CDC PRACTICE TEST

Question 1

1. The five organizational principles are emphasis on wartime task, functional grouping, lean organizational structures, skip-echelon structure, and

a. tactical functions
b. internal subdivisions
c. standard levels
d. flat structures

Answer 1

c. Standard levels

Question 2

2. MAJCOM sits on top of a __ staffing structure.

a. skip-echelon
b. flat
c. functional grouping
d. worker-to-supervisor

Answer 2

a. skip -echelon

Question 3

3. A squadron typically has __ persons assigned.

a. 1,000 - 5000
b. 500 - 2000
e. 99 or less
d. 50 - 750

Answer 3

d. 50 – 750

Question 4

4. The five types of MTFs where you can work are the typical clinic model, hospital or medical center, medical wing, limited scope medical facility, and __

a. dental squadron
b. AOC
c. medical squadron
d. TACON

Answer 4

c. Medical Squadron

Question 5

5. Speaking clearly, slowly, and loud enough for the customer to hear and understand you is

a. enunciation
b. word choice
c. tone of voice
d. active listening

Answer 5

a. enunciation

Question 6

6. The __ introduces, summarizes, coordinates, or obtains approval or signatures on correspondence

a. Official memorandum
b. AF 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement
c. Air Force approval form
d. AF Form 1768, Staff Summary

Answer 6

a. AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet

Question 7

7. The is the microprocessor, or “brain,” of the computer system.

a. memory
b. CPU
c. mother board
d. graphics card

Answer 7

b. CPU

Question 8

8. Examples of common servers include: application, database, messaging/mail, print, and __

a. hard drive
b. software web
c. web
d. clinical

Answer 8

c. web

Question 9

9. What is the response time for an immediate level work order (affects clinical/patient care work stoppage)?

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes hour
c. 1 hour
d. 24 hours

Answer 9

a. 15 minutes

Question 10

10. True or False. Should software be added to the network without completing the proper documentation and adequate funding?

Answer 10

b. false

Question 11

11. When was CHAMPUS signed into law?

a. 1 Nov 2002
b. 1 Oct 1996
c. 31 Oct 1985
d. 2 Dec 2016

Answer 11

b. 1 Oct 1996

Question 12

12. The two distinct types of care include direct and __ care.

a. purchased
b. managed
c. fee-for-service
d. indirect

Answer 12

a. purchased

Question 13

13. True or False. All DOD military, civilians, contractors, volunteers, summer-hires, interns, and Red Cross personnel will receive initial IA training after receiving network access.

Answer 13

a. false

Question 14

14. The suffix -cele means:

a. weakness
b. cell
c. tumor
d. cyst, hernia, sac

Answer 14

d. cyst, hernia, sac

Question 15

15. The prefix intra- means:

a. over
b. within
c. many
d. negative, apart

Answer 15

b. within

Question 16

16. A __consists of two or more kinds of tissues joined into one structure that has a certain task.

a. protein
b. muscle
c.organ
d. urinary system

Answer 16

c. organ

Question 17

17. The__is the middle layer of the skin and keeps the temperature of the body.

a. dermis
b. epidermis
c. subcutaneous tissue
d. adipose

Answer 17

a. dermis

Question 18

18. __ such as the elbow, knee, and shoulder joints permit varying degrees of motion.

a. skeletal muscle
b. cartilage
c. fixed joints
d. movable joints

Answer 18

d. movable joints

Question 19

19. To protect the sensitive nature of the information, stamp records or documents__

a. “FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY”
b. “SENSITIVE MEDICAL INFORMATION”
c. “FOR YOUR EYES ONLY”
d. “DO NOT SHARE WITHOUT AUTHORIZATION”

Answer 19

b. “SENSITIVE MEDICAL INFORMATION”

Question 20

20. True or False. The DD Form 877, Request for Medical/Dental Records is used to request medical information or records.

Answer 20

a. True

Question 21

21. True or False. The MTF may sequester the original medical record or a certified copy when the situation warrants.

Answer 21

a. True

Question 22

22. In CHCS, what does entering ?? display?

a. the help feature
b. menu options
c. the secondary menu
d. name lookup

Answer 22

c. the secondary menu

Question 23

23. In DEERS, eligibility information is assumed valid for __ hours

a. 24 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 120 hours
d. 240 hours

Answer 23

c. 120 hours

Question 23

24. The__option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or other agency at the MTF.

a. Freeze/Release schedules
b. Repiace schedules
c. Cancellation by Facility
d. Partial schedules

Answer 23

c. Cancellation by Facility

Question 24

25. True or False. The DD Form 2138 cannot be initiated by any MTF to request outpatient records from another MTF

Answer 24

b. false

Question 25

26. True or False. There are times when a patient may receive routine care in an MTF, even though they fail a DEERS eligibility check.

Answer 25

b. false

Question 26

27. There are two components to the SNIAC program, the __ and the FMRC process. ## Footnote a. special needs coordinator b. MTF commander c. hospital process d. NCOIC of SNIAC

Answer 26

a. special needs coordinator

Question 27

28. True or False. You should perform a LOD determination for pregnancy or for any diagnosis associated with pregnancy.

Answer 27

b. false

Question 28

29. __ refers to a patient who is dead on arrival to the MTF ## Footnote a. dead on arrival b. carded for record only c. change in status d. expired

Answer 28

b. carded for record only

Question 29

30. A_patient is a patient being evacuated from overseas or from one MTF to another. ## Footnote a. outpatient b. inter-service transfer c. transient d. admission

Answer 29

c. transient

Question 30

31. The __ contains options allowing personnel to check bed availability on either a particular inpatient unit or all inpatient status. ## Footnote a. bed status menu b. CHCS c. A & D report d. RON roster

Answer 30

a. bed status menu

Question 31

32. A __ serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting the patient. ## Footnote a. admission package b. patient suspense file c. outpatient record d. locator card

Answer 31

b. patient suspense file

Question 32

34. The__ is used by the physician, dentist, or certified nurse midwife and nurse to chronologically document the patient's progress while in the hospital. ## Footnote a. SF 509, Medical Record - Progress Notes b. SF 506, Clinical Record - Physical Examination c. ST-504, Clinical Record - History, Part I d. SF 505, Clinical Record - History, Part 2 & 3

Answer 32

a. SF 509, Medical Record - Progress Notes

Question 33

33. The remains are released to mortuary personnel within__hours after death, unless special circumstances exist. ## Footnote a. two weeks b. 30 days c. 7 days. d.24 hours

Answer 33

d. 24 hours

Question 34

35.__ codes are commonly referred to as pass-through codes ## Footnote a. A b. B c. C d. D

Answer 34

c. C

Question 35

36. ICD-9-CM codes beginning with the letter _ describe external causes of injury, poisoning, and adverse reactions. ## Footnote a. A b. I c. X d. E

Answer 35

d. E

Question 36

37. The __ is responsible for planning and providing the medical support necessary to sustain maximum combat capability and effectiveness. ## Footnote a Air Force Medical Service b. National Security Council System c. Joint Strategic Planning System d. Air Reserve Component

Answer 36

a. Air Force Medical Service

Question 37

38.__is the movement, or relocation, of forces (people, ammunition, equipment, supplies) to a desired area of operation. ## Footnote a. contingency b. deployment c. assumption d. employment

Answer 37

b. Deployment

Question 38

39. The__includes common user assets, such as global mobility forces, special recovery forces, space forces, and other uniquely categorized forces that provide support to the Department of Defense. ## Footnote a. in-place support b. Enabler force c. readily available force d. institutional force

Answer 38

b. Enabler force

Question 39

40. __has a threefold purpose. One purpose is to provide data critical to crisis planning. ## Footnote a. JOPES b. MPERS c. IDP d. SORTS

Answer 39

d. SORTS

Question 40

41. The__is a C2 function activated to oversee the mission operation of the installation. ## Footnote a. crisis action b. incident commander c. contamination control team d. empergency operation center

Answer 40

a. Crisis action

Question 41

42. A military map, also known as a _map, is a graphic representation of the earth's surface to include man-made features as well as natural features through the use of symbols, lines, colors, and forms. ## Footnote a. topographical b. city c. highway d. off-road

Answer 41

a. Topographical

Question 42

43. The _is the area where the actual incident occurred, and contamination exists. ## Footnote a. warm zone b. cold zone c. hot zone d. battlefield

Answer 42

c. Hot zone

Question 43

44. Patient movement is composed of two sequential steps: regulating and__. ## Footnote a. reporting b. moving c. operating d. organizing

Answer 43

b.moving

Question 44

45. The CONUS reception aerial port. is responsible for coordinating ## Footnote a. JPMRC b. EMEDS c. TPMRC-A d. aerial port

Answer 44

c. TPMRC-A

Question 45

46. In the AE system, a medical attendant is classified as a: ## Footnote a. 2A b. 3B c. 6A d. 7A

Answer 45

c. 6A

Question 46

47.__ is the precedence used for stable patients capable of waiting up to 72 hours for evacuation on the next scheduled mission. ## Footnote a. routine b. ASAP c. urgent d. priority

Answer 46

a. routine

Question 47

48. What is the form number for the Aeromedical evacuation patient record? ## Footnote a. AF Form 210 b. DD Form 2766 c. AF Form 3899 d. AF Form 560

Answer 47

c. AF Form 3899

Question 48

49. Class_ patients, or litter patients, are required to be on litters when they move. ## Footnote a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 7

Answer 48

a. 2

Question 49

50. __at locations where RONs (remaining over night) occur are responsible for the care of patients and securing medical records and narcotics during the stop. ## Footnote a. MTF commanders b. attending physician c. TPMRC d. Flight nurse

Answer 49

a. MTF commanders

Question 50

51. True or False. The Integrated Disability Evaluation System is a DOD program that exists to help the Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps determine whether wounded, ill, or injured service members are able to continue to serve.

Answer 50

a. True

Question 51

52. A __ is a condition or occurrence that may indicate a member has a health condition that is inconsistent with retention standards or deployability. ## Footnote a. profile condition b. defect c. trigger event d. accident

Answer 51

c. trigger event

Question 52

53. True or False. An assignment availability code is both a medical and personnelist code.

Answer 52

b. false

Question 53

54. What is the correct form number for the Duty Limiting Condition Report? ## Footnote a.AF Form 3766 b. AF Form 469 c. AF Form 910 d. AF Form 2766

Answer 53

b. AF Form 469

Question 54

55. The __ is responsible for obtaining, assembling, and forwarding all documents and records required by the PEB. ## Footnote a. MTF commander b. MSC C. MEB clerk d. PEBLO

Answer 54

d. PEBLO

Question 55

56. __ are assigned to members whose medical conditions are expected to result in their separation from active duty. ## Footnote a. federal recovery coordinator b. case manager c. attending physician d. wounded warrior representative

Answer 55

a. federal recovery coordinator

Question 56

57. The purpose of the __ is to ensure individuals selected and retained are emotionally stable and physically capable, and have demonstrated reliability and professional competence to perform duties with nuclear weapons or to provide presidential support. ## Footnote a. Mental Health Services flight b. Nuclear Assurance Program c. Sensitive Duty Program . d. Safe Military Program

Answer 56

c. Sensitive Duty Program

Question 57

58. Category_ personnel assigned on a permanent or full-time basis to duties in support of the president or vice president (to include all individuals under his or her control). ## Footnote a. 1 b. 2 c. A d. B

Answer 57

b. 2

Question 58

59. The Category __ discrepancy reporting program tracks and manages high priority and mission affecting processes and programs. ## Footnote a. I b. III c. IV d. VI

Answer 58

a. I (one)

Question 59

60. When a person is NOT reliable, what type of PRP disqualification will they get? ## Footnote a. suspension b. temporary c. permanent d. fatal

Answer 59

c. permanent

Question 60

61. True or False. An operating budget account number is a four-position alpha or numeric control code identifying fund accounts to which operation and maintenance and military funds are authorized.

Answer 60

a. true

Question 61

62. True or False. The fourth quarter runs from 1 January through 31 March.

Answer 61

b. false

Question 62

63. The is the HIGHEST level of accounting. ## Footnote a. summary account b. sub-account c. MAJCOM account d. functional account code

Answer 62

d. functional account code

Question 63

64. __ collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and/or supplies. ## Footnote a. sub-accounts b. cost pools c. ambulatory care centers d. summary accounts

Answer 63

b. cost pools

Question 64

65. __ are expenses charged directly to a FCC work center. ## Footnote a. direct expenses b. step-down expenses c. critical expenses d. medical expenses

Answer 64

a. direct expenses

Question 65

66. The __ field shows the grade that the military can provide for the position. ## Footnote a. required grade b. AFSC c. NCO d. funded grade

Answer 65

d. funded grade

Question 66

67. True or False. The UPMR is a by name personnel roster reflecting authorized position number, AFSC, authorized grade, FAC, and PAS.

Answer 66

a. true

Question 67

68. True or False. Not all people who become a member of the armed forces incur a military service obligation.

Answer 67

b. false

Question 68

69. __ is an authorized absence granted to members who are under medical or dental care as part of the treatment prescribed for recuperation. ## Footnote a. emergency leave b. leave enroute c. convalescent leave d. terminal leave

Answer 68

c. convalescent leave

Question 69

70. _ awards are for military units that distinguish themselves during peacetime or in action against hostile forces or an armed enemy of the United States. ## Footnote a. unit b. valor c. defense d. achievement

Answer 69

a. unit

Question 70

71. The _listing contains a list of Airmen projected to the unit. ## Footnote a. newcomer's b. personnel c. alpha roster d. gains

Answer 70

d. gains

Question 71

72. What is the form number for the AB - TSgt performance report? ## Footnote a. AF Form 77 b. AF Form 910 c. AF Form 911 d. AF Form 707

Answer 71

b. AF Form 910

Question 72

73. What is the form number for the Letter of Evaluation (LOE) sheet? ## Footnote a. AF Form 77 b. AF Form 910 c. AF Form 911 d. AF Form 707

Answer 72

a. AF Form 77

Question 73

74. True or False. Air Force manuals (AFMAN) are not usually extensions of instructions, providing additional guidance for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs.

Answer 73

b. false

Question 74

75. Periodical mail consists of __ and periodical publications issued regularly and on a continuing basis. ## Footnote a. junk mail b. first class mail c. large envelopes d. newspapers

Answer 74

d. newspapers

Question 75

76. Who has been designated the authority to order, receive, and sign for medical supplies and equipment material? ## Footnote a. logistics technician b. property custodians c. NCOIC, Supply d. First Sergeant

Answer 75

b. property custodians

Question 76

77. True or False. The overall goal of forward logistics is to develop a proactive logistics function that is responsive to customer needs.

Answer 76

a. true

Question 77

78. When you assume custodial responsibility, the base __ provides you with a custodian receipt/location list (CR/LL) showing all property charged to the custodian's account. ## Footnote a. Commander b. Property custodian c. PEBLO d. MEMO

Answer 77

d. MEMO

Question 78

79. True or False. The purpose of the CR/LL is to indicate each specific item for which a custodian is responsible.

Answer 78

a. true

Question 79

80. On the issue and turn-in summary report, section A includes: ## Footnote a. Issues b. Issue reversal c. Turn-in d. Turn-in reversal

Answer 79

a. Issues