Burns Flashcards

(23 cards)

1
Q

How can you estimate total body surface area for an adult burn?

A
  • patient’s hand is about 1%
  • rule of 9s (leg = 18, anterior torso = 18, posterior torso = 18, head = 9, arm = 9)
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2
Q

How can you estimate total body surface area for a pediatric burn?

A
  • head and neck = 18%
  • arms = 9%
  • anterior trunk = 18%
  • posterior trunk = 18%
  • legs = 14%
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3
Q

Describe volume resuscitation for burn victims.

A
  • use American Burn Life Support consensus formula when TBSA > 20%
  • formula is 2 x TBSA x kg
  • give the first half in the first 8 hours and the second half in the next 16 hours
  • target UOP of 0.5mL/kg/hr for adults and 1mL/kg/hr for children
  • change fluids by 10% each hour in response to urine output and hemodynamics
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4
Q

What are the indications for intubating a burn victim?

A
  • worsening hypoxemia or cyanosis
  • massive volume resuscitation
  • vocal cord edema, stridor, or hoarseness
  • significant facial or pharyngeal edema
  • soot on vocal cords
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5
Q

Damage to the lower airways in a burn victim is caused by what?

A

inhaled toxins

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6
Q

After intubating a burn victim, what should be the next step?

A

bronchoscopy

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7
Q

Describe the presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning in burn victims.

A
  • present with seizures, altered mental status, lactic acidosis (cellular hypoxia), arrhythmias, and myocardial ischemia
  • diagnose with a carboxyhemoglobin level
  • treat with high flow, 100% oxygen and serial carboxyhemoglobin measurements
  • don’t wean O2 until carboxyhemoglobin is < 10%
  • cannot use standard pulse ox to monitor
  • if severe toxicity, can consider hyperbaric oxygen
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8
Q

What are the normal ranges for carboxyhemoglobin?

A

non-smokers should be < 2%
heavy smokers could be up to 12%

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9
Q

When should you treat a burn victim for cyanide poisoning and how is it treated?

A
  • concern for inhalation injury with unexplained hypotension or lactic acidosis
  • there is no good diagnostic test so treatment is empiric
  • treat with 5g of hydroxocobalamin (cyanokit), which neutralizes cyanide and allows for excretion in urine
  • notably, treatment can induce transient hypotension and red coloring of the urine (not rhabdo)
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10
Q

Describe the use and side effects of the five primary burn antibiotics. Additionally what are the two main contraindications to use?

A
  • bacitracin: gram positive coverage, may cause rash or nephrotoxicity
  • mupirocin: used for Staph infections (not prophylaxis) and may cause irritation
  • silver sulfadiazine: used for 3rd degree burns and has gram negative coverage, may cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia
  • mafenide acetate: used for 3rd degree burns and has gram negative and pseudomonas coverage, may cause metabolic acidosis
  • silver nitrate: used for 3rd degree burns with gram positive and negative coverage, may cause methemoglobinemia/hyponatremia/staining of the skin
  • silver sulfadiazine is contraindicated with sulfa allergy
  • silver nitrate is contraindicated with G6PD deficiency
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11
Q

What are the degrees of frostbite?

A
  • 1: numbness, edema, firm plaque
  • 2: partial thickness, milky white blister
  • 3: full thickness, hemorrhagic blister, black eschar
  • 4: extends to the bone, black, mummified tissue
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12
Q

Describe the temperatures and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypothermia.

A
  • mild (90-94): shivering and mild mental status changes
  • moderate (84-90): agitated, muscle spasticity, dilated pupils, slow respirations
  • severe (70-84): prolonged QRS, Osborn (aka J) waves, Vfb, flaccid, comatose
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13
Q

How do you treat frostbite?

A
  • treat the hypothermia first
  • perform rapid active rewarming in heated water
  • debride deeper injuries
  • drain milky/clear blisters but not hemorrhagic ones
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14
Q

Where should you use a full-thickness skin graft?

A

cosmetically or functionally sensitive areas (e.g. face, over joints, etc.)

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15
Q

What are the downsides of a full thickness graft?

A
  • more elastin in the dermis causes primary contracture immediately after harvest
  • worse cosmesis of donor site
  • cannot be meshed to increase surface area
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16
Q

Describe a chest escharotomy.

A
  • mid-axillary lines bilaterally
  • connected by bilateral incisions along costal margin and curvilinear incision below the clavicles
  • carry down to normal subcutaneous tissue and make sure the ends of incisions make it onto normal skin
17
Q

Describe upper extremity escharotomies.

A
  • ulnar incision should go down to the base of the 5th proximal phalanx be placed anterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus to void injury to the ulnar nerve
  • radial incision can go to the base of the thumb
  • thumb is released on the radial side and the other fingers on the ulnar side
  • an additional two dorsal incisions may be made over the second and fourth metacarpal to release deep muscles of the hand
18
Q

Where are neck escharotomies performed?

A

posteriorly and laterally to minimize the risk of damaging carotid arteries or jugular veins

19
Q

Describe lower extremity escharotomies.

A
  • the medial incision should be placed posterior to the medial malleolus to avoid injury of the great saphenous vein or saphenous nerve
  • the mid-lateral incision should be curved around the fibular neck to avoid injury of the common peroneal nerve.
20
Q

When would you consider extubating a patient with inhalation injury?

A

generally swelling gets worse over 72hrs, after that, and if resuscitation has slowed, can consider as long as there is a cuff leak

21
Q

What burn wounds require operative debridement? When should this occur?

A
  • third degree wounds necessitate debridement and grafting
  • this should be performed in the first 72hrs
22
Q

Describe burn wound debridement.

A
  • tangential excision of burned tissue
  • hemostasis achieved with judicious use of cautery and epinephrine-soaked telfa
  • use a dermatome to take a graft
  • mesh the graft
  • cover with a wound vac to prevent post-operative shearing
  • consider splinting the joint if over one