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Brain 🧠 storms 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

If sleep apnea occurs in kids, what anatomical feature is often hypertrophied?

A

adenoids

Hypertrophy of adenoids can lead to obstructive sleep apnea in children.

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2
Q

In adults, sleep apnea is often associated with which anatomical issues?

A
  • Retruded tongue
  • Thickened pharyngeal wall

These features can contribute to airway obstruction during sleep.

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3
Q

Over contouring of the lingual incline will lead to failure in crowns on which teeth?

A

8 and 9

Proper contouring is crucial for the success of dental crowns.

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4
Q

What provides support in dental prosthetics?

A

Rest

Rests are essential for distributing forces and maintaining the position of prosthetics.

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5
Q

What provides retention in dental prosthetics?

A

Clasps

Clasps help secure the prosthetic device in place.

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6
Q

What provides rigidity in dental prosthetics?

A

Major connector

Major connectors are critical for the structural integrity of dental prostheses.

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7
Q

What provides stability in dental prosthetics?

A

Minor connector

Minor connectors help stabilize the overall prosthetic structure.

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8
Q

What do indirect retainers provide in dental prosthetics?

A
  • Anti-rotation
  • Support

Indirect retainers are important for preventing movement of the prosthesis.

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9
Q

The artery is sandwiched between which two structures?

A

2 nerves

This anatomical arrangement is significant for surgical considerations.

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10
Q

In the lateral to medial arrangement, which nerve is positioned first?

A

IAN > IAA > LN

This sequence is important for understanding nerve pathways.

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11
Q

In the anterior to posterior arrangement, which nerve is positioned first?

A

LN > IAN > IAA

This arrangement is crucial for dental procedures involving nerve blocks.

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12
Q

True or false: The mnemonic VANN helps remember the order of nerves from posterior to anterior.

A

TRUE

VANN stands for IAV, IAA, IAN, LN in the posterior to anterior arrangement.

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13
Q

What does the mnemonic Oh Toba My Pet penia pora represent in relation to implant failure?

A
  • Oral hygiene
  • Tobacco
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Osteopetrosis
  • Osteopenia
  • Osteoporosis

These factors can contribute to the failure of dental implants.

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14
Q

What are the Hepatitis B, C, and HIV prevalence rates in health care?

A
  • Hep B: 30%
  • Hep C: 1.8%
  • HIV: 0.3%

These rates highlight the importance of infection control in healthcare settings.

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15
Q

What conditions are associated with Rheumatic fever?

A
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Infective endocarditis

These conditions can arise as complications of rheumatic fever.

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16
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Hairy tongue?

A
  • Oral hygiene instructions
  • Anti-fungal treatment

Maintaining oral hygiene is crucial for managing hairy tongue.

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17
Q

What is the treatment for oral hairy leukoplakia?

A
  • No treatment
  • Topical antifungal
  • Systemic antiviral drugs

Oral hairy leukoplakia is often associated with immunocompromised states.

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18
Q

What is the first opportunistic infection in HIV?

A

PCP

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) is a common early indicator of HIV infection.

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19
Q

What is the difference between apexogenesis and apexification?

A
  • Apexogenesis: Vital immature permanent tooth
  • Apexification: Non-vital tooth

These procedures are used in endodontics to manage immature teeth.

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20
Q

What is the shape associated with abfraction?

A

Wedge shape

Abfraction is caused by flexural forces on teeth.

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21
Q

What is the shape associated with abrasion?

A

Rounded

Abrasion is typically caused by mechanical wear, such as tooth brushing.

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22
Q

What is the first line treatment for ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Orthodontics

A multidisciplinary team approach is often required for comprehensive care.

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23
Q

What is the spore test used for?

A

Autoclave efficiency

The spore test helps ensure sterilization processes are effective.

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24
Q

What does OSHA regulate within the dental office?

A

Amalgam waste management

OSHA guidelines are critical for maintaining safety and compliance in dental practices.

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25
What does **EPA** regulate outside the dental office?
* Amalgam transportation * Amalgam disposal ## Footnote The EPA ensures environmental safety regarding dental waste.
26
What is contraindicated for both **autism and Down syndrome** patients?
Papoose ## Footnote Alternative behavioral management strategies are recommended for these populations.
27
What is the purpose of **headgear** in orthodontics?
Stop maxillary growth ## Footnote Headgear is used to correct dental and skeletal discrepancies.
28
What is the purpose of a **chin cup** in orthodontics?
Stops mandible growth ## Footnote Chin cups are used to manage growth patterns in orthodontic treatment.
29
What is the most difficult pontic design to clean?
Saddle ridge lap ## Footnote This design can trap food and plaque, making maintenance challenging.
30
What is the most easily cleaned pontic design?
Hygiene or sanitary pontic ## Footnote This design is preferred for ease of cleaning and maintenance.
31
What is the esthetic pontic design used in the anterior region?
Modified ridge lap ## Footnote This design balances aesthetics and hygiene.
32
What virus is associated with **oro-pharyngeal carcinoma**?
HPV ## Footnote HPV is a significant risk factor for various head and neck cancers.
33
What virus is associated with **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**?
EBV ## Footnote Epstein-Barr virus is linked to several malignancies, including nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
34
What is the **worst prognosis** for luxative injuries?
Intrusion ## Footnote Intrusive injuries often lead to more severe complications compared to other luxative injuries.
35
What is the **worst prognosis** for traumatic injuries?
Avulsion ## Footnote Avulsed teeth have a high risk of complications and poor outcomes.
36
What is the **SCC** associated with?
Spinosum ## Footnote Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) originates from squamous cells, commonly found in the skin.
37
What is the **BCC** associated with?
Basale ## Footnote Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) arises from basal cells in the epidermis.
38
What is the **hyperkeratosis** associated with?
Corneum ## Footnote Hyperkeratosis involves thickening of the outer layer of skin.
39
What is the **most common** joint affected by gout?
Toe ## Footnote Gout typically presents with acute pain and swelling in the big toe.
40
What is the **ideal occlusion** for dentate patients?
Mutually protected / canine guidance / anterior ## Footnote This occlusion type helps distribute forces evenly during function.
41
What is the **ideal occlusion** for complete dentures?
Centric relation with bilaterally balanced occlusion ## Footnote This occlusion is essential for stability and function in complete dentures.
42
What does a **Green flag** indicate in beach safety?
Safe, open conditions for swimming ## Footnote Beach flags are a universal system to communicate water safety conditions.
43
What does a **Yellow flag** mean in beach safety?
Caution, limited swimming ## Footnote Beach flags are a universal system to communicate water safety conditions.
44
What does a **Red flag** signify in beach safety?
Unsafe, closed for swimming ## Footnote Beach flags are a universal system to communicate water safety conditions.
45
What does a **Purple flag** warn about in beach safety?
Dangerous marine life ## Footnote Beach flags are a universal system to communicate water safety conditions.
46
What is the **normal extrusion rate** in orthodontics?
1-2mm per MONTH ## Footnote This rate is typical for standard orthodontic procedures.
47
What is the **forced extrusion rate** in orthodontics?
1-2mm per WEEK ## Footnote This rate is used for specific orthodontic treatments.
48
What is **hypodontia**?
5 or fewer missing teeth ## Footnote This condition refers to the developmental absence of teeth.
49
What is **oligodontia**?
6 or more missing teeth ## Footnote This condition refers to the developmental absence of multiple teeth.
50
What is **anodontia**?
No teeth ## Footnote This condition refers to the complete absence of teeth.
51
What is the **prognosis** for Type 4 bone quality?
Worst prognosis ## Footnote This type is associated with the least favorable outcomes for dental implants.
52
What is the **primary stability** type for Type 1 bone quality?
Primary stability - Type 1 ## Footnote This type is associated with the anterior mandible.
53
What is the **best osseointegration** type for Type 2 bone quality?
Best osseointegration - Type 2 ## Footnote This type is associated with the posterior mandible.
54
What is the **minimum distance** between two adjacent implants?
3mm ## Footnote This distance is crucial for maintaining bone health and implant stability.
55
What is the **minimum space** for bone thickness around an implant?
1mm ## Footnote Adequate bone thickness is necessary for implant stability.
56
What is the **normal CD4 count** range?
500-1500 ## Footnote This range indicates a healthy immune system.
57
What CD4 count indicates **HIV**?
<500 ## Footnote A CD4 count below this threshold suggests a compromised immune system.
58
What CD4 count indicates **AIDS**?
<200 ## Footnote This level signifies severe immune deficiency.
59
What is the **treatment** for alveolar osteitis?
Irrigation with plain saline + sedative dressing ## Footnote This treatment helps alleviate pain and promote healing.
60
What is **SDF** used for?
To arrest caries ## Footnote SDF is particularly useful for high-risk patients and those with rampant caries.
61
What is a **papule**?
Solid elevated <1cm ## Footnote This term describes a type of skin lesion.
62
What is a **nodule**?
Solid elevated >1cm ## Footnote This term describes a larger type of skin lesion.
63
What is a **vesicle**?
Fluid <0.5 cm ## Footnote This term describes a small fluid-filled blister.
64
What is a **bullae**?
Fluid >0.5 cm ## Footnote This term describes a larger fluid-filled blister.
65
What is a **macule**?
Flat <1cm ## Footnote This term describes a flat, discolored area on the skin.
66
What is a **patch**?
Flat >1cm ## Footnote This term describes a larger flat area of discoloration.
67
What is the **common side effect** of antibiotics?
* Nausea * Indigestion * Vomiting * Diarrhea * Bloating * Loss of appetite * Stomach pain ## Footnote These side effects can vary based on the type of antibiotic.
68
What is **trismus** associated with?
Medial pterygoid ## Footnote This condition refers to restricted mouth opening.
69
What is **bruxism** associated with?
Masseter ## Footnote This condition refers to teeth grinding or jaw clenching.
70
What is **spasm** associated with?
Lateral pterygoid ## Footnote This condition refers to involuntary muscle contractions.
71
What is the **treatment** for chronic periodontitis?
Doxycycline ## Footnote This antibiotic is often used in managing chronic periodontitis.
72
What is the **treatment** for localized aggressive periodontitis?
Tetracycline ## Footnote This antibiotic is specifically indicated for localized aggressive forms.
73
What is the **characteristic** of cherubism?
Bilateral swelling of cheeks ## Footnote This disorder is characterized by abnormal bone tissue in the jaw.
74
What is the **histological resemblance** of cherubism?
Resembles CGCG ## Footnote This condition presents as non-tender swellings.
75
What is the **treatment** for cleft lip?
Repair at 3-6 months ## Footnote Early intervention is crucial for optimal outcomes.
76
What is the **treatment** for cleft palate?
Repair at 6-12 months ## Footnote Early intervention is crucial for optimal outcomes.
77
What is the **significance** of the number of teeth missing?
Determines hypodontia, oligodontia, or anodontia ## Footnote These terms classify the absence of teeth based on quantity.
78
What is the **minimum space** between an implant and adjacent tooth?
1.5mm ## Footnote This distance is necessary for maintaining periodontal health.
79
What is the **minimum distance** from the inferior alveolar nerve to an implant?
2mm ## Footnote This distance is critical for avoiding nerve damage.
80
What is the **minimum distance** from the mental nerve to an implant?
5mm ## Footnote This distance is crucial for avoiding nerve damage.
81
What is the **treatment** for chronic fistula?
Lymphocytes ## Footnote This type of immune response is characteristic of chronic inflammation.
82
What is the **initial immune response** in gingivitis?
PMN ## Footnote This refers to polymorphonuclear leukocytes involved in the early stages.
83
What is the **early immune response** in gingivitis?
Lymphocytes T cell ## Footnote This response indicates an adaptive immune reaction.
84
What is the **established immune response** in gingivitis?
Plasma cell B cell ## Footnote This response indicates a mature immune reaction.
85
What is the **characteristic** of aggressive periodontitis?
Neutrophil, macrophages ## Footnote This condition is marked by a strong immune response.
86
What is the **characteristic** of chronic periodontitis?
Plasma cell ## Footnote This condition is marked by a sustained immune response.
87
What is the **common side effect** of antidepressants?
Dry mouth ## Footnote This is a frequent side effect of many antidepressant medications.
88
What is the **common side effect** of antihypertensives?
Dry mouth ## Footnote This is a frequent side effect of many antihypertensive medications.
89
What is the **common side effect** of anticholinergics?
Dry mouth ## Footnote This is a frequent side effect of many anticholinergic medications.
90
What is the **common side effect** of antipsychotics?
Dry mouth ## Footnote This is a frequent side effect of many antipsychotic medications.
91
What is the **common side effect** of antihistamines?
Dry mouth ## Footnote This is a frequent side effect of many antihistamine medications.
92
What is the **treatment** for methaemoglobinemia?
Prilocaine ## Footnote This anesthetic is associated with the condition.
93
What is the **longest duration** anesthetic?
Bupivacaine ## Footnote This anesthetic has a prolonged effect compared to others.
94
What is the **safest anesthetic in pregnancy**?
Lidocaine ## Footnote This anesthetic is commonly used due to its safety profile.
95
What is the **treatment** for a 2-6mm opening in a wound?
4As and figure 8 suture ## Footnote This method is used for managing moderate-sized wounds.
96
What is the **treatment** for an opening greater than 6mm?
Flap surgery ## Footnote This method is used for managing larger wounds.
97
What is the **treatment** for a 2mm opening?
Do nothing ## Footnote This is often sufficient for very small openings.
98
What is the **treatment** for a chronic fistula?
Lymphocytes ## Footnote This immune response is characteristic of chronic inflammation.
99
What is the **characteristic** of a chronic fistula?
Lymphocytes ## Footnote This immune response is indicative of a long-standing condition.
100
What is the **characteristic** of an acute fistula?
Neutrophil ## Footnote This immune response is indicative of a recent infection.
101
What is the **subepithelial split** associated with **mucous membrane pemphigoid**?
Subepithelial split ## Footnote This condition is characterized by the separation occurring beneath the epithelial layer.
102
What is the **supraepithelial split** associated with **pemphigus**?
Supraepithelial split ## Footnote This condition involves separation occurring above the basal layer of the epithelium.
103
Name the diseases that can develop in a **smoker**.
* Periodontitis * Necrotic bone * Staining of teeth * Nicotinic stomatitis * Leukoplakia * Erythroplakia * Smoking induced melanosis ## Footnote These conditions are commonly associated with tobacco use.
104
What is the role of **stannous fluoride**?
* Anti-caries * Decreases tooth sensitivity * Anti-plaque * Anti-gingivitis ## Footnote Caution: Stannous fluoride can cause yellow staining.
105
What is the ideal length of a **post** for cast post and core?
â…” the root length ## Footnote This length is crucial for retention and rigidity.
106
What are the components of **gutta-percha**?
* 66% zinc oxide * 20-30% gutta-percha * 11% metal sulfates * 3% resins ## Footnote Gutta-percha is commonly used in endodontics.
107
What are the **symptoms** of **Vitamin B12 deficiency**?
* Weakness * Tingling and numbness of the extremities * Sensory deficits * Ataxia * Gait disturbance ## Footnote These symptoms can significantly impact daily functioning.
108
What are the **characteristics** of **Crouzon syndrome**?
* Short and broad skull * Bulging eyes * Large forehead * Hypertelorism * Maxillary retrognathia ## Footnote This syndrome is a result of craniosynostosis.
109
What is the **cause** of **gout**?
Accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joint space ## Footnote Gout typically presents with pain and swelling in joints, especially the big toe.
110
What are the **biopsy types** indicated for **Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid**?
* Incisional biopsy * Perilesional biopsy * Punch biopsy ## Footnote These methods help in diagnosing the condition effectively.
111
What are the **techniques** to use for a patient with **ADHD**?
* TSD * Distraction * Modeling ## Footnote These techniques can help manage symptoms and improve focus.
112
What is the **ideal width** of a post for cast post and core?
Up to â…“ the root diameter ## Footnote This ensures adequate support and stability.
113
What are the **types of fractures** and their healing times?
* R - Root fracture: 4 weeks * A - Alveolar fracture: 4 weeks * I - Intrusion: 4 weeks * L - Lateral Luxation: 4 weeks * S - Subluxation: 2 weeks * E - Extrusion: 2 weeks * A - Avulsion: 2 weeks ## Footnote Healing times vary based on the type of dental injury.
114
What are the **characteristics** of **mandibulofacial dysostosis**?
* Underdeveloped cheekbones and lower jaw * Dental abnormalities, including hypodontia * Cleft palate * Small, malformed ears * Downward-slanting eyes * Hearing loss * Breathing difficulties ## Footnote This condition affects facial structure and function.
115
What is the **function** of **osteoclasts** in orthodontics?
Compression of orthodontic forces ## Footnote Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption during tooth movement.
116
What is the **function** of **osteoblasts** in orthodontics?
Tension of orthodontic forces ## Footnote Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation during tooth movement.
117
What is the **indication** for using **fluoride varnish**?
Incipient smooth surface caries ## Footnote Fluoride varnish helps in remineralizing early carious lesions.
118
What is the **indication** for using **sealants**?
Incipient occlusal pit and fissure caries ## Footnote Sealants protect against caries in vulnerable areas.
119
What is the **best restorative material** for posterior crowns in patients with parafunctional activity?
Gold ## Footnote Gold provides durability and strength under heavy occlusal forces.
120
What is the **function** of **heat-cured acrylic resins** compared to chemically-cured acrylic resins?
Harder, stronger, and less porous ## Footnote Heat-cured acrylics have less residual monomer, enhancing their properties.
121
What does **CMO** stand for when delivering crowns?
* Contacts * Margins * Occlusion ## Footnote These factors are crucial for the successful placement of crowns.
122
What is the **indication** for using **potassium nitrate**?
Tooth desensitizer ## Footnote Potassium nitrate is effective for reducing sensitivity, especially in anterior teeth.
123
What is the **indication** for using **sodium fluoride**?
Anti-caries and desensitizing ## Footnote Sodium fluoride does not stain teeth and is suitable for anterior teeth.
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