Gio's ABM Study > Block 3 > Flashcards

Block 3 Flashcards

Brevity and Test questions (91 cards)

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1
Q

What State

A

Request for amount of fuel and missiles remaining

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2
Q

Playtime

A

amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes

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3
Q

Skosh

A

Aircraft is out of or unable to employ active radar guided misslies

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4
Q

Reset

A

proceed to a prebriefed position or area of operations

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5
Q

Cap

A

establish a combat air patrol at a specified point, used prior to committing forces in support of a defensive operation.

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6
Q

Climb

A

to direct an aircraft to elevate to a certain altitude

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7
Q

Joker

A

Fuel state above BINGO at which separation, BUGOUT, or even termination should begin

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8
Q

RTB

A

Return to base

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9
Q

Single

A

One GROUP, CONTACT, etc.

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10
Q

What is the criteria for “Bullseye same”.

A

3 nm

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11
Q

Purpose of Brevity words

A

Provide standardized language for all military branches

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12
Q

Ways to express altitude?

A

angles, Flight Level (FL), thousands of feet

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13
Q

What is/are the proper ways to pass a frequency?

A

Single digits w/ “decimal”

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14
Q

What term is used when no active radar missiles remain?

A

skosh

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15
Q

Correctly formatted “directive call? “informative” call?

A

“Eagle 01, ID 1-8-0, angels 2-3, cutoff”
“DH, single group Bullseye 273/69, thirty thousand, track south, bogey spades”

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16
Q

Which types of calls are given in BRAA format?

A

Threat or stranger point-out, response to a snap request, aids targeting or intercept flow

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17
Q

Define “Spades”

A

an intercepted group or radar contact that lacks all of the air tasking order (or equivalent identification, friend or foe selective identification feature mods and codes required for the ID criteria).

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18
Q

Are Air-to-Air bearing measurements in true or magnetic

A

Magnetic

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19
Q

What is Mach?

A

Expression of speed relative to speed of sound

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20
Q

How do you determine aspect angle?

A

Measure angle from tail and bearing from tgt to fighter

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21
Q

What is Indicated airspeed?

A

Speed indicated by aircraft instruments

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22
Q

What is True Air Speed?

A

Calibrated air speed corrected for pressure and temp

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23
Q

What is Ground speed?

A

True air speed adjusted for relative wind

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24
Q

Fastest way to join-up two aircraft?

A

Cutoff intercept

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25
What is a cutoff intercept?
Collision course intercept, quickest way to employ weapons
26
A "Flank" is described as a contact aspect stabilized at how many degrees from the nose?
31-70 degrees
27
What does it mean if an aircraft is swuaking M3 7500?
Hijacked
28
What is the purpose of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
Allows pilot to communicate his position
29
Primary information source for aircraft experiencing an emergency while under your control?
Doghouse Mission Crew Guide
30
What is MAYDAY
Internationally recognized distress call
31
What is UHF Guard Frequency? VHF? (Hint half of the UHF)?
UHF- 243.0 VHF- 121.5
32
33
Emergency procedure considerations?
Nature of the emergency, Pilot's intentions, and navigational assistance.
34
Controller Responsibilities if an aircraft is down?
Mark locations, record time, vector responding aircraft to location, determine #chutes, Notify appropriate agencies.
35
Offset required for a HIGH stern (180 deg turn radius for fighters)?
7 nm
36
Advantages of stern intercepts?
achieve offensive position, achieve element of surprise, optimal radar/visual cross-section of tgt, allow easy trailing (shadowing) of tgt
37
Disadvantages of stern intercepts?
Require offset/turning roequire more time than cutoffs, geometry can be defeated by target maneuvers, fighter is vulnerable to trailing/lowundetected groups, and require speed advantage.
38
Types of Stern Intercepts?
Horizontal Vertical Combination
39
Aspect angle intercept types?
High Mid Tail Intercept
40
What is ARCP?
Planned point which receivers arrive at observation/pre-contact position w/respect to assigned tanker
41
What is considered low altitude refueling?
Air refueling conducted below 10,000 Ft AGL (EXCEPTION -> Below 5,000 AGL, consitutes C-130 low alt refueling).
42
What is the lowest base altitude refueling?
5k AGL above highest terrain/obstacle w/in 5 nm either side of track or centerline
43
**Standard** AR will be conducted above?
12k MSL or 10k AGL, whichever is higher.
44
Definition of EMCON
1. Any and all emitters authorized 2. Desired standard for daily A/A refueling ops limited radio exchange, all other emitters Authorized 3. Radio Silent, use of other emitters authorized unless prohibited 4. No emitters used unless authorized by ATO Spins, ROE, Ops Plan, etc.
45
Tanker cells in same, anchor altitude criteria?
4k min. figured from lowest cell's highest tanker
46
Where is the ARCP timing found?
ATO
47
Most effective fuel transfer system in quantity and time?
Boom
48
Which aircraft can be reconfigured in flight between multiple offload systems?
KC-10A
49
Definition of "as fragged"?
Unit/element performing as stated per ATO
50
Offload Capabilities for KSC-130 KC-10A KC-135 F-18 E/F
KC-130 - 46k pound of fuel KC-10A - 250k pounds of fuel KC-135 - 90k pounds of fuel F-18 E/F - 19 k pounds of fuel
51
Refueling offload system is used by the Navy?
Probe & Drogue
52
Trailing tanker altitude and distance requirements within a cell?
1nm & 500 feet higher
53
What is "break-away"?
Tanker or Receiver call indicating immediate vertical & nose/tail separation between them is required. (be sure & review GLOSSARY at end of ACS-306, Air Refueling reader)
54
Maneuvering categories and their criteria: Unlimited
A/A training w/no limitations on maneuvering
55
Maneuvering categories and their criteria: Limited
If neither AC can ID defender, terminate after 1st AC reaches 180 deg of turn aft of 3/9 line
56
Maneuvering categories and their criteria: Non-maneuvering
A/A training maintaining constant heading/speed/altitude
57
Maneuvering categories and their criteria: Restricted
A/A training w/heading hcanges of up to 90 deg either side of course
58
Maneuvering categories and their criteria: Controlled
A/A 1 v 1 night visual training w/NVGs. Defensive fighter restricted to a max 540 deg of turn
59
Understand the continuum of control and their criteria: Close
ABM/WD responsible for vectors/geometry/altitude deconfliction
60
Understand the continuum of control and their criteria: Tactical
Max use of aircrew and ABM/WD radar/comm/SA for mission
61
Understand the continuum of control and their criteria: Broadcast
Provide target info to multiple missions, covert/sat environment
62
Understand the continuum of control and their criteria: Advisory
Loss of radar capability, may use procedural control
63
Understand the continuum of control and their criteria: Autonomous
Info/guidance not available from TAC C2 or control agency
64
Which continuum of control is the aircrew responsible for tactical positioning?
All but Close Control
65
What is the knock-it-off call used for?
If safety is a factor, when DLOs are met or unattainable for entire scenario
66
What is the appropriate safety preface for all communications jamming procedures?
SAFETY SAFETY
67
What is the governing AFI for Air to Air and Air to Surface training operations?
AFI 11-214
68
Aircrews pass what information to controlling agency at check-in?
Call sign/location, authentication, deviations/aborts, alibis
69
Vertical separation requirements between altitude blocks at or above 5,000' AGL.
1,000 feet
70
GATR radios must have ___ frequenxy seperation to avoid damage.
3.0 mhz
71
Primary radios are
ACMI (Telemoc) , GATR, Carrabelle (UHF/VHF, fixed Selectable, tunable radios)
72
Carrabelle Radios
Have a lower coverage than ACMI (telemoc) because of their positioning on the tower.
73
Operational Risk Management
All crew members, students, and SDO/Top 3s fill out an electronic ORM for live missions and Post score on schedule at the SDO/Top 3.
74
WT mustbe included in
All crew member communications and plan selective identification feature (SIF) with Mission Lead
74
ARSR-4 has what range
SFC-100kft, 5-250nm
75
One Revolution on the ARSR 4 takes...
12 seconds
76
What minimim target RCS does the ARSR need to be detected at 200 nm
2.2 m^2
77
What 3 radios types/locations are primarily used for local missions
ACMI (Telecom), GATR, Carrabelle
78
What minimim target RCS does the ARSR need to be detected at 200 nm
5.8m^2
79
What IFF/SIF codes are available for doghouse live missions?
2,3,C
80
What altimiter will be used in overland MOAs?
Standard with a floor above 5k ft, local with a floor below 5k
81
What altimiter will be used in overwater SUAs?
Standard with a floor above 5k ft, local with a floor below 5k
82
What airspaces are considered local mission airspaces?
W470, W151, Tyndall LLAs, Raptor ATCAA
83
Be on scope NLT?
30 mins prior to take-off
84
What is the buffer zone range around working airspaces?
15 nm
85
What technique may be used to display alt?
Tags/Mode C Corridor, Track/Range Sensor Rollover
86
What Frequncy must be monitored at all times?
243.0 (Guard)
87
What is the purpose of the frequency 243.0?
UHF Guard Aircraft Emergency Coordination
87
RAPCON Provides services to
below FL280 and up to 60 nm
88
Stranger traffic must be identified NLT ?
15 nms
89
Eglin Mission Control (EMC) is responsible for
overall speciial use airspaces (SUA) operations IAW FAA order JO 7610.4 and is the ATC Facility responsible for handling Englin-based aircraft.
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