Calcium Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Describe the role of PTH in calcium and phosphate homeostasis and bone remodeling:

A
  • PTH increases Ca in extracellular fluid which leads to…
  • Increased Ca reabsorption from collecting tubules (TrpV5)
  • Increased Ca resorption from bone (increased osteoclast # and activity)
  • Increased phosphate loss in urine
  • Increased 1,25(OH)2D3 production in kidney
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2
Q

What is PTH secretion triggered by?

A

low serum Ca levels

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3
Q

Explain the biosynthesis of Vitamin D:

A
  • UV irradiation of skin converts 7-dehyrocholesterol into cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)
  • Vitamin D3 gets hydroxylated in the liver by Vit D 25-hydroxylase, thus turning it into 25-hydroxyvitamin D3
  • From here, it can undergo two different hydroxylase reactions.
  • 1-a-hydroxylase will convert it into the active form (1,25 dihydroxy Vit D3) (calcitriol)
  • 24-hydroxylase will convert it into the significantly less active form (24,25 dihydroxy vit D3) (secalciferol)
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4
Q

Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF23)

A
  • secreted by osteocytes and osteoblasts in response to elevated serum phosphate
  • stims phosphate excretion
  • inhibits PTH secretion
  • inhibits 1,25(OH)2D3 synth
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5
Q

What do the auto/paracrine effects of FGF23 on osteocytes do?

A

inhibits bone mineralization

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6
Q

Explain the concentrations that inhibits PTH secretion:

A
  • 1,25(OH)2D#
  • FGF23
  • High Ca
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7
Q

What stimulates calcitonin?

A

Calcitonin is stimulated by high serum calcium levels

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8
Q

What are the effects of calcitonin?

A
  • inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption
  • increases Ca and phosphate loss in urine (less is reabsorbed)
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9
Q

Explain the rationale for the use of 1,25 (OH)-vitamin D3 or its precursors in osteoporosis and vitamin D deficiency:

A
  • can slightly reduce fracture risk
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10
Q

Estrogens and SERMS

A
  • prevention and control of postmenopausal bone resorption
  • increase osteoblasts, decrease osteoclasts
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11
Q

Calcitonin

A
  • a negative regulator of serum (extracellular) Ca
  • not used for osteoporosis much anymore
  • 4th line treatment
  • used for paget’s
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12
Q

Actions of Vitamin D

A
  • increased Ca and phosphate absorption from small intestine
  • increases Ca and phosphate reabsorption
  • Feedback inhibition of PTH
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13
Q

Bisphosphonates

A
  • 1st line treatment
  • inhibit bone resorption
  • may lead to hypocalcemia
  • gastric irritation
  • only 10% absorbed orally
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14
Q

Teriparatide/Abaloparatide

A
  • used for high fracture risk
  • amino acids of PTH
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15
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis:

A
  • physical inactivity
  • age
  • low ca intake in early years
  • long term glucocorticoid therapy
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16
Q

Romosozumab

A
  • reserved for high fracture risk
  • mab against sclerostin
17
Q

Deniszumab

A
  • 1st line treatment
  • humanized mab against RANKL
18
Q

Explain the mechanism of action for bisphosphonates based on their molecular structure:

A
  • reduce formation and dissolution of hydroxyapatite crystals
  • 50% of absorbed dose ends up in bone
  • disrupt cytoskeleton, induce apoptosis, inhibit farnesyl-PP synthesis of osteoclasts
19
Q

How does teriparatide increase bone mass?

A
  • occurs with intermittent dosing
  • preferentially stimulates osteoblast activity when administered with Ca and vit D
  • Activates Gs and Gq (Adenylyl cyclase and PLC)
20
Q

Explain the mechanism of denosumab:

A
  • binds to RANKL and prevents activation of RANK on osteoclast precursors, preventing differentiation of osteoclasts
21
Q

Explain the mechanism of romosozumab:

A
  • inhibits sclerostin
  • sclerostin is responsible for decreasing blasts and increasing clasts
22
Q

Explain the rationale for the use of inhibitors of PTH secretion in patients with CDK on dialysis:

A
  • in CDK with dialysis, the Ca-sensing receptor can become less responsive to Ca
  • cinacalcet is a PAM of the Ca-sensing receptor
  • when cinacalcet is bound to the receptor, its more responsive to Ca, and will better inhibit PTH secretion
23
Q

Explain the mechanism of Zemplar/Hectorol

A
  • inhibit secretion of PTH with less effect on serum Ca than 1,25(OH)2VitD3
24
Q

Explain the mechanism of etelcalcetide:

A
  • PAM of CaR
  • decreases PTH and calcium
25
Explain the rationale for the use of phosphonate binders in patients with CDK on dialysis:
- CDK often includes loss of phosphate excretion in response to PTH and FGF23 - phosphate binders complex with dietary phosphate and prevent absorption from GI
26
Differentiate the mechanisms of action of Fosrenol and Renagel:
- Fosrenol decreases serum phosphate and calcium levels - Renagel selectively decreases serum phosphate
27
Osteoblasts
- bone forming cells - incorporate Ca and Phosphate from plasma into bone
28
Osteoclasts
- bone resorption cells - release Ca2+ and phosphate from bone into plasma
29
Osteocytes
release factors that regulate osteoblast/clast activity
30
Which factors decrease bone mineral density (BMD)?
- sclerostin - DKK-1 - RANKL
31
Effects of hyperparathyroidsim:
increased bone resorption and decreased Ca excretion
32
Effects of malignant tumors:
some produce a peptide with PTH activity
33
Effects of hypocalcemia:
- hypoparathyroidism - vit d deficiencies - neuromuscular disturbances, paresthesia, tetany muscle cramps
34
Effects of Rickets (Vit D deficit)
- weight bearing bone deformities in children - hypocalcemia in adults
35
Pros of teriparatide compared to bisphosphonates:
- more effective in preventing fractures - builds bone mass at higher rate - may allow better bone healing after fracture
36
What is the black box warning for teriparatide?
- risk of bone cancer
37
Cons of teriparatide:
- injected daily - not recommended beyond 2 years