Building Construction Flashcards by Patrick Wagner

What is the most common material used to achieve the required protection of structural components in Type III buildings?
p. 59

A.) Gypsum
B.) Plastic
C.) Wood
D.) Glass

A.) Gypsum

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Which statement is correct regarding Type I construction?
p. 57

A.) The fuel loads are more likely to be light
B.) The building is less likely to collapse on firefighters
C.) Fires in this type of building are smaller than other
types of construction
D.) Fire fighting will be easy in this type of building

B.) The building is less likely to collapse on firefighters

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Which is the most commonly used method of determining the fire resistance rating?
p. 47

A.) Laboratory testing
B.) Performing real life fire testing
C.) Analytical calculations
D.) Analytical structural fire engineering

A.) Laboratory testing

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Which size joists would be commonly found in the floor construction of a Type III building?
p. 59

A.) 2- X 10-inch (50 mm X 250 mm)
B.) 8- X 10-inch (200 mm X 250 mm)
C.) 6- X 10-inch (150 mm X 250 mm)
D.) 4- X 10-inch (100 mm X 250 mm)

A.) 2- X 10-inch (50 mm X 250 mm)

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Which would best describe a toy store?
p. 63

A.) High structural load and high fire load
B.) Moderate structural load but a high fire load
C.) High structural load but low fire load
D.) Moderate structural load but low fire load

B.) Moderate structural load but a high fire load

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Within what timeframe is a temperature of 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit (538 degrees Celsius) reached when conducting the standard fire-resistance test?
p. 47

A.) 5 minutes
B.) 20 minutes
C.) 10 minutes
D.) 15 minutes

A.) 5 minutes

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In which type of construction is the creation of combustible concealed voids and channels very extensive?
p. 62

A.) Type V
B.) Type IV
C.) Type III
D.) Type II

A.) Type V

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What would the fire rating be if the given assembly failed two hours and twenty minutes into the testing?
p. 49

A.) Two and one quarter hours
B.) One hour
C.) Two and one half hours
D.) Two hours

D.) Two hours

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Which is the only test that is currently universally accepted by building codes?
p. 49

A.) E-119
B.) E-120
C.) E-118
D.) E-121

A.) E-119

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What is the primary fire hazard encountered with Type IV construction?
p. 61

A.) Collapse potential
B.) Pitched rooftops
C.) Massive amount of fuel
D.) Concealed spaces

C.) Massive amount of fuel

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Which is most commonly used standard time-temperature test which satisfies building code requirements for structural fire resistance?
p. 53

A.) NFPA 1001
B.) NFPA 251
C.) NFPA 1301
D.) NFPA 327

B.) NFPA 251

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Which is the most commonly used test to determine combustibility?
p. 54

A.) ASTM E 119
B.) ASTM E 136
C.) ASTM E 120
D.) ASTM E 135

B.) ASTM E 136

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Which of the following information will the standard fire resistance test provide?
p. 50

A.) The extent to which the assembly will generate smoke or other products of combustion
B.) Fire behavior of joints between building elements such as floor-to-wall connections
C.) Measurement of the degree of control or limitation of the passage of smoke
D.) The ability of structural assemblies to carry a structural load and to act as a fire barrier

D.) The ability of structural assemblies to carry a structural load and to act as a fire barrier

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Which testing laboratory publishes the Fire Resistance Directory?
p. 51

A.) Underwriters Laboratories, Inc.
B.) Southwest Research Institute
C.) Intertek Testing
D.) University of California at Berkeley

A.) Underwriters Laboratories, Inc.

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During which centuries was Type IV construction most common?
p. 60

A.) 17th and 18th
B.) 18th and 19th
C.) 20th and 21st
D.) 19th and 20th

D.) 19th and 20th

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What is the normal maximum duration of the fire-resistance testing on a structural specimen?
p. 48

A.) 6 hours
B.) 4 hours
C.) 8 hours
D.) 2 hours

B.) 4 hours

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What can the fire resistance rating of occupancy separations range when required by code?
p. 66

A.) Three to five hours
B.) Four to six hours
C.) One to three hours
D.) Two to four hours

C.) One to three hours

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What do all building codes use to classify buildings?
p. 45

A.) Total area
B.) Fire load
C.) Construction type
D.) Occupancy type

C.) Construction type

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What is the ability of a structural assembly to maintain its load-bearing capacity and structural integrity under fire conditions?
p. 46

A.) Fire aversion
B.) Fire resistance
C.) Fire proofness
D.) Fire rating

B.) Fire resistance

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How many subgroups does the IBC contain within the 10 major occupancy classifications?
p. 65

A.) 18
B.) 32
C.) 12
D.) 26

D.) 26

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Which term refers to the maximum heat that will be released if all the available fuel in a building were consumed?
p. 63

A.) Release load
B.) Consume load
C.) Heat load
D.) Fire load

D.) Fire load

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What fire resistance are bearing walls and columns generally required to have in Type I construction?
p. 55

A.) One to three hours
B.) Two to four hours
C.) Four to six hours
D.) Three to five hours

B.) Two to four hours

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Which material can ASCE/SFPE 29 NOT be used to determine the fire resistance?
p. 52

A.) Structural steel
B.) Reinforced concrete
C.) Clay masonry
D.) Cast iron

D.) Cast iron

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What measurement is used to express the fire resistance rating of a building material?
p. 46

A.) Seconds
B.) Minutes
C.) Days
D.) Hours

D.) Hours

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25. Which digit indicates the fire-resistance rating of the floor construction in NFPA 220? p. 54 A.) Fourth B.) Third C.) Second D.) First

B.) Third

26. What level of fire resistance are the structural members in a Type II-A building required to possess? p. 58 A.) One-hour B.) Four-hour C.) Three-hour D.) Two-hour

A.) One-hour

27. What is the most common characteristic of unprotected, noncombustible construction? p. 58 A.) Use of nonreinforced concrete B.) Use of reinforced concrete C.) Use of unprotected steel D.) Use of protected steel

C.) Use of unprotected steel

28. Which type of construction has the highest requirements for fire resistance? p. 54 A.) Type III B.) Type II C.) Type I D.) Type IV

C.) Type I

29. What is a fundamental fire concern with Type III construction? p. 59 A.) Elevated ceilings B.) Heavy structural members C.) Pitched rooftops D.) Concealed spaces

D.) Concealed spaces

30. Which of the following is a common method of constructing a Type I building? p. 57 A.) Unprotected steel B.) Masonry C.) Reinforced concrete D.) Wood frame

C.) Reinforced concrete

31. What contributes most of the fuel for the fire in a Type I building? p. 57 A.) Contents B.) Structure C.) Roof materials D.) Landscaping

A.) Contents

1. Which class of fire door is intended to protect openings in stairwells? p. 171 A.) Class B B.) Class C C.) Class D D.) Class A

A.) Class B

2. What is the most significant factor in the rate at which a fuel will burn? p. 156 A.) Combination of the fuel and available oxygen B.) Combination of the surface area and available oxygen C.) Combination of the temperature and available oxygen D.) Combination of the height and available oxygen

A.) Combination of the fuel and available oxygen

3. What do toxic gases and smoke which result from burning interior finishes contribute to? p. 153 A.) Life hazard B.) Fuel C.) Fire growth D.) Flashover

A.) Life hazard

4. What is the concept of providing an area of refuge called? p. 162 A.) Protecting in place B.) Sheltering in place C.) Refuging in place D.) Moving in place

B.) Sheltering in place

5. Which of the following is used with swinging, rolling and sliding fire doors? p. 174 A.) Fire door linker B.) Fire door closer C.) Door holder D.) Door operator

C.) Door holder

6. Which of the following is NOT an allowed fire-resistance rating for a fire wall? p. 165 A.) 2 hour B.) 4 hour C.) 3 hour D.) 1 hour

D.) 1 hour

7. Which is the simplest and oldest operating device for use on a fire door? p. 174 A.) Fire detector B.) Fusible link C.) Smoke detector D.) Rate of rise detector

B.) Fusible link

8. Which type of fire doors is builder's hardware used on? p. 172 A.) Rolling B.) Sliding C.) Pivoting D.) Swinging

D.) Swinging

9. Which type of fire door is generally required by code to be used for 2-hour rated vertical enclosures? p. 171 A.) 1 1/2-hour B.) 3 1/2-hour C.) 2 1/2-hour D.) 4 1/2-hour

A.) 1 1/2-hour

10. What are the methods of incorporating the size and shape of real rooms into the tunnel test? p. 160 A.) Room tests B.) Floor tests C.) Wall tests D.) Corner tests

D.) Corner tests

11. Which type of enclosure walls can be found in older fire-resistive buildings? p. 167 A.) Concrete block B.) Hollow clay tile C.) Gypsum board with steel studs D.) Gypsum board with wood studs

B.) Hollow clay tile

12. When did evaluation and control efforts over the interior finishes of buildings begin? p. 154 A.) 1970's B.) 1950's C.) 1960's D.) 1940's

D.) 1940's

13. Which part of the room is the examination of the role of interior finishes directed? p. 156 A.) Flooring and lower portions B.) All areas of the room equally C.) Ceiling and upper portions D.) Center of the room alone

C.) Ceiling and upper portions

14. What is the maximum flame spread rating allowed? p. 155 A.) 200 B.) 100 C.) 300 D.) 400

A.) 200

15. What is the minimum height of a parapet wall which continues the fire wall through the roof? p. 165 A.) 22 inches (550 mm) B.) 20 inches (500 mm) C.) 18 inches (450 mm) D.) 24 inches (600 mm)

C.) 18 inches (450 mm)

16. What is the maximum fire door rating on a swinging door that is allowed to have louvers installed? p. 174 A.) 3-hour B.) 1 1/2-hour C.) 2-hour D.) 2 1/2-hour

B.) 1 1/2-hour

17. Which of the following is treated as interior finish? p. 154 A.) Window frames B.) Countertops C.) Movable partitions D.) Chair railing

C.) Movable partitions

18. Which class of materials are required to be in the vertical exits of most buildings? p. 155 A.) Class A B.) Class D C.) Class C D.) Class B

A.) Class A

19. What is the technical term used to describe the degree to which fire can spread over the surface of a material? p. 154 A.) Flame spread characteristics B.) Surface burning characteristics C.) Combustion characteristics D.) Interior finish characteristics

B.) Surface burning characteristics

20. Which type of fire-retardant coating forms a thick, noncombustible coating over the surface of the wood? p. 159 A.) Gas-forming paint B.) Mineral fiber coating C.) Mastic D.) Intumescent paint

C.) Mastic

21. Which type of fire door is often found in older industrial buildings? p. 176 A.) Pivoting B.) Swinging C.) Horizontal sliding D.) Overhead rolling

C.) Horizontal sliding

22. What must the separation between the ends of the structural members be when combustible structural members are framed into a masonry fire wall from opposite sides? p. 165 A.) 6-inch (150 mm) B.) 8-inch (200 mm) C.) 2-inch (50 mm) D.) 4-inch (100 mm)

D.) 4-inch (100 mm)

23. Which test was developed to handle materials that may move during the tunnel test such as plastics? p. 161 A.) NFPA 265 B.) NFPA 274 C.) NFPA 286 D.) NFPA 297

C.) NFPA 286

24. What is the typical fire-resistance rating required for enclosure walls? p. 166 A.) One or two hours B.) Four or five hours C.) Three or four hours D.) Two or three hours

A.) One or two hours

25. Which rated fire door may not be subjected to the hose test depending on their intended use? p. 172 A.) 3/4-hour B.) 1/2-hour C.) 1-hour D.) 1/3-hour

D.) 1/3-hour

26. Which type of wall is designed to separate the interior environment from the exterior environment? p. 168 A.) Fire wall B.) Curtain wall C.) Parapet wall D.) Fire partition

B.) Curtain wall

27. What are curtain walls usually supported by? p. 169 A.) Ceiling system B.) Interior column C.) Self-supporting D.) Building frame

D.) Building frame

28. What is the maximum fire door rating that is allowed to have glass panels? p. 173 A.) 4-hour B.) 4 1/2-hour C.) 3-hour D.) 3 1/2-hour

C.) 3-hour

29. What is the primary criterion for acceptability in the testing of fire doors? p. 172 A.) Door maintains coloration B.) Door stays in place C.) Door does not warp D.) Door remains cool

B.) Door stays in place

30. Due to the ease of application, what use may fire-retardant coatings been seen in that is not correct? p. 159 A.) Reduction of flame spread rating B.) Protection of coated side C.) Reduction of surface burning D.) Structural fireproofing

D.) Structural fireproofing

31. Which type of fire protection limits the spread of fire? p. 161 A.) Assertive B.) Passive C.) Active D.) Reactive

B.) Passive

32. Which material has a higher flame spread rating? p. 157 A.) Treated Douglas fir plywood B.) Gypsum wallboard C.) Mineral acoustic tile D.) Asbestos cement block

C.) Mineral acoustic tile

33. What are interior walls used to subdivide a floor which extend from one floor to the underside of a fire-rated ceiling assembly? p. 166 A.) Fire divider B.) Fire partition C.) Fire compartment D.) Fire wall

B.) Fire partition

34. In which type of construction will you find freestanding fire walls most often? p. 164 A.) Type VI B.) Type II C.) Type I D.) Type III

D.) Type III

35. Which term is used in the international community to refer to the exposed interior surfaces of buildings? p. 153 A.) Interior finish B.) Interior swath C.) Interior lining D.) Interior decoration

C.) Interior lining

36. What does code limit the maximum smoke developed rating to? p. 158 A.) 650 B.) 350 C.) 550 D.) 450

D.) 450

37. Which type of wall usually extends from the foundation up to and through the roof of a building to subdivide a building? p. 163 A.) Party wall B.) Fire wall C.) Dividing wall D.) Lock wall

B.) Fire wall

38. What is the rating of a fire door known as? p. 170 A.) Fire protection rating B.) Fire deterring rating C.) Fire-resistance rating D.) Fire-blocking rating

A.) Fire protection rating

39. How long is the Steiner Tunnel Test conducted? p. 156 A.) 10 minutes B.) 20 minutes C.) 25 minutes D.) 15 minutes

A.) 10 minutes

40. Which type of fire door is often used in corridors and stairwell enclosures? p. 176 A.) Overhead rolling B.) Swinging C.) Pivoting D.) Horizontal sliding

B.) Swinging

``` 1) Masonry is inherently resistive to all the following except – A) Deterioration of mortar joints. B) Weather. C) Fire. D) Insects. ```

A) Deterioration of mortar joints.

``` 6) After clay is extruded through a rectangular die and sliced by a cutter into the desired size, bricks are then fired in a kiln where they are subjected to temperatures as high as – A) 1000 degrees F. B) 1500 degrees F. C) 2000 degrees F. D) 2400 degrees F. ```

D) 2400 degrees F.

7) The typical size of a brick is – A) 21/2x6 x21/4inches. B) 35/8x75/8 x21/4inches. C) 31/2x71/2 x21/2inches. D) 31/2x8 x21/2inches.

B) 35/8x75/8 x21/4inches.

``` 8) What does CMU stand for? A) Concrete masonry unit. B) Cement masonry unit. C) Compressed masonry unit. D) Concrete manufactured unit. ```

A) Concrete masonry unit.

9) The most common size concrete block is the nominal ____ block. A) 5 x 5 x 12 inches. B) 6 x 6 x 12 inches. C) 8 x 8 x 16 inches. D) 10 x 10 x 20 inches.

C) 8 x 8 x 16 inches.

11) Firefighters in urban areas are very familiar with buildings that are constructed of brownstone, which is a form of - A) Limestone. B) Sandstone. C) Slate. D) Granite.

B) Sandstone.

12) Which of the following building materials were once widely used for the construction of interior partitions? A) Terra-cotta. B) Glass. C) Clay tile blocks and gypsum blocks. D) Stone and brick.

C) Clay tile blocks and gypsum blocks.

13) Glass blocks are frequently used to – A) Fill the windows in existing buildings. B) Decorative roofs on urban buildings. C) Ornamental finials on tall walls. D) Half walls in penthouse apartments.

A) Fill the windows in existing buildings.

15) The weakest part of a masonry wall is - A) The face of the masonry unit. B) The mortar joint. C) The base. D) Corbelled portions of the wall.

B) The mortar joint.

``` 18) The allowable compressive strength of brick masonry would be – A) 100 psi. B) 150 psi. C) 200 psi. D) 250 psi. ```

D) 250 psi.

25) Nonreinforced masonry walls are usually limited to a maximum height of around ____ stories. A) 2. B) 4. C) 6. D) 8.

C) 6.

``` 26) In contemporary practice, when a building is more than ___ stories tall, the use of a steel or concrete structural frame is usually more economical than erecting a nonreinforced masonry bearing wall. A) 1 to 2. B) 2 to 3. C) 3 to 4. D) 4 to 5. ```

C) 3 to 4.

27) By using reinforced masonry, it is possible to construct load-bearing masonry walls to the height of 10 stories or more having a wall thickness of only – A) 6 inches. B) 8 inches. C) 10 inches. D) 12 inches.

D) 12 inches.

``` 28) A horizontal layer of individual masonry units is called a - A) Wythe. B) Course. C) Lintel. D) Parapet. ```

B) Course.

29) A single vertical row of multiple rows of masonry units in a wall, usually made of brick is called a - A) Wythe. B) Course. C) Lintel. D) Parapet.

A) Wythe.

``` 30) Support for masonry over an opening usually made of steel angles or other rolled shapes singularly, or in combination, is called a - A) Wythe. B) Course. C) Lintel. D) Parapet. ```

C) Lintel.

``` 31) When bricks are placed end-to-end, they create what is called a - A) Soldier course. B) Stretcher course. C) Straight course. D) Linear course. ```

B) Stretcher course.

32) When bricks are placed vertically on end, it is known as a - A) Soldier course. B) Stretcher course. C) Header course. D) Vertical course.

A) Soldier course.

33) One way of providing a horizontal bond between the wythes is to place the course of bricks across two wythes with the ends of the bricks facing out. This is known as a - A) Soldier course. B) Stretcher course. C) Header course. D) Vertical course.

C) Header course.

34) An exterior brick wall often is constructed with a vertical cavity between the exterior wythe in the interior wythes. What is this wall called? A) Cavity wall. B) Dead wall. C) Vertical wall. D) Hidden wall.

A) Cavity wall.

35) Reinforcement of masonry walls can take other forms and can include which of the following architectural features? A) Buttresses. B) Flying buttresses. C) Pilasters. D) All the above.

D) All the above.

36) Support of masonry over an opening is accomplished by all but which of the following? A) Lintel. B) An arch. C) Corbelling. D) Notching.

D) Notching.

38) Parapets usually project from 1 to ____ or more above the roof, and usually without lateral support. A) 2 feet. B) 3 feet. C) 4 feet. D) 5 feet.

B) 3 feet.

40) Type III construction is also known as - A) Ordinary construction. B) Masonry, wood-joisted construction. C) Truss construction. D) A and B.

D) A and B.

41) Which of the following statements is true? A) Cast iron was used frequently for columns during the 19th century. B) Cast iron was frequently use for columns during the 18th century. C) Cast iron was frequently use for columns during the 17th century. D) Cast iron is used frequently in contemporary construction.

A) Cast iron was used frequently for columns during the 19th century.

42) In applications such as residential and small commercial buildings, wood joists or beams simply rest on masonry walls in an indentation known as a - A) Beam shelf. B) Beam pocket. C) Beam mortise. D) Beam support.

B) Beam pocket.

43) The end of the wood joist or beam which will enter the beam pocket is cut at a slight angle. This angle is known as a - A) Angle cut. B) Tenon cut. C) Fire cut. D) Beam cut.

C) Fire cut.

44) What is the purpose of a fire cut? A) It allows the beam to fall away freely from a wall in the event of structural collapse without acting as a lever to push against the masonry. B) It prevents the wall from falling to the outside of the structure in the event of structural collapse. C) It prevents the wall from falling to the inside of the structure in the event of structural collapse. D) It helps reduce the likelihood of collapse if exposed to a moderate amount of fire.

A) It allows the beam to fall away freely from a wall in the event of structural collapse without acting as a lever to push against the masonry.

``` 45) Buildings constructed with masonry exterior walls and wood joisted interior framing, are classified as which type of construction? A) Type I. B) Type II. C) Type III. D) Type V. ```

C) Type III.

46) Multistory buildings with exterior masonry walls and noncombustible interior framing can be a Type I-A, I-B, or II-B building if - A) The exterior masonry is constructed of granite. B) They are protected with fire-retardant materials as required by building code. C) The exterior masonry is reinforced with steel. D) The building is no taller than three stories.

B) They are protected with fire-retardant materials as required by building code.

47) Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to the fire resistance of masonry walls? A) The fire resistance of a masonry wall depends on the type of masonry units used. B) The fire resistance of a masonry wall depends on the thickness of the wall. C) Non-fire–rated hollow concrete blocks have a high degree of fire resistance. D) Walls constructed with fire-rated concrete masonry units or bricks can have a fire-resistance rating of 2 to 4 hours or more.

C) Non-fire–rated hollow concrete blocks have a high degree of fire resistance.

48) The formation of cracks and the misalignment of a wall can occur because of which of the following reasons? A) The mortar used to create the wall was inferior quality or not prepared correctly. B) The builder lacked skill and misaligned the wall components when it was initially built. C) Age has taken its toll on the building and the wall components are now deteriorating. D) The foundation is shifting.

D) The foundation is shifting.

49) What is the presence of bearing plates visible from the outside of a building signify? A) The building is unsafe and no firefighter should enter it under fire conditions. B) The building is being stabilize through the presence of steel tie rods equipped with turnbuckles that extend through the masonry walls, parallel to the joists. C) The masonry walls over time have begun to bulge and pull away from the interior framing of the building. D) The building is under construction.

B) The building is being stabilize through the presence of steel tie rods equipped with turnbuckles that extend through the masonry walls, parallel to the joists.

51) When working under fire conditions with masonry walls, firefighters should always assume that if the wall collapses it will fall out from the building at a distance of - A) Half the height of the wall. B) At least equal to the height of the wall. C) At least one and a half times the height of the wall. D) Two times the height of the wall.

B) At least equal to the height of the wall.

52) A fascia is a - A) A flat horizontal or vertical board located at the outer face of a cornice. B) A broad flat surface over a storefront or below a cornice. C) A false front that can create a combustible void that is not normally encountered with masonry walls. D) All the above.

D) All the above.

53) What would you consider one of the major advantages of 'mill' construction from a firefighting standpoint? A) The size of the timber members. B) The absence of concealed spaces. C) The required 3 inch tongue and groove floors. D) The required 2 inch tongue and groove roofs.

B) The absence of concealed spaces.

The exterior walls in a mill-constructed masonry buildings are constructed of: A. Solid concrete block B. Hollow concrete block C. Brick D. Stucco

C. Brick

Which of the following statements regarding interior framing in masonry buildings is LEAST accurate? A. Cast iron was frequently used for columns in masonry buildings during the nineteenth century. B. Finishes on interior framing of wood-joisted buildings are not required to be fire resistant. C. Both protected and unprotected steel interior framing can be used in masonry walls. D. Wood-joisted masonry construction will have concealed combustible voids similar to wood-frame construction.

B. Finishes on interior framing of wood-joisted buildings are not required to be fire resistant.

Which of the following statements regarding fire resistance of masonry buildings is LEAST accurate? A. Deterioration of masonry walls is normally a slow process. B. Reinforcing and security measures can make it more difficult to force entry into masonry buildings. C. The presence of tie rods indicates that the building has undergone repair. D. Cracks in a masonry building indicate imminent collapse.

D. Cracks in a masonry building indicate imminent collapse.

Which of the following has the lowest density? A. Granite B. Brick C. Limestone D. Concrete Block

D. Concrete Block

5) The compressive strength of wood is highest when the load is applied - A) Perpendicular to the grain of the wood. B) Oblique to the direction of the grain. C) Gradually to the end. D) Parallel to the grain of the wood.

D) Parallel to the grain of the wood.

``` 6) Oriented strand board (OSB) is an example of which of the following wood product types? A) Nonveneered panel. B) Veneered panel. C) Laminated members. D) Solid wood. ```

A) Nonveneered panel.

``` 10) What type of wood product is used in the top and bottom flange of a manufactured wood I- beam? A) Laminated veneer lumber. B) Solid lumber. C) Waferboard or OSB. D) A and B. ```

D) A and B.

11) Wood frame construction is highly combustible due to which of the following factors - A) The large quantity of fuel involved. B) The large amount of combustible surface area. C) The large amounts of air in voids between joists, rafters, and wall units. D) All of the above.

D) All of the above.

12) The thermal decomposition of wood begins at a temperature somewhere below approximately ? A) 392 degrees F. B) 425 degrees F. C) 475 degrees F. D) 505 degrees F.

A) 392 degrees F.

``` 13) Ignition temperature in wood products is NOT determined by which of the following factors? A) Barometric pressure. B) Moisture content. C) Density of the wood. D) Air supply. ```

A) Barometric pressure.

``` 16) The International Building Code allows fire-retardant treated wood in non-load bearing partitions where the required fire resistance is – A) 30 minutes or less. B) 1 hour or less. C) 2 hours or less. D) 3 hours or less. ```

C) 2 hours or less.

18) Ammonia phosphate, boric acid, sodium dichromate, and zinc chloride are ingredients in - A) Wood preservatives. B) Class A foams effective on wood fires. C) Wood fire-retardants. D) The pyrolysis reaction.

C) Wood fire-retardants.

19) How do fire-retardants slow the flaming combustion of wood structures and members? A) By accelerating the formation of charring in the wood when the wood is exposed to heat. B) By introducing a non-combustible inorganic salt into wood fibers. C) The organic salts of fire-retardants interrupt the process of off-gassing in wood. D) The inorganic and organic salts increase the ignition temperature of wood by as much as 110 degrees F.

A) By accelerating the formation of charring in the wood when the wood is exposed to heat.

22) Wood has a tensile strength that is comparable to steal. It's strength however, is greatly reduced in comparison to steel due to defects in the wood. Thus, the allowable tensile strength of wood is about - A) 400 psi. B) 550 psi. C) 700 psi. D) 850 psi.

C) 700 psi.

16) Which of the following is the most commonly used method of satisfying building code requirements for structural fire resistance? A) The NFPA 251 standard time-temperature test. B) Computer simulations. C) Mathematical simulations. D) All of the above.

A) The NFPA 251 standard time-temperature test.

15) What is the following formula used to determine: R={[(C1 x M) + C2] x I} / D A) Exponential rate of heat increase in an ignited wooden assembly. B) The fire resistance of floor/ceiling assemblies. C) The fire resistance of steel beams and columns protected by light insulation. D) The geometric spread of flame across a building material surface.

C) The fire resistance of steel beams and columns protected by light insulation.

17) What is the ASTM E-136 "Standard Test Method for Behavior of Materials in a Vertical Tube Furnace at 750 degrees C " used to test? A) The combustibility of building materials. B) Fire behavior at point sources in ceiling/floor assemblies. C) Fire resistance of column and beam assemblies. D) Fire-resistance of column assemblies.

A) The combustibility of building materials.

18) Which of the following building classifications includes non-combustible structures? A) Type III. B) Type VI. C) Type I. D) Type II.

D) Type II.

20) In the NFPA building construction code what does the "3" in a "Type I 4-4-3" construction mean? A) The roof assembly has a three-hour fire rating. B) The building has three floors. C) The floor assembly has a three-hour fire rating. D) The exterior walls are constructed for three stories and have a three-hour fire rating.

C) The floor assembly has a three-hour fire rating.

21) Which NFPA publication classifies building construction types and specifies detail fire- resistant requirements for materials and assemblies? A) NFPA 205. B) NFPA 1732. C) NFPA 230. D) NFPA 220.

D) NFPA 220.

22) In a Type III- 2-1-1 construction, which digit in the fire-resistance code represents the rating for exterior bearing walls? A) The "2". B) The second "1". C) The first "1". D) The fire-resistance code in a Type III construction is "222".

A) The "2".

23) If a Type I building is required to have a four-hour rating on the interior columns of a three-story building, a three-hour rating on the floor assemblies, and a four-hour rating on the exterior bearing walls what would the NFPA code for the building be? A) Type I 3-4-4. B) Type I 4-3-4. C) Type I 4-4-3. D) Type I 3-4-4.

C) Type I 4-4-3.

24) Which of the following statements are true? A) Building codes use the types of construction and building occupancy, in connection with sprinkler systems and separations, to establish limits on the heights and areas of buildings. B) The International Building Code (IBC) makes use of construction classifications similar to NFPA 220. C) Building codes do not make use of the descriptive terms fire?resistant, noncombustible, masonry, or wood-frame because they do not fully define the construction types. D) All the above.

D) All the above.

26) The difference between Type I and Type II construction is - A) Interior building materials are non-combustible in a Type II building. B) Combustible interior trim is permitted in Type II construction but not in a Type I building. C) Unprotected Type II construction is non-combustible but not fire-resistant. D) Unprotected Type I construction is fire-resistant but combustible.

C) Unprotected Type II construction is non-combustible but not fire-resistant.

29) When a structural specimen is tested, the test is continued until - A) The testing duration has reached three hours. B) The specimen fails. C) A specific fire endurance for the specimen being tested as been reached. D) B and C.

D) B and C.

31) Which of the following statements about Type III building construction is FALSE? A) Exterior walls and internal framing must be constructed of non-combustible materials, but floors, roofs, finishes, and interior wall partitions may be constructed of combustible materials. B) Exterior walls must be constructed of masonry or another non-combustible material. C) Interior framing may be constructed of combustible materials. D) Collapse of floors is more likely to occur in a Type III structure than in a protected Type II structure.

A) Exterior walls and internal framing must be constructed of non-combustible materials, but floors, roofs, finishes, and interior wall partitions may be constructed of combustible materials.

32) What building material can be used with smaller dimensions in a Type III building versus a Type IV building? A) Pre-cast concrete floor units. B) Steel. C) Masonry veneers. D) Wood.

D) Wood.

33) In Type III construction, it would not be uncommon to use nominal _____ joists for floor construction. A) 2 x 6 inch. B) 2 x 8 inch. C) 2 x 10 inch. D) 2 x 12 inch.

C) 2 x 10 inch.

34) The specific failure criteria depends on the specimen being tested. This could include a column or wall assembly, or whether the test specimen is restrained or unrestrained. Taking this into account, what would you consider to be the primary points of failure for a test? A) Failure to support an applied load, or excess temperature on steel members. B) Temperature increase on the unexposed side of the wall, floor, and roof assemblies of 250 degrees F. above ambient temperatures. C) The passage of heat or flame through the assembly sufficient to ignite cotton waste. D) All the above.

D) All the above.

43) First engineered by George Washington Snow in the 1850s, this Type V construction method greatly reduced the cost and time involved in erecting residential and small commercial buildings. A) What is "stick-built" construction? B) What is "Modular" construction? C) What is "Light Frame" construction? D) What is "Pre-Fab" construction?

C) What is "Light Frame" construction?

44) Type III A construction is required to have a ____ fire-resistive rating for interior members. A) One hour. B) Two hours. C) Three hours. D) Four hours.

A) One hour.

45) What would be the fire-resistive rating for interior members for Type III B construction? A) One hour. B) Two hours. C) Three hours. D) Type III B construction has no fire resistance requirements for internal members.

D) Type III B construction has no fire resistance requirements for internal members.

47) Ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, and similar materials have heat of combustion between - A) 3000 and 5000 BTUs per pound. B) 5000 and 7000 BTUs per pound. C) 7000 and 8,000 BTUs per pound. D) 8000 and 10,000 BTUs per pound.

C) 7000 and 8,000 BTUs per pound.

``` 48) Building codes classify buildings according to their - A) Occupancy. B) Construction type. C) Square footage. D) A and B. ```

D) A and B.

1. What is the primary fire hazard encountered with Type IV construction? p. 61 A.) Collapse potential B.) Pitched rooftops C.) Massive amount of fuel D.) Concealed spaces

C.) Massive amount of fuel

2. Which digit indicates the fire-resistance rating of the floor construction in NFPA 220? p. 54 A.) Fourth B.) Third C.) Second D.) First

B.) Third

3. Which of the following information will the standard fire resistance test provide? p. 50 A.) The extent to which the assembly will generate smoke or other products of combustion B.) Fire behavior of joints between building elements such as floor-to-wall connections C.) Measurement of the degree of control or limitation of the passage of smoke D.) The ability of structural assemblies to carry a structural load and to act as a fire barrier

D.) The ability of structural assemblies to carry a structural load and to act as a fire barrier

4. Which term refers to the maximum heat that will be released if all the available fuel in a building were consumed? p. 63 A.) Release load B.) Consume load C.) Heat load D.) Fire load

D.) Fire load

5. Which material can ASCE/SFPE 29 NOT be used to determine the fire resistance? p. 52 A.) Structural steel B.) Reinforced concrete C.) Clay masonry D.) Cast iron

D.) Cast iron

6. Which is the most commonly used test to determine combustibility? p. 54 A.) ASTM E 119 B.) ASTM E 136 C.) ASTM E 120 D.) ASTM E 135

B.) ASTM E 136

7. What is the ability of a structural assembly to maintain its load-bearing capacity and structural integrity under fire conditions? p. 46 A.) Fire aversion B.) Fire resistance C.) Fire proofness D.) Fire rating

B.) Fire resistance

8. Which statement is correct regarding Type I construction? p. 57 A.) The fuel loads are more likely to be light B.) The building is less likely to collapse on firefighters C.) Fires in this type of building are smaller than other types of construction D.) Fire fighting will be easy in this type of building

B.) The building is less likely to collapse on firefighters

9. In which type of construction is the creation of combustible concealed voids and channels very extensive? p. 62 A.) Type V B.) Type IV C.) Type III D.) Type II

A.) Type V

10. What is the most common characteristic of unprotected, noncombustible construction? p. 58 A.) Use of nonreinforced concrete B.) Use of reinforced concrete C.) Use of unprotected steel D.) Use of protected steel

C.) Use of unprotected steel

11. Which is the most commonly used method of determining the fire resistance rating? p. 47 A.) Laboratory testing B.) Performing real life fire testing C.) Analytical calculations D.) Analytical structural fire engineering

A.) Laboratory testing

12. How many subgroups does the IBC contain within the 10 major occupancy classifications? p. 65 A.) 18 B.) 32 C.) 12 D.) 26

D.) 26

16. What is a fundamental fire concern with Type III construction? p. 59 A.) Elevated ceilings B.) Heavy structural members C.) Pitched rooftops D.) Concealed spaces

D.) Concealed spaces

17. What can the fire resistance rating of occupancy separations range when required by code? p. 66 A.) Three to five hours B.) Four to six hours C.) One to three hours D.) Two to four hours

C.) One to three hours

22. Which is most commonly used standard time-temperature test which satisfies building code requirements for structural fire resistance? p. 53 A.) NFPA 1001 B.) NFPA 251 C.) NFPA 1301 D.) NFPA 327

B.) NFPA 251

25. Within what timeframe is a temperature of 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit (538 degrees Celsius) reached when conducting the standard fire-resistance test? p. 47 A.) 5 minutes B.) 20 minutes C.) 10 minutes D.) 15 minutes

A.) 5 minutes

28. What fire resistance are bearing walls and columns generally required to have in Type I construction? p. 55 A.) One to three hours B.) Two to four hours C.) Four to six hours D.) Three to five hours

B.) Two to four hours

29. Which size joists would be commonly found in the floor construction of a Type III building? p. 59 A.) 2- X 10-inch (50 mm X 250 mm) B.) 8- X 10-inch (200 mm X 250 mm) C.) 6- X 10-inch (150 mm X 250 mm) D.) 4- X 10-inch (100 mm X 250 mm)

A.) 2- X 10-inch (50 mm X 250 mm)

31. Which is the only test that is currently universally accepted by building codes? p. 49 A.) E-119 B.) E-120 C.) E-118 D.) E-121

A.) E-119

1. Which interior finish material is most commonly used when a degree of fire resistance is required? p. 223 A.) Plywood B.) Brick C.) OSB D.) Gypsum board

D.) Gypsum board

2. Which type of connection is most likely to be seen in heavy timber construction? p. 214 A.) Bolts B.) Metal plates C.) Screws D.) Nails

A.) Bolts

3. What determines the extent to which the presence of foam insulation in a wood-frame wall will increase fire spread within the wall? p. 221 A.) Existence of building paper B.) Existence of an air space C.) Existence of a protective coating D.) Existence of firestopping

B.) Existence of an air space

4. In balloon-frame construction, where do the exterior wall studs run? p. 216 A.) Foundation to the roof B.) Foundation to the first floor C.) Foundation to outside the roof D.) Foundation to the ceiling

A.) Foundation to the roof

5. What fire resistance rating must be achieved for a wood-frame building to be classified as Type V-A? p. 223-224 A.) 4-hour B.) 3-hour C.) 2-hour D.) 1-hour

D.) 1-hour

6. What size area are attic spaces usually required to be subdivided into in combustible construction? p. 219-220 A.) 1,500 square feet (139.4 sq. m) B.) 4,500 square feet (418.2 sq. m) C.) 6,000 square feet (557.4 sq. m) D.) 3,000 square feet (278.7 sq. m)

D.) 3,000 square feet (278.7 sq. m)

7. What are the initial products of pyrolysis? p. 208 A.) Water and nitrogen B.) Water and carbon monoxide C.) Water and hydrogen D.) Water and carbon dioxide

D.) Water and carbon dioxide

8. What is the minimum size of the columns in heavy-timber framing? p. 212 A.) 8 X 8 inches (200 mm X 200 mm) B.) 10 X 10 inches (250 mm X 250 mm) C.) 12 X 12 inches (300 mm X 300 mm) D.) 6 X 6 inches (150 mm X 150 mm)

A.) 8 X 8 inches (200 mm X 200 mm)

9. What is the maximum moisture content of structural lumber? p. 198 A.) 23 percent B.) 19 percent C.) 25 percent D.) 21 percent

B.) 19 percent

11. What is the total amount of thermal energy that could be released if the fuel were completely burned? p. 208 A.) Heat of combustion B.) Surface-to-mass ratio C.) Ambient temperature D.) Process of pyrolysis

A.) Heat of combustion

12. Which of the following is typically used for short-span beams and columns? p. 201 A.) Laminated veneer lumber B.) Parallel strand lumber C.) Laminated strand lumber D.) Parallel veneer lumber

C.) Laminated strand lumber

16. Which is the most common type of wood framing? p. 216 A.) Post and beam framing B.) Light wood-framing C.) Heavy-timber framing D.) Mortise and tenon framing

B.) Light wood-framing

17. Which of the following can parallel strand lumber be used for? p. 201 A.) Short-span beams B.) I-joists C.) Short-span columns D.) Heavily loaded columns

D.) Heavily loaded columns

18. In which area is ignition-resistant construction beginning to take place? p. 226 A.) Outlying areas B.) Urban-wildland interface C.) Suburban D.) Inner cities

B.) Urban-wildland interface

20. Fire within what type of insulation material will progress in a slow smoldering manner? p. 221 A.) Granulated rock wool B.) Foam plastic C.) Glass wool D.) Fiber glass

A.) Granulated rock wool

22. What nominal size members are used to make up light-frame trusses? p. 204 A.) 3-inch (75 mm) B.) 4-inch (100 mm) C.) 5-inch (125 mm) D.) 2-inch (50 mm)

D.) 2-inch (50 mm)

23. What is the minimum nominal thickness of a timber? p. 199 A.) 2 inches (50 mm) B.) 5 inches (125 mm) C.) 3 inches (75 mm) D.) 4 inches (100 mm)

B.) 5 inches (125 mm)

24. Which material can be used to make the flanges of an I-beam? p. 206 A.) Plywood B.) Oriented strand board C.) Particleboard D.) Solid wood lumber

D.) Solid wood lumber

25. Below what temperature does pyrolysis begin? p. 208 A.) 392 degrees Fahrenheit (200 degrees Celsius) B.) 482 degrees Fahrenheit (250 degrees Celsius) C.) 662 degrees Fahrenheit (350 degrees Celsius) D.) 572 degrees Fahrenheit (300 degrees Celsius)

A.) 392 degrees Fahrenheit (200 degrees Celsius)

26. What are the flat strips of wood used to make laminated wood joined together with? p. 199 A.) Screws B.) Nails C.) Wedges D.) Glue

D.) Glue

27. At what interval must the brick veneer be tied to the wood frame walls? p. 223 A.) 16 inches (400 mm) B.) 12 inches (300 mm) C.) 18 inches (450 mm) D.) 14 inches (350 mm)

A.) 16 inches (400 mm)

28. How far apart are the posts usually spaced in post and beam framing? p. 215 A.) 6 to 12 feet (1.9 m to 4 m) B.) 2 to 6 feet (0.6 m to 1.9 m) C.) 8 to 16 feet (2.5 m to 4.9 m) D.) 4 to 12 feet (1.3 m to 4 m)

D.) 4 to 12 feet (1.3 m to 4 m)

29. How many different directions is it possible for fire to spread where truss joists are used in floor construction? p. 224 A.) Four B.) Two C.) One D.) Three

A.) Four

30. Which makes use of a short circular piece of steel within and between two adjacent wood members to transfer the load between the members? p. 205 A.) Through truss B.) Light-frame truss C.) Split-ring truss D.) Timber truss

C.) Split-ring truss

33. Which of the following is used when energy efficiency is desired? p. 202 A.) Nonveneered panel B.) Composite lumber C.) Laminated lumber D.) Composite panel

D.) Composite panel

34. What is installed on the outside of the studs to provide structural stability and an underlayer for the siding? p. 220 A.) Sheathing B.) Insulation C.) Building paper D.) Siding

A.) Sheathing

35. How many layers of strand-like wood particles are glued together to make oriented strand board? p. 202 A.) Seven to nine B.) Five to seven C.) One to three D.) Three to five

D.) Three to five

36. What is the direction of the grain of adjacent veneers in plywood? p. 201 A.) Criss crossed on each other B.) At right angles to each other C.) There is no relation to each other D.) Parallel to each other

B.) At right angles to each other

37. On the basis of strength to unit weight, which material is wood's tensile strength comparable to? p. 198 A.) Aluminum B.) Plastic C.) Cast iron D.) Steel

D.) Steel

38. What would the fire-retardant treated plywood of the 1980's react with under conditions of elevated temperature which resulted in the wood becoming brittle? p. 210 A.) Sunlight in the area B.) Heat in the room C.) Chemicals in the wood D.) Moisture in the air

D.) Moisture in the air

39. What does the construction of a platform-frame building begin with? p. 218 A.) Subflooring attached to the floor decking B.) Header and floor joists attached to a sill C.) Top and bottom plate are attached to the decking D.) Wood sill being attached to the foundation

D.) Wood sill being attached to the foundation

40. When did balloon framing begin to lose favor in the construction industry? p. 218 A.) 1940's B.) 1950's C.) 1930's D.) 1920's

D.) 1920's

41. Which cannot be used to join laminated members when tensile forces will be transmitted along the length of the beam? p. 200 A.) Butt joint B.) Coat joint C.) Finger joint D.) Scarf joint

A.) Butt joint

42. What is eliminated with post and beam framing? p. 216 A.) Nails and screws B.) Heavy members C.) Combustible voids D.) Exposed wood surface

C.) Combustible voids

1. What is the hardness of the brick dependent upon? p. 234 A.) Water B.) Heat C.) Method D.) Soil

D.) Soil

2. Which is the traditional and most basic masonry structure? p. 244 A.) Exterior nonbearing wall B.) Exterior load-bearing wall C.) Interior load-bearing wall D.) Interior nonbearing wall

B.) Exterior load-bearing wall

3. Which type of fascia creates a projection beyond the building wall that creates a concealed space through which a fire can communicate? p. 250 A.) Gable B.) Hipped C.) Gambrel D.) Mansard

D.) Mansard

4. Which type of load-bearing masonry wall will the firefighter most likely encounter? p. 237-238 A.) Concrete block B.) Gypsum block C.) Stone D.) Lightweight concrete block

A.) Concrete block

5. What causes cracks and misalignment of a masonry wall? p. 247 A.) Fire effects B.) Shifting foundation C.) Weathering effects D.) Reinforced wood members

B.) Shifting foundation

6. Which is usually identifiable from the exterior of the building when a leaning or bulging masonry wall is repaired? p. 248 A.) Tension rod B.) Floor joist C.) Turnbuckle D.) Bearing plate

D.) Bearing plate

7. How high will three courses of brick plus the intervening mortar joints be when completed? p. 235 A.) 8 inches (200 mm) B.) 6 inches (150 mm) C.) 12 inches (300 mm) D.) 10 inches (250 mm)

A.) 8 inches (200 mm)

8. Which type of support is used only where architectural style makes it attractive? p. 242 A.) Arch B.) Lintel C.) Header D.) Corbelling

D.) Corbelling

9. What usually collapses and results in the masonry wall collapsing? p. 249 A.) Nonbearing interior walls B.) Foundation C.) Rooftop D.) Interior wood framing

D.) Interior wood framing

10. Which is a beam over an opening in a masonry wall? p. 241 A.) Lintel B.) Arch C.) Header D.) Corbelling

A.) Lintel

11. What shape section above the lintel is it assumed will need to be supported by the lintel? p. 241-242 A.) Rectangle B.) Triangle C.) Circle D.) Square

B.) Triangle

12. Which type of stone is NOT commonly used in stone masonry construction? p. 235 A.) Granite B.) Limestone C.) Clay D.) Sandstone

C.) Clay

13. How often can a header course be placed to bond parallel wythes of brick? p. 240 A.) Every fifth course B.) Every fourth course C.) Every sixth course D.) Every seventh course

C.) Every sixth course

15. Which of the following can cause deterioration of a masonry structure? p. 234 A.) Fire damage B.) Mortar breakdown C.) Insect infestation D.) Weathering

B.) Mortar breakdown

19. What is usually the maximum height allowed for nonreinforced masonry walls? p. 239 A.) Seven stories B.) Five stories C.) Six stories D.) Eight stories

C.) Six stories

20. Which of the following is one of the oldest and simplest building materials? p. 233 A.) Asbestos B.) Concrete C.) Masonry D.) Steel

C.) Masonry

21. What is the required fire resistance rating of exterior walls in heavy-timber construction? p. 251 A.) 4-hour B.) 3-hour C.) 2-hour D.) 1-hour

C.) 2-hour

22. Which type of wall is built to prevent water seepage through the mortar joints to the interior of the building? p. 240 A.) Cavity wall B.) Soldier wall C.) Curtain wall D.) Stretcher wall

A.) Cavity wall

23. Which type of construction are buildings of ordinary construction with masonry exterior walls and wood joisted interior framing? p. 246 A.) Type III B.) Type I C.) Type II D.) Type IV

A.) Type III

24. What would the allowable compressive strength of brick masonry be? p. 236 A.) 250 psi (1.72 kPa) B.) 500 psi (3.44 kPa) C.) 1,000 psi (6.88 kPa) D.) 750 psi (5.16 kPa)

A.) 250 psi (1.72 kPa)

25. What is a major advantage of mill construction from a fire fighting standpoint? p. 252 A.) Fewer floors B.) Large amount of wood used C.) No concealed spaces D.) Noncombustible roofing material

C.) No concealed spaces

26. What may be used to reduce the compressive stresses in the masonry when a beam transmits a large vertical load? p. 245 A.) Beam pocket B.) Header coarse C.) Pilaster D.) Fire cut

C.) Pilaster

27. How many layers of 1-inch (25 mm) matched boards are required in nonbearing interior partitions and walls of mill construction as a minimum? p. 250 A.) Four B.) Three C.) One D.) Two

D.) Two

28. What is used to allow the beam to fall away freely from a wall in the case of structural collapse without pushing against the masonry? p. 245 A.) Header course B.) Pilaster rod C.) Fire cut D.) Beam pocket

C.) Fire cut

29. Where should corrosion-resistant metal ties be placed to accomplish horizontal bonding in a masonry wall? p. 240 A.) Between the headers B.) Between the wythes C.) Between the courses D.) Between the stretchers

B.) Between the wythes

30. Which is a low wall at the edge of the roof? p. 243 A.) Lintel B.) Corbelling C.) Parapet D.) Fire wall

C.) Parapet

31. Which determines the fire resistance of a masonry wall? p. 246 A.) Location of the wall and number of courses used B.) Type of units used and thickness of the wall C.) Type and location of the units used D.) Number of courses used and type of units

B.) Type of units used and thickness of the wall

``` 1. What is the steel truss used in three-dimensional space frames known as? p. 265 A.) Beta truss B.) Alpha truss C.) Gamma truss D.) Delta truss ```

D.) Delta truss

2. What is the carbon content of cast iron which makes it hard but brittle? p. 258 A.) 3 to 4 percent B.) 7 to 8 percent C.) 5 to 6 percent D.) 9 to 10 percent

A.) 3 to 4 percent

3. Which of the following does NOT play a role in the possibility of buckling in an individual column? p. 269 A.) Length B.) Method the column is supported along its length C.) Method the column is supported at its top and bottom D.) Cross-section

B.) Method the column is supported along its length

5. Which statement about steel is correct? p. 259 A.) Steels with higher yield points have less ductility B.) Steels with higher yield points have lower ductility C.) Steels with lower yield points have low ductility D.) There is no relationship between yield point and ductility

A.) Steels with higher yield points have less ductility

6. Where is the knee joint of a gabled rigid-frame structure located? p. 271 A.) Rear and side wall B.) Front and side wall C.) Roof and the wall D.) Floor and the wall

C.) Roof and the wall

7. What is the primary purpose of the gusset plate? p. 271 A.) Increase the mass at the connection B.) Create an angle C.) Change the connection direction D.) Strengthen the connection

D.) Strengthen the connection

8. What is a large, horizontal structural member used to support joists at isolated points along their lengths? p. 262 A.) Girder B.) Column C.) Frame D.) Beam

A.) Girder

9. What are heavy steel trusses used to take the place of steel beams as part of the primary structural frame? p. 266 A.) Joist girders B.) Column girders C.) Rigid girders D.) Beam girders

A.) Joist girders

13. Approximately was percentage of entrapped water is contained in gypsum? p. 272 A.) 21 percent B.) 11 percent C.) 41 percent D.) 31 percent

A.) 21 percent

14. In which type of frame are the connections designed primarily to support a vertical force? p. 264 A.) Simple B.) Trussed C.) Semi-rigid D.) Rigid

A.) Simple

15. Which of the following must be considered when determining the fire resistance rating of the ceiling? p. 274 A.) Insulation materials B.) Floor and ceiling assembly C.) Floor assembly D.) Ceiling assembly

B.) Floor and ceiling assembly

16. What is the density range of the cementitious materials? p. 273 A.) 10 to 45 lb/cu ft. B.) 30 to 60 lb/cu ft. C.) 15 to 50 lb/cu ft. D.) 25 to 70 lb/cu ft.

A.) 10 to 45 lb/cu ft.

17. Which type of joists are frequently used for the support of floors or roof decks? p. 266 A.) Rigid joists B.) Delta joists C.) Bar joists D.) Top joists

C.) Bar joists

18. How does cast iron tend to fail? p. 261 A.) Splintering B.) Fracturing C.) Deforming D.) Yielding

B.) Fracturing

19. Which is a structural member that can carry loads across greater spans more economically than beams can? p. 264 A.) Steel girder B.) Steel column C.) Steel truss D.) Steel bracing

C.) Steel truss

20. Which is constructed as a solid arch that may be built up from angles and webs with a cross section similar to that of a beam? p. 267 A.) Beam B.) Girder C.) Rigid D.) Trussed

B.) Girder

21. What is most often the maximum slenderness ratio of a column used for structural support in a building? p. 269 A.) 150 B.) 130 C.) 120 D.) 140

C.) 120

22. What is the most common type of membrane ceiling used? p. 274 A.) Gypsum panels B.) Spray-applied materials C.) Mineral tiles D.) Plasterboard plates

C.) Mineral tiles

23. Where do the rigid connections used in beam and girder type frame add more mass? p. 270 A.) Along the flooring B.) Along the span C.) At the connection D.) At the center

C.) At the connection

24. What temperature is steel heated to for the rolling process? p. 258 A.) 2,200 degrees Fahrenheit (1,200 degrees Celsius) B.) 3,700 degrees Fahrenheit (2,100 degrees Celsius) C.) 3,200 degrees Fahrenheit (1,800 degrees Celsius) D.) 2,700 degrees Fahrenheit (1,500 degrees Celsius)

A.) 2,200 degrees Fahrenheit (1,200 degrees Celsius)

25. What is the density of steel? p. 260 A.) 360 pounds per cubic feet (5 760 kg/cubic m) B.) 220 pounds per cubic feet (3 520 kg/cubic m) C.) 640 pounds per cubic feet (10 240 kg/cubic m) D.) 490 pounds per cubic feet (7 840 kg/cubic m)

D.) 490 pounds per cubic feet (7 840 kg/cubic m)

26. Which type of floor system uses a lightweight concrete with a minimum thickness of 2 inches (50 mm) supported by corrugated steel decking? p. 270 A.) Steel beams B.) Light-gauge steel joists C.) Open-web joists D.) Rigid frames

C.) Open-web joists

27. How is the slenderness ratio modified in evaluating a given design? p. 269 A.) Modifying the thickness of the ends as compared to the rest of the column B.) Modifying the manner that the ends are attached to the rest of the structure C.) Modifying the length of the column as compared to the height of the building D.) Modifying the materials that are used to construct the column

B.) Modifying the manner that the ends are attached to the rest of the structure

28. What must be done for the gable roof rigid-frame structure to prevent deflections in the direction of perpendicular to the plane of the frame sections? p. 267 A.) Brace diagonally B.) Reinforce the girders C.) Brace perpendicularly D.) Reinforce the beams

A.) Brace diagonally

29. Which type of forces are slender shapes of steel limited to supporting? p. 268 A.) Torsion B.) Shear C.) Tension D.) Compression

C.) Tension

30. What is the top of the gabled rigid frame called? p. 267 A.) Knee B.) Crown C.) Arch D.) Elbow

B.) Crown

31. What density of mineral fiber materials would be suitable for use in a parking facility? p. 273 A.) 20 lb/cu ft. B.) 15 lb/cu ft. C.) 10 lb/cu ft. D.) 5 lb/cu ft.

A.) 20 lb/cu ft.

32. What would the fire resistance of steel in older buildings which was encased in 3 inches (75 mm) of concrete with siliceous aggregate be? p. 272 A.) 5 hours B.) 2 hours C.) 3 hours D.) 4 hours

D.) 4 hours

33. What depth range of the steel joists can be seen for the light-gauge steel joist floor system? p. 270 A.) 4 to 12 inches (100 mm to 300 mm) B.) 6 to 12 inches (150 mm to 300 mm) C.) 8 to 14 inches (200 mm to 350 mm) D.) 10 to 14 inches (250 mm to 350 mm)

B.) 6 to 12 inches (150 mm to 300 mm)

34. Which steel column cross-section is similar to the cross section of an I-beam? p. 268 A.) Open web shape B.) Rectangular tube C.) Wide flange shape D.) Hollow cylinder

C.) Wide flange shape

35. What is a greater likelihood due to the slenderness of steel column than a column constructed of another material? p. 268 A.) Shattering B.) Snapping C.) Splintering D.) Buckling

D.) Buckling

36. How many times its original volume will the intumescent coating expand when exposed to fire conditions? p. 274 A.) 15 to 30 times B.) 20 to 40 times C.) 10 to 20 times D.) 25 to 50 times

A.) 15 to 30 times

1. Which type of force is applied to the reinforcing steel during the posttensioning process? p. 286 A.) Torsional B.) Shear C.) Compressive D.) Tensile

D.) Tensile

2. In the simplest of precast designs, how are the precast slabs connected? p. 294 A.) Undergo posttensioning B.) Welded to a column C.) Rest on a column D.) Bolted to a column

C.) Rest on a column

3. Which type of deflection is often seen when the steel strands are released during the pretensioning process? p. 286 A.) Downward B.) Lateral C.) Upward D.) Horizontal

C.) Upward

4. Which of the following can make the overhaul operations very uncomfortable? p. 298 A.) Slump effect B.) Spalling C.) Heat sink effect D.) Overdrawing

C.) Heat sink effect

5. What is the fine aggregate used in concrete? p. 281 A.) Limestone B.) Gravel C.) Stone D.) Sand

D.) Sand

6. Which of the following statements is correct? p. 295 A.) The steel used in prestressed concrete systems has a higher yield-point temperature B.) Reinforcing cables and rods are made from an inferior type of steel in prestressed concrete systems C.) Prestressed concrete systems may be somewhat more vulnerable to failure than ordinary reinforced concrete D.) The same depth of cover a conventional reinforced assemblywill fail sooner than a prestressed assembly

C.) Prestressed concrete systems may be somewhat more vulnerable to failure than ordinary reinforced concrete

9. What is used to check the moisture content of concrete? p. 289 A.) Water test B.) Form test C.) Run test D.) Slump test

D.) Slump test

10. Which type of reinforcing is provided in addition to steel reinforcing bard to avoid possible buckling of a column? p. 286 A.) Vertical B.) Encompassing C.) Lateral D.) Diagonal

C.) Lateral

11. Which of the following provides a thicker slab while eliminating the weight of unnecessary concrete in the bottom half of the slab? p. 291 A.) Waffle construction B.) Slab and beam framing C.) Flat-slab concrete framing D.) Slab and column framing

A.) Waffle construction

12. Which type of concrete slab is used for short spans up to approximately 30 feet (10 m)? p. 293 A.) Hollow-core B.) Single tee C.) Double tee D.) Solid

D.) Solid

13. Which type of frame is good for use in buildings with light floor loads? p. 290 A.) Flat-slab concrete framing B.) Slab and beam framing C.) Slab and column framing D.) Waffle construction

B.) Slab and beam framing

14. In what shape is a concrete beam most frequently cast? p. 284 A.) "L" B.) Rectangle C.) Oval D.) Tee

D.) Tee

15. After what time period is normal design strength of concrete reached? p. 283 A.) 28 days B.) 10 days C.) 14 days D.) 60 days

A.) 28 days

16. What is the nonbearing exterior wall attached to the building with a rigid steel frame called? p. 295 A.) Curtain wall B.) Parapet wall C.) Faux wall D.) Facade wall

A.) Curtain wall

17. How are the reinforced wall panels constructed in tilt-up construction? p. 293 A.) On site in horizontal casting beds B.) Off site in a casting facility C.) Off site in a construction facility D.) On site in vertical casting beds

A.) On site in horizontal casting beds

18. What is the ideal temperature range that concrete should be kept within during curing? p. 283 A.) 40 degrees - 60 degrees Fahrenheit (4 degrees - 15 degrees Celsius) B.) 80 degrees - 100 degrees Fahrenheit (26 degrees - 37 degrees Celsius) C.) 60 degrees - 80 degrees Fahrenheit (15 degrees - 26 degrees Celsius) D.) 50 degrees - 70 degrees Fahrenheit (10 degrees - 21 degrees Celsius)

D.) 50 degrees - 70 degrees Fahrenheit (10 degrees - 21 | degrees Celsius)

19. What is the primary function of placing reinforcing steel in concrete? p. 284 A.) Resist torsional forces B.) Resist tensile forces C.) Support shear forces D.) Support compressive forces

B.) Resist tensile forces

20. Which type of concrete frame consists of a concrete slab supported by concrete columns? p. 290 A.) Slab and column frame B.) Flat-slab concrete frame C.) Waffle construction D.) Slab and beam frame

B.) Flat-slab concrete frame

22. Which of the following is NOT seen as an advantage to using precast concrete? p. 292 A.) The size of what can be precast is unlimited B.) The work can proceed more quickly at the job site C.) The increased degree of quality control D.) The improved insulating qualities that are possible

A.) The size of what can be precast is unlimited

24. Which type of assessment must be made and constantly updated as the operation continues? p. 281 A.) Fire area B.) 360-degree C.) 180-degree D.) Immediate area

B.) 360-degree

25. What effect does the superplasticizer have when added to a concrete mixture? p. 283 A.) Makes the concrete harden more quickly B.) Makes the concrete remain more flexible C.) Makes the concrete flow more freely D.) Makes the concrete more able to be shaped

C.) Makes the concrete flow more freely

26. What is a ledge that projects from the column and supports the beam? p. 294 A.) Cable B.) Tilter C.) Corbel D.) Angle

C.) Corbel

27. What is the chemical process involved in the hardening of concrete? p. 282 A.) Petalling B.) Evaporation C.) Hydration D.) Pyrolysis

C.) Hydration

28. In which application would concrete NOT be reinforced with steel? p. 281 A.) Pavement B.) Walls C.) Columns D.) Sidewalks

D.) Sidewalks

29. What are the stirrups designed to resist in ordinary reinforcing of concrete? p. 284 A.) Fundamental tension B.) Compressive tension C.) Vertical tension D.) Diagonal tension

D.) Diagonal tension

30. Which type of stresses are created in the concrete when the steel reinforcement is prestressed? p. 286 A.) Compressive B.) Shear C.) Tensile D.) Torsional

A.) Compressive

``` 1. What provides the water-resistant barrier for the roof system? p. 319 A.) Roof sheathing B.) Roof barrier C.) Roof covering D.) Roof decking ```

C.) Roof covering

2. How many layers of roofing felt is a common design? p. 321 A.) Five B.) Three C.) Six D.) Four

D.) Four

3. What is a second roof constructed over an existing roof called? p. 329 A.) Flashing roof B.) Rain roof C.) Void roof D.) Backup roof

B.) Rain roof

4. Which type of roof covering comes is most commonly 12 X 36 inches (300 mm X 900 mm)? p. 324 A.) Asphalt shingles B.) Concrete tiles C.) Wood shingles D.) Clay tiles

A.) Asphalt shingles

5. Which is frequently provided in buildings with a pitched roof to increase light and ventilation in the attic space? p. 310 A.) Lamella B.) Gambrel C.) Dormer D.) Eave

C.) Dormer

2) What factors are considered in determining a building's classification? A) The building materials used. B) The intended occupancy of the building. C) Building materials and fire resistance. D) The materials used and the intended occupancy.

C) Building materials and fire resistance.

49) International building codes group building occupancies into occupancy classifications. These international building codes (IBC) contain 10 major occupancies. Which of the following would not be considered one of these major occupancies? A) Assembly. B) Medical. C) Institutional. D) Storage.

B) Medical.

50) When examining international building codes, what would you consider a Group A occupancy? A) Residential. B) High hazard. C) Educational. D) Assembly.

D) Assembly.

51) Occupancies with primary transient occupants including hotels and motels would be considered which type of occupancy - A) R-1. B) R-2. C) R-3. D) R-4.

A) R-1. R-1 - Occupancies with primarily transient occupants including hotels and motels. R-2 - Occupancies with primarily permanent occupants and more than two dwelling units, such as apartment buildings, dormitories, and non transient hotels. R-3 - Occupancies with primary permanent occupants and not more than two dwelling units. In addition, adult facilities that provide accommodations for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours and child care facilities for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours. R-4 - Occupancies used as assisted-living facilities with five to sixteen occupants.

52) Occupancies used as assistant-living facilities with 5 to 16 occupants would be considered - A) R-1. B) R-2. C) R-3. D) R-4.

D) R-4. R-1 - Occupancies with primarily transient occupants including hotels and motels. R-2 - Occupancies with primarily permanent occupants and more than two dwelling units, such as apartment buildings, dormitories, and non transient hotels. R-3 - Occupancies with primary permanent occupants and not more than two dwelling units. In addition, adult facilities that provide accommodations for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours and child care facilities for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours. R-4 - Occupancies used as assisted-living facilities with five to sixteen occupants.

53) Occupancies with primary permanent occupants and not more than two dwelling units would be considered - A) R-1. B) R-2. C) R-3. D) R-4.

B) R-2. R-1 - Occupancies with primarily transient occupants including hotels and motels. R-2 - Occupancies with primarily permanent occupants and more than two dwelling units, such as apartment buildings, dormitories, and non transient hotels. R-3 - Occupancies with primary permanent occupants and not more than two dwelling units. In addition, adult facilities that provide accommodations for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours and child care facilities for five or fewer persons of any age for less than 24 hours. R-4 - Occupancies used as assisted-living facilities with five to sixteen occupants.

54) Occupancies with primarily permanent occupants and more than two dwelling units, such as apartment buildings, dormitories, and non-transient hotels would be considered - A) R-1. B) R-2. C) R-3. D) R-4.

55) Assembly occupancies are subdivided into five subgroups. An assembly occupancy used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls would be considered - A) A-1. B) A-2. C) A-3. D) A-4.

C) A-3. A-1 - Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as motion picture theaters and concert halls. A-2 Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-3 - Assembly occupancies used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-4 - Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas. A-5 - Assembly uses for outdoor activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums.

56) Assembly occupancies are subdivided into five subgroups. An assembly occupancy, usually with fixed seating such as motion picture theaters and concert halls would be considered - A) A-1. B) A-2. C) A-3. D) A-4.

A) A-1. A-1 - Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as motion picture theaters and concert halls. A-2 Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-3 - Assembly occupancies used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-4 - Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas. A-5 - Assembly uses for outdoor activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums.

57) Assembly occupancies are subdivided into five subgroups. Assembly uses for outside activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums would be considered - A) A-2. B) A-3. C) A-4. D) A-5.

D) A-5. A-1 - Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as motion picture theaters and concert halls. A-2 Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-3 - Assembly occupancies used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-4 - Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas. A-5 - Assembly uses for outdoor activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums.

58) Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas would be considered - A) A-2. B) A-3. C) A-4. D) A-5.

C) A-4. A-1 - Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as motion picture theaters and concert halls. A-2 Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-3 - Assembly occupancies used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-4 - Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas. A-5 - Assembly uses for outdoor activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums.

59) Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as night clubs and restaurants would be considered - A) A-2. B) A-3. C) A-4. D) A-5.

A) A-2. A-1 - Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as motion picture theaters and concert halls. A-2 Assembly occupancies used for consuming food and drink such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-3 - Assembly occupancies used for worship, recreation, or amusement such as bowling alleys, churches, dance halls, and exhibition halls. A-4 - Assembly occupancies intended for viewing indoor sporting events such as tennis courts and arenas. A-5 - Assembly uses for outdoor activities such as bleachers, grandstands, and stadiums.

62) Buildings that frequently contain occupants that represent more than one occupancy classification are called - A) Multiple occupancy. B) Mixed occupancy. C) Dynamic occupancy. D) Associated occupancy.

B) Mixed occupancy. Page 65, Building Construction Related To The Fire Service, Third Edition. NTQ For example, a building might contain a store on the ground floor in a residential apartment above it.

Building Construction Flashcards

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