1
Q
M4 Specs
A
5.56 mm Holds 30 round magazine + 1 round in chamber 7.5 lbs with loaded -Gas operated -Air cooled -Magazine fed
2
Q
P226 Specs
A
9mm Semi-Automatic 15 round magazine + 1 round in chamber Mechanically Locked Recoil operated Magazine Fed Single/Double Action
3
Q
M2HB
A
.
4
Q
Wire Entanglement Types
A
.
5
Q
Boat Security Tactics
A
.
6
Q
463L
A
Air Force Pallet
7
Q
TPFDD
A
.
8
Q
TUCHA DATA
A
.
9
Q
JOPES
A
.
10
Q
AT/FP Attack Types
A
.
11
Q
3 Types of Training
A
.
12
Q
9 Line
A
.
13
Q
Line of Sight
A
.
14
Q
Sat Comms
A
.
15
Q
MBITR
A
.
16
Q
117G
A
.
17
Q
148
A
.
18
Q
Small Craft Boat Types
A
.
19
Q
CASREP
A
.
20
Q
LOGREQ
A
.
21
Q
SITREP
A
.
22
Q
Minimize
A
.
23
Q
Medal of Honor Recipients
A
.
24
Q
MOH #1
A
.
25
MOH#2
.
26
MOH#3
.
27
MOH saved MOH
story
28
Delivery Platforms
.
29
10 Classes of Supply
.
30
What is ORM?
Operational Risk Management
ORM is a decision making tool – used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission.
31
What are the five steps in applying ORM?
```
1- Identify hazards
2- Assess the hazards
3- Make risk decisions
4- Implement controls
5- Supervise
```
32
What are the 3 type of ORM controls?
1- engineering controls
2- administrative controls
3- PPE
33
Which ORM controls are least effective and why?
PPE is the least effective because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occurring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap does occur.
34
How often do Safety councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall safety program?
Quarterly
35
Who does the Safety Council members consist of?
1- Chairperson (CO/XO)
2- Unit Safety Officer (recorder)
3- Safety Reps from each dept
36
Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command?
CO
37
Who is responsible for advising the CO on matters pertaining to safety, manages the command safety program, investigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards?
Safety Officer
38
When should you use hearing protection?
When constant noise exceeds 84 dBA, or peak noise exceeds 140 dBA
39
When should you where double hearing protection?
When noise is greater then 104DBA
40
What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular substance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill handling procedures?
MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)
41
Who is authorized to perform lockout/tagout procedures?
Only qualified personnel in writing are authorized
42
What type of extinguisher do you use for a Class B fire?
(Fuel fire)
CO2
Dry Chemical
43
What is an EDVR?
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
44
What is a Naval Message and what are the three categories?
A formal and secure form of correspondence that has the ability to be tracked
1 – Routine
2 – Priority
3 – Flash
45
What is a page 2?
NAVPERS 1070/602 – dependency application/record of emergency data
46
What is a page 4?
NAVPERS 1070/604 – used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator, etc..
47
What is a page 13?
NAVPERS 1070/613 Administrative Remarks, serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.
48
What is an OPREP used for?
The OPREP is used by Navy Forces to report significant events and incidents to Senior Leadership
49
Under the LOAC, what is a Combatant?
All persons in uniform, carrying a weapon or participating in any way in a military operations or activities
50
Under LOAC what is a Non-combatant?
Civilians, medical personnel, and chaplains
51
Who initiated Americas first sea-based offensive against the British?
General George Washington
52
The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?
Bureau of yards and docks
53
Battle of the Coral Sea
In May 4-6 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle.
54
Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea. What were they later renamed?
EOD Units (Explosive Ordnance Disposal)
55
Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False
False
56
Who is appointed by the POTUS as the head of the Dept of the Navy?
Secretary of the Navy, Honorable Ray Maybus
57
N-4 Dept head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate?
False
58
N-1 Dept head is responsible for administration of the unit’s supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met?
False
59
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?
Provide oversight and command and control of ATFP and expeditionary-type forces within the Navy
60
Which command list below is not a core NCW Force?
a) Naval Coastal Warfare Groups (NCWGRU)
b) Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Units (MIUWU)
c) Inshore Boat Units (IBU)
d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
e) United States Coast Guard (USCG) Port Security Units (PSU)
d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
61
Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are.
Port Security Unit
62
Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as
Embarked Security Team
63
What three Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft we commonly use?
C-130 Hercules, C-5 Galaxy and C-17 Globemaster III.
64
What is the primary mission of a C-130?
Intra-theater tactical airlift.
65
What is the primary mission of a C-5?
Inter-theater strategic airlift of outsized cargo.
66
What is the primary mission of a C-17?
Inter-theater tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delivery or air-land method.
67
What organic aircraft replaced the C-141?
C-17 Globemaster III.
68
What is the typical use of a C-130?
Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines.
69
What does MPF stands for?
Maritime Prepositioning Forces.
70
True or False. Hazardous cargo needs to have a Shipper’s Declaration for
Dangerous Goods Form completed?
True
71
True or False. Military Sealift Command (MSC) are tasked with providing strategic, common-user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy those forces on a global basis.
True
72
What does APF stands for?
Afloat Pre-positioning Force
73
Currently how many ships do APF have?
Over 30 ships
74
APF are separated into what two mission categories?
Maritime Pre-positioning ships and Afloat Pre-positioning Ships.
75
Are prowords to be substituted for text?
No
76
Name a method of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable.
Arm and hand signals, Whistle signals, and Special Signals
77
What is the nature and purpose of command and control?
To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation in his/her battlespace
78
Who drives the command and control process?
The Commander
79
Who has final responsibility and accountability for success of the mission?
The Commander
80
What are the three forms of intelligence?
1- Strategic
2- Operational
3- Tactical
81
What is the cornerstone of naval intelligence?
To support the operating Forces (at sea, from sea and ashore)
82
Name the key attributes of naval intelligence.
Timeliness, objectivity, usability, availability, thoroughness, accuracy, relevance
83
What does the acronym COMSEC stand for?
Communications Security
84
What is COMSEC?
The Navy’s system for providing safeguards on telecommunications via encryption
85
What is meant by the term TPI?
Two person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals
86
What are the three types of clearances?
1- Confidential
2- Secret
3- Top Secret
87
Name the frequency of HF, VHF and UHF
HF: 3MHZ – 30MHZ
VHF: 30MHZ – 300MHZ
UHF: 300MHZ – 3GHZ
88
What is meant by the term beadwindow?
It is used to alert the operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit
89
What is meant by the term minimize?
To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffice so that vital messages connected with the situation at hand will not be delayed. (Similar to silence the net)
90
Name the factors that effect the range of radio equipment.
Weather, Terrain, Antenna power, Location of the radio
91
What are the Five Basic Phases to an Expeditionary Camp layout?
```
Phase I - Planning
Phase II - Site survey/Security
Phase III - Camp Establishment
Phase IV - Camp Maintenance
Phase V - Camp Breakdown
```
92
Planning phase has what four types of camps?
1- Base
2- Expeditionary
3- Unit
4- Logistics Hub
93
True or False. Site Survey preparations are future site by aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol.
True
94
List the facilities or structures in Phase III Camp Establishments?
Billeting, Food Service, Showers/Heads, Field Armory, BAS, Laundry, Administrative services, MWR, Ministry
95
Who maintains the tactical equipment in Camp
Seabee Mechanics and L-3 Mechanics
96
Phase IV Maintenance is normally run by who?
Seabees and contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond)
97
True or False. Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR
True
98
What are the basic duties of First Aid Station?
Emergency response team, Minor Surgeries, Patient Monitoring, Medical Evacuation, Pharmacy and Administration
99
What is an integral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system?
Leach Field
100
What form is filled out when a trouble call is submitted to the Trouble Desk?
Emergency/Service Authorization (ESA)
101
What are the four priority work classifications?
1- Safety
2- Function
3- Preventive
4- Appearance
102
State the reason for a priority work classification I (Safety)?
Work required primarily for Safety reasons
103
What is potable water for?
Suitable for drinking, cooking and personnel use
104
What are the three standard gear issue categories?
1- Fighting/Load carrying
2- Bivouac
3- Protective
105
The standard 782 gear issue consists of what?
- Pistol belt w/ two magazine pouches
- Pack, usually medium size
- H-harness or suspenders
106
Name the three fighting positions.
1- Hasty
2- Improved one man
3- Improved two man
107
What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position?
Two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing and shelling
108
Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?
Natural cover
109
What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?
Hit the deck
110
What does “KOCOA” stand for?
```
K – Key terrain
O – Observation and fields of fire
C – Concealment and Cover
O – Obstacles to movement
A – Avenues of Approach
```
111
Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.
1- When a compass rose appears open the map, place the compass over the magnetic north line
2- Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned
3- For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line
112
What does “BAMCIS” stand for?
```
B – Begin planning
A – Arrange recon
M – Make recon
C – Complete the plan
I – Issue the order
S - Supervise
```
113
What does “SMEAC” stand for?
```
S – Situation
M – Mission
E – Execution
A – Admin and Logistics
C – Command and Signal
```
114
What are the three sub-paragraphs of the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order?
1- Enemy forces
2- Friendly Forces
3- Attachments and detachments
115
When is a “SALUTE” report used?
When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat
- Situation
- Activity
- Location
- Unit
- Time
- Equipment
116
What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?
Information gathering
117
What are three considerations when creating a fire plan?
```
1- Sectors or zones of fire
2- Individual fighting positions
3- Crew served weapons
4- Rifleman positions
5- Terrain features
6- Fire team leader
```
118
What are the two types of fire limits?
Lateral and Foward
119
Name the four types of fire team formations.
1- Column
2- Wedge
3- Skirmishes (right and left)
4- Echelon (right and left)
120
How many Articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
Six
121
What are the four THREATCON levels.
- Alpha
- Bravo
- Charlie
- Delta
122
Describe Challenge and Reply.
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation
123
What are three types of wire entanglements?
1- Tactical
2- Protective
3- Supplementary
124
Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized?
Yes
125
What are the three types of waterborne security zones?
1- Assessment
2- Warning
3- Threat
126
List four things addressed by an effective ATFP plan.
- Concept of Operations
- Preplanned responses
- Tactics
- Crisis management procedures
- Consequence management procedures
- Baseline security posture
- Measures to increase security posture
- Reporting Procedures
- Command and control procedures
127
Name the five types of waterborne threats.
```
1- Small boats
2- Deep Draft boats
3- Subsurface
4- Swimmer
5- Floating Mines
```
128
What actions are taken when Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level three is attained?
Warning shots from crew serve weapons are fired across bow of contact of interest (COI)
129
True or False: When engaging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain.
False
130
What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne High Value Asset (HVA)?
500 meters
131
Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location?
- UN Restrictions
- Geography
- Threat Areas
- Capabilities of US Security forces
- Proximity of targets
132
What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?
To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible
133
What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone?
Two (minimum) / four (ideal)
134
Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?
Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organiations
135
What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)?
To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas
136
Chemical Warfare is broken into what two categories?
- Chemical agents
| - Chemical compounds
137
Biological Warfare is the use of what biological agents?
- Pathogens
| - Toxins
138
Do we have any detection equipment for Biological Warfare?
No
139
What are the signs or indictors for Biological Warfare?
Dead bodies, animals, and vegetation
140
True or False. Radiological Warfare is when radiation (nuclear Bomb) is used as a weapon.
True
141
What is MCU-2/P?
Chemical Gas Mask
142
What does JSLIST stands for?
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit technology
143
Explain all the MOPP levels?
```
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or to the ready
MOPP I – Overgarment
MOPP II – Over Boots
MOPPIII – Mask and Hood
MOPPIV – Close hood and gloves
```
144
Explain all the MOPP levels?
```
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or to the ready
MOPP I – Overgarment
MOPP II – Over Boots
MOPPIII – Mask and Hood
MOPPIV – Close hood and gloves
```
145
When the suit is removed from the package in uncontaminated area, how days and/or how many washes ever comes first.
45 days or 6 washes
146
What are the three types of decontaminations?
1- Immediate
2- Operational
3- Thorough
147
What color does the M-9 paper turn when it comes in contact with a liquid chemical agent?
Colors of RED
148
What does NAAK stands for and what are the contents of the kit?
Nerve Agent Antidote Kit and Atropine/2-PAM Chloride injectors
149
What is the color and markings on a NATO CBR marker signs for Biological?
Blue and red marking BIO
150
What equipment reads the DT-60 personnel dosimeter?
Portable Equipment CP-95
151
What are radiations measured in?
Roentgens
152
What does the acronym COSAL stand for?
Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List
153
What does the acronym COSBAL stand for?
Consolidated Shore-based Allowance List
154
What does COSAL/COSBAL provide?
A list of every piece of equipment, part or item on ship or shore. The COSAL/COSBAL is a technical document because it provides the:
- nomenclature
- operating characteristics
- technical manuals
- specifications
- parts lists
- technical data for installed equipment and machinery
- equipage and tools required to operate and maintain the ship and its equipment.
155
What doe the acronym MOV stand for?
Material Obligation Validation (MOV) Program
156
What are the two components of the operating target (OPTAR)?
1- Repairable
| 2- Consumable
157
What does the acronym DRMO stand for?
Defense Reutilization Marketing Office
158
What is DD Form 1348-6?
Standard MILSTRIP requisitioning form used when automated supply requisitioning is not available
159
What is the alternate form of DD Form 1348-6?
DD Form 1250-2
160
What does it mean for item to be Remain In Place (RIP)?
The current part stays in place until the new part arrives. Removing a RIP item could don a part or system completely
161
What form is used to report lost, stolen, damaged or unserviceable items?
DD 200
162
What is an NSN?
National Stock Number. Used to identify a repairable or consumable item
163
Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more is considered minor property?
False
164
What is the unit cost of minor property?
Between $2500 and $100,000
165
Is a printer, copier or television considered plant or minor property items?
Minor Property Items
166
Discuss the Depot Level Repairables (DLR) program.
High priced parts that can be turned in for repair or refurbishment for another’s use.
167
What does the acronym NRFI stand for?
Not Ready For Issue
168
What form is used as a Requisition and Invoice/Shipping document?
DD Form 1149
169
Max effective range and max range of M4
500m individual point targets
600m area target
3600m max range
170
M4 rate of fire
Semi - 45 rpm
Auto - 90 rpm
Sustained rate of fire - 12-15 rpm
171
M240 Machine Gun Specs
```
7.62mm
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Link-Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire
```
172
M240 rate of fires
Cyclic - 650-950 rounds per minute
Sustained - 100 rounds per minute
Rapid - 200 rounds per minute (2-3 second bursts)
-Change barrel every 2 minutes
173
Max ranges of M240
Max effective point - 800m with M122A1 tripod
Max effective area - 1,800m with M122A1 tripod
Max range - 3,725m
174
MK46 Machine Gun Specs
```
5.56mm
Fire Team AW
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire
```
175
MK46 rate of fire
Cyclic - 750 rounds per minute
Sustained - 85 rounds per minute (3-5 sec on /4-5 sec off)
Rapid - 100 rounds per minute (8-10 rnd burst / 2-3 seconds off)
176
Max ranges of MK46
Max effective - 800m
| Max range - 1,800m
177
MK48 Machine Gun Specs
```
7.62mm
Fire Team AW
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire
```
EXW
flashcards
Decks in class (12)
# Cards
-
Common Core 101 Safety Fundamentals24
-
Common Core 102 Administrative / Command And Control Fundamentals25
-
Common Core 103 Navy Expeditionary History Fundamentals7
-
Common Core 104 Navy Expeditionary Organization Fundamentals23
-
Common Core 105 Embarkation and Debarkation Fundamentals10
-
Common Core 106 C4I26
-
Common Core 107 Expeditionary Camp Fundamentals12
-
Common Core 108 Expeditionary Tactics38
-
Common Core 109 Expeditionary Waterborne Fundamentals10
-
Common Core 110 Chemical, Biological, and Radiological (CBR) Warfare12
-
Board Preparation177
-
Board Questions195
