Adipocytes produce _____ which has regulatory effects on body fat.
Leptin
314
Leptin levels are proportional to what?
Body fat
315
What signals the brain (satiety center) that the body has had enough to eat?
Leptin
316
What occurs when adipocytes outnumber other cell types?
Adipose tissue
317
What is the endocrine function of white adipose tissue?
Hormone "leptin" secretion
318
What are the main functions of White adipose tissue?
Energy storage
Insulation
Leptin secretion
319
What is the main function of brown adipose tissue?
Heat generation
320
What part of the ear captures air vibrations and directs them towards the tympanic membrane?
External ear
321
The auricle (pinna) and ear canal (vertical and horizontal part) are the parts of what portion of the ear?
The external ear
322
Sound modulation is a function of what portion of the ear?
Middle ear
323
This part of the ear is located in the tympanic part of the temporal bone of skull
Middle ear
324
What are the 3 auditory ossicles?
Malleus
Incus
Stapes
325
What connects the tympanic membrane to the oval window?
The 3 auditory ossicles
326
Through what structure does the pharynx communicate with the middle ear?
Auditory tube
327
The pharynx and auditory tube ensure what?
That the air pressure inside the middle ear is equal to the outside air pressure
328
Where is the inner ear housed?
Deep inside the temporal bone
329
What nerve is found in the inner ear?
CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)
330
What comprises the inner ear?
Cochlea (organ for hearing)
Vestibular apparatus (organ for balance)
Utricle
Saccule
331
What are the 3 tunics of the eye?
Fibrous Tunic
Vascular Tunic
Nervous Tunic
332
What tunic houses the sclera and cornea?
Fibrous tunic
333
What tunic houses the iris, ciliary body, and choroid?
Vascular tunic
334
What tunic houses the pigmented layer and neural layer?
Nervous tunic
335
What structure is responsible for structural integrity of the eye?
Sclera
336
What structure of the eye allows light to enter the eye?
Cornea
337
What structure in the eye modulates the amount of light?
Iris
338
What structure of the eye modulates vision focus?
Ciliary body
339
What structure in the eye provides blood supply and innervation?
Choroid
340
What tunic reacts to light stimuli and outputs nerve impulses for the brain to be interpreted as images?
Nervous tunic
341
What is the transparent anterior 1/4 of the eye?
Cornea
342
What is the opaque posterior 3/4 of the eye?
Sclera
343
Where is the tapetum lucidum found?
In the choroid
344
Dorsal part of the eye that reflects light, is avascular and reflects in iridescence
Tapetum lucidum
345
Which portion of the eye is suspended between the cornea and lens?
Iris
346
Which portion of the nervous tunic of the eye has no photoreceptors?
Anterior, thinner pigmented layer
347
What is responsible for the "blind spot"?
Optic disk of the nervous tunic (retina) where axons emerge from the eye bulb
348
What muscles change the shape of the lens for focusing?
Ciliary muscles
349
What intrinsic muscles of the eye are poorly developed in domestic animals?
Ciliary muscles
350
What are the intrinsic muscles of the eye?
Ciliary and pupillary
351
What type of muscles of the eye are under voluntary control?
Extrinsic muscles (4 rectus and 2 oblique)
352
The space between the cornea and lens is divided into what 2 chambers?
Anterior and Posterior chamber
353
What chamber does NOT communicate with anterior compartment?
Vitreous chamber
354
What eye chamber is from the cornea to the iris?
Anterior
355
What eye chamber is from the iris to the lens?
Posterior
356
What chamber contains the aqueous humor?
Anterior and Posterior chamber
357
Concave fold of palpebral conjunctiva that protrudes from the medial angle of the eye
Third eyelid (plica semilunaris)
358
What supports the third eyelid?
T-shaped cartilage
359
Gland of the eye located dorso-lateral to eye, secretes serous fluid
Lacrimal gland
360
What is the flow for tears/gland secretion?
Lacrimal gland secretes serous fluid, then secretion flows over cornea then passes through lacrimal puncta and into lacrimal canaliculi and then drains into nasolacrimal duct
361
What is located in the caudal region of the nasal cavity?
Olfactory mucosa
362
What covers thin scrolls of ethmoidal bone?
Olfactory mucosa
363
This nerve is made up of numerous axons that rise in the olfactory mucosa and pass through cribiform foramina to olfactory bulbs
Olfactory nerve
364
Where are taste buds located on the tongue?
Vallate
Foliate
Fungiform papillae
365
What CN is found on the caudal 1/3 of the tongue?
IX (Glossopharyngeal)
366
What CN is sensory from the rostral 2/3 of the tongue?
Lingual nerve (Touch- trigeminal nerve CN V and taste- facial CN VII)
367
What do canine's have since they have an incomplete orbit?
Orbital ligament
Vet Prep Structure Function
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