1
Q
77,Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India,”1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions. 2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the state. 3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the state. 4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
A
77,c,1, 2 and 3,”Constitution reads as follow “Nothing in this Article of sub-clause(g) of clause (1) of Article 19 shall prevent the state from making any special provision, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in so far as such special provision related to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by state, other than minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.” Hence, all statements except statement 4 are correct.”
2
Q
78,Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes,”1. Rights of transgenders 2. Rights of craniopagus twins 3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3”
A
78,d,1, 2 and 3,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law. This right has been held to be the heart of the Constitution, the most organic and progressive provision in our living Constitution, the foundation of our laws. Article 21 secures two rights: ● Right to life ● Right to personal liberty Thus, Article 21 covers the rights of transgenders, craniopagus twins, and rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
3
Q
79,Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?,”(a) NG Ayyangar (b) KM Munshi (c) BN Rau (d) Muhammad Saadullah”,(c) BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.
A
79,c,BN Rau,”BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.”
4
Q
80,Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by,”(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 317”,(b) The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safe guards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.
A
80,b,Article 311,”The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safeguards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.”
5
Q
81,A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is,”(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition”,(b) The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
A
81,b,Habeas Corpus,”The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.”
6
Q
82,Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?,”(a) Constitutional Amendment (b) CAG Report (c) Annual Financial Statement (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any state”,(
A
A Bill to alter the boundaries of any State (option 4) can also be introduced in the Rajya Sabha because it is a legislative proposal to modify the boundaries of a state. However, the Annual Financial Statement (option 3) cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha.
7
Q
83,The National Commission for Women was created by,”(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India (b) a decision of the Union Cabinet (c) an Act passed by the Parliament (d) an order of the President of India”,(c) The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
A
83,c,an Act passed by the Parliament,”The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.”
8
Q
84,Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?,”(a) M Hidayatullah (b) A S Anand (c) A M Ahmadi (d) P N Bhagwati”,(d) PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, alongwith Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.
A
84,d,P N Bhagwati,”PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, along with Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.”
9
Q
85,Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen (b) The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India (c) It is not enforceable by any Court (d) It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country”,(
A
A
10
Q
86,Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the states concerning the exercise of their powers. (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments. (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.”,(d) The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.
A
86,d,If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.,”The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.”
11
Q
- Which of the following statement(s) about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct? 1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India. 4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.,(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
A
87,c,1 and 3,”The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon, aiming to abolish racial prejudice from the Indian Penal Code. It proposed to allow Indian judges and magistrates the jurisdiction to try British offenders in criminal cases at the District level. This proposal led to intense opposition from Britain’s European subjects in India, as well as from British residents in India. Although initially withdrawn due to opposition, it was later reintroduced and enacted in 1884 with several amendments. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
12
Q
- Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan : 1. It was drafted under the leadership of KN Raj. 2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector. 3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult. 4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.,(a) Only 1 (b 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
A
88,c,2 and 3,”The Second Five-Year Plan was drafted under the leadership of PC Mahalanobis, not KN Raj. It focused on heavy industries and followed a socialist pattern of society. While it proposed the development of industries like electricity, railways, steel, machinery, and communication in the public sector, it faced difficulties in balancing industry and agriculture, which made it challenging. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thus, options (c) is correct.”
13
Q
- To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should 1. have a functional toilet at home 2. have payment slips of power bills 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
A
89,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, barred several categories of people from contesting Panchayat elections. These included those charged in criminal cases with certain punishments, defaulters on agriculture loans and electricity bills, and those without the minimum educational qualification or a functional toilet at home. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
14
Q
- Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting : 1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The Eleventh Finance Commission 3. Punchhi Commission 4. Sarkaria Commission, (a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
A
90,a,4, 2, 1, 3,”The chronological order of the mentioned Commissions is as follows: 1. Sarkaria Commission (June 1983) 2. Eleventh Finance Commission (3rd July 1998) 3. Second Administrative Reforms Commission (5th August 2005) 4. Punchhi Commission (April 2007) Hence, option (a) is correct.”
15
Q
- Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct? 1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. 2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. 3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. 4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
A
91,c,1, 2 and 4,”In India, all seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from territorial constituencies within the Panchayat area. The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. However, Panchayats do not work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. The State Legislature may endow them with powers and authority necessary for their functioning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
16
Q
- Which of the following statement(s) regarding Indian federal system is/are correct? 1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries. 3. There is no dual citizenship in India.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
A
92,b,2 and 3,”In the Indian federal system, all States do not have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Representation is based on population, with each state having varying numbers of representatives. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries, and there is no provision for dual citizenship in India; there is only Indian citizenship. Hence, options (b) is correct.”
17
Q
- Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India? 1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more states. 2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts. 3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. 4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
A
93,a,1, 2, 3 and 4,”The Supreme Court of India has various powers, including original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, hearing appeals from High Courts, and passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. It does not, however, render advice to the President of India in matters of law. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
18
Q
- The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focused on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness? 1. Poverty 2. Group inequality 3. Regional imbalance 4. Unemployment,(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
A
94,a,1, 3 and 4,”The Twelfth Five-Year Plan in India focused on inclusive growth, aiming for sustainable development and equitable distribution of wealth. Challenges for inclusiveness included poverty, regional imbalance, and unemployment. Group inequality was not specifically mentioned as a challenge for inclusiveness. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
19
Q
- Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan. 2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general. 3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years. 4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
A
95,c,1, 2 and 4,”The Saakshar Bharat scheme, launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan, aimed to raise literacy rates and bridge gender gaps in education. It specifically targeted women and disadvantaged groups and was anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government. However, the scheme applied to persons above the age of 15, not 10. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
20
Q
- Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct? 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him. 3. The Supreme Command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
A
96,a,1, 2 and 3,”The President of India holds various powers under the Constitution. The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to them. Additionally, the President has supreme command over the defense forces of the Union. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
21
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding Article-21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period. 2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right. 3. Under Article-21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
A
97,b,1 and 2,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. It is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained indefinitely, and it asserts that not even the State has the authority to violate this right. However, the right to make reproductive choices is considered a dimension of personal liberty under Article 21. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (b) is correct.”
22
Q
- Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India? 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years. 2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure. 3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
A
98,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. It mandates qualified teachers and basic infrastructure in schools and advocates for quality education without discrimination. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
23
Q
- Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct? (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities (b) Every religion or any section there of shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property (c) Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes (d) Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, (a) (b) (c) (d)
A
99,a,(a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities,”Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is not limited to some minor communities; it applies to all religious denominations. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
24
Q
- Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article-22 is not correct? (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest. (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice. (c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest. (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order., (a) (b) (c) (d)
A
100,c,(c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.,”Article 22 of the Indian Constitution states that every person arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, not one week. Hence, option (c) is not correct.”
25
101. Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration? (a) Copyright (b) Patent (c) Industrial design (d) Trademark, (a) (b) (c) (d)
101,a,(a) Copyright,"Copyright is automatically protected upon the creation of a work and does not require registration for protection. While registration provides additional benefits, such as prima facie evidence in court, it is not necessary for copyright protection to exist. Hence, option (a) is correct."
26
102,The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of,(a) non-discrimination between nations (b) discrimination between nations (c) differential treatment between locals and foreigners (d) uniform tariff across commodities
102,a,(a) non-discrimination between nations,"The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under the WTO regime is based on the principle of non-discrimination between nations. It ensures that countries treat their trading partners equally and do not discriminate in granting trade advantages. Hence, option (a) is correct."
27
103,The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following?,(a) Captain of the Indian Army (b) Group Captain in the Indian Airforce (c) Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army (d) Wing Commander of the Indian Airforce
103,b,(b) Group Captain in the Indian Airforce,"In the Indian Navy, the rank of Captain is equivalent to the rank of Group Captain in the Indian Air Force. Hence, option (b) is correct."
28
104,Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Airforce?,(a) It has bases in many friendly countries. (b) It does not carry out joint exercises with any country. (c) It has a separate Maintenance Command. (d) No officer has ever been elevated to the rank Marshal of the Indian Airforce.
104,c,(c) It has a separate Maintenance Command.,"The Indian Air Force has a separate Maintenance Command, which is responsible for maintenance and upkeep of aircraft and equipment. Hence, option (c) is correct."
29
105,Statement I The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate. Statement II Dr. BR Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.,(c)
105,c,(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false,"The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes to be elected by a joint electorate, not separate. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar did not withdraw from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked. Hence, option (c) is correct."
30
106,Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct?,(a) The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with MC Rajah as its first elected President. (b) The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. BR Ambedkar in 1926. (c) Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930. (d) The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.,(c)
D
31
107,Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?,(a) It clamoured for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non-Brahmins as had been granted to the Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms. (b) It was patronised mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins. (c) It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. (d) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.,(d)
107,d,(d) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.,"The Justice Party did not support the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920. Hence, option (d) is correct."
32
108,Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?,(a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve its language, script or culture. (b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language. (c) The State shall, in granting aid educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community. (d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.,(c)
108,c,(c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.,"The State shall not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community. Hence, option (c) is correct."
33
109,Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?,(a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court. (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country. (c) It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws. (d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.,(d)
109,d,(d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.,"The Directive Principles of State Policy are not directed towards making India an advanced capitalist country. They aim to establish social and economic democracy. Hence, option (d) is correct."
34
110,Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice-President of India?,(a) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament. (b) The Vice-President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. (c) The Vice-President shall not be a member of either house of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State. (d) The Vice-President of India shall be ex-officio chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit.,(a)
110,a,(a) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.,"The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament, including both elected and nominated members. Hence, option (a) is not correct."
35
111,Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice-President of India?,(a) The Supreme Court of India (b) The Election Commission of India (c) The Parliamentary Committee (d) The High Court of Delhi,(a)
111,a,(a) The Supreme Court of India,"In case of doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President and Vice-President of India, the Supreme Court of India is the constitutional authority that inquires and decides. Hence, option (a) is correct."
36
112,The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to 1. the power of judicial review. 2. the judgement in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). 3. the constraints on Article-368 of the Constitution of India. 4. the judgement in Golaknath case (1967). Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these,(a)
112,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,"The basic structure doctrine, as enunciated by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), relates to the power of judicial review, constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution, and the idea that certain basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament. Hence, option (a) is correct."
37
113,Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? 1. Article-19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article-21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article-15 (Prohibition of discrimination) 4. Article-16 (Equality of opportunity) Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4,(c)
113,c,(c) 1, 3 and 4,"Fundamental rights enshrined in Articles 15, 16, and 19 of the Constitution of India apply only to citizens, not to all individuals. Hence, option (c) is correct."
38
114,A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1. renounces Indian citizenship. 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. 3. marries a citizen of another country. 4. criticises the government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4,(c)
114,c,(c) 1 and 2,"Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, a citizen of India can lose their citizenship if they renounce Indian citizenship or voluntarily acquire the citizenship of another country. Marrying a citizen of another country does not automatically result in loss of Indian citizenship. Hence, option (c) is correct."
39
115,Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?,(a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused (b) The accused must have violated an existing law (c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again (d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence,(a)
115,a,(a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused,"Confessions can be used as evidence against the accused under certain conditions. Hence, option (a) is not correct."
40
116,Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article-32 of the Constitution of India?,(a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights (b) It is a part of fundamental rights (c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article-32 on the ground of delay (d) Protection under Article-32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights,(d)
116,d,(d) Protection under Article-32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights,"Protection under Article 32 applies only to the enforcement of fundamental rights, not ordinary laws. Hence, option (d) is incorrect."
41
117,Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?,(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto,(a)
117,a,(a) Habeas Corpus,"The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest. Hence, option (a) is correct."
42
118,According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?,(a) To respect the National Flag (b) To defend the country (c) To provide education to one’s child (d) To promote village and cottage industries DPSP,(d)
118,d,(d) To promote village and cottage industries DPSP,"Promotion of village and cottage industries is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not a Fundamental Duty. Hence, option (d) is correct."
43
119,Under Article-352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared, if security of any part of India is threatened by 1. war 2. external aggression 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2,(a)
119,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,"Under Article-352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if the security of any part of India is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Hence, option (a) is correct."
44
120,Which one of the following statements is not true of the protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?,(a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence (b) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation (c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship (d) The Act includes not just wives, but also women in marriage-like relationships,(b)
120,b,(b) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation,"Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, both women and men can file complaints. Hence, option (b) is not true."
45
121,Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?,(a) The Chief of Army Staff (b) The Chief of Naval Staff (c) The Chief of Air Staff (d) The member who has been longest on the Committee,(c)
121,c,(c) The Chief of Air Staff,"The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee is the Chief of Air Staff. Hence, option (c) is correct."
46
122,Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is,(a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army (b) a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles (c) the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir (d) a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs,(a)
122,a,(a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army,"The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct."
47
123,Which one of the following is correct?,(a) Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment (b) Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers (c) Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps (d) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence,(a)
123,a,(a) The Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment,"The Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment of the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct."
48
124,Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of the Indian Army?,(a) South-Western Command (b) North-Eastern Command (c) Central Command (d) Army Training Command (ARTRAC),(b)
124,b,(b) North-Eastern Command,"The North-Eastern Command is not one of the commands of the Indian Army. Hence, option (b) is correct."
49
125,Which one of the following statements is correct?,(a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished (b) The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal (c) All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the Indian Navy (d) The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General,(a)
125,a,(a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished,"The rank of Second Lieutenant is no longer in use in the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct."
50
126,Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system?,(a) Akash (b) Trishul (c) Tatra (d) Astra,(c)
126,c,(c) Tatra,"Tatra is not an Air Defence Missile system; it is a Czech manufacturer producing vehicles. Hence, option (c) is correct."
51
127,The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of,(a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve (b) 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve (c) 20 aircrafts with no reserve (d) 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve,(a)
127,a,(a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve,"The first Tejas squadron of the Indian Air Force consists of 20 aircraft with 4 in reserve. Hence, option (a) is correct."
52
128,Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India? 1. Article-17 of the Constitution of India. 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. 3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these,(d)
128,d,(d) All of these,"Article-17 of the Constitution of India, The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, and The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India. Hence, option (d) is correct."
53
129,Which one of the following is not the powers of the Supreme Court?,(a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes (b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India (c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order (d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people,(d)
129,d,(d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people,"The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto, to protect the fundamental rights of the people. Hence, option (d) is correct."
54
130,The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?,(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram (c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura (d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh,(a)
130,a,(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram,"The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Hence, option (a) is correct."
55
131,Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?,(a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 (b) The acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution (c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure (d) The appropriate legislature can repeal or amend an act specified in the Ninth Schedule,(b)
131,b,(b) The acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution,"The Ninth Schedule provides immunity to acts and regulations included in it from judicial review. Hence, option (b) is not correct."
56
132,Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct? 1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced. 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India. 4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 4,(a)
132,a,(a) Only 3,"The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are not made by the Election Commission of India but by a Delimitation Commission. Hence, option (a) is incorrect."
57
133,Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?,(a) The Union and every State Government shall consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes (b) All the reports of the commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha (c) The commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court (d) The commission has the power to regulate its own procedures,(b)
133,b,(b) All the reports of the commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha,"The reports and recommendations of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are laid before both Houses of Parliament. Hence, option (b) is not correct."
58
134,The right to form associations and unions is a right,(a) guaranteed to everybody (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only (c) to equality before law (d) to life and personal liberty,(b)
134,b,(b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only,"The right to form associations and unions is a freedom guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution of India. Hence, option (b) is correct."
59
135,Some Indian territories were transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure? (a) By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh (b) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India (c) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament (d) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by 16 State Legislatures,(c)
135,c,(c) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament,"The territories were transferred to Bangladesh by amending the First Schedule to the Constitution of India through the exercise of amending power by Parliament. Hence, option (c) is correct."
60
136,Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article-395 of the Constitution of India? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 4. The Government of India Act, 1919 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these,(a)
136,a,(a) 1 and 2,"Article-395 of the Constitution of India repealed the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935. Hence, option (a) is correct."
61
137,On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect? 1. Citizenship 2. Elections 3. Provisional Parliament 4. Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2,(b)
137,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,"On 26th November 1949, the provisions relating to citizenship, elections, and the provisional Parliament came into effect. Hence, option (b) is correct."
62
138,Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct? 1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. 3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation. 4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3,(d)
138,d,(d) 1 and 3,"The Constituent Assembly was indirectly elected, and the scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Mission, not the Mountbatten Plan. Hence, option (d) is correct."
63
139,Which of the following is/are constitutional body/bodies? 1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 2. National Commission for Women 3. National Commission for Minorities 4. National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,(a)
139,a,(a) Only 1,"National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body. The other bodies mentioned are statutory bodies. Hence, option (a) is correct."
64
140,Consider the following statements 1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,(d)
140,d,(d) Neither 1 nor 2,"The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The President does not have the power to appoint or remove the Speaker. The Speaker can delegate functions to the Deputy Speaker during absence or illness. Hence, option (d) is correct."
65
141,The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with,(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System (c) creating an ombudsman mechanism for reduction of corruption in public life (d) devising new measures for urban governance and management
141,a,(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance,"The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was tasked with suggesting reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance. Hence, option (a) is correct."
66
142,As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order 1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority. 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try. 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
142,a,(a) 1 and 2,"The Writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction. Hence, option (a) is correct."
67
143,Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence? 1. Morarji Desai 2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh 3. HD Deve Gowda 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
143,a,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4,"Morarji Desai, Vishwanath Pratap Singh, HD Deve Gowda, and Atal Bihari Vajpayee were all Prime Ministers of India who faced a vote of No Confidence. Hence, option (a) is correct."
68
144,Which of the following statement(s) regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct? 1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250. 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories. 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
144,a,(a) 1 and 2,"The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories. Hence, option (a) is correct."
69
145,Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct? 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases. 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session. 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency. 4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
145,b,(b) 1 and 4,"The President has the power to grant pardon and to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community. The President cannot dissolve the Rajya Sabha during an emergency. Hence, option (b) is correct."
70
146,Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article-44 of the Constitution of India. 2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court. 3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set-up under the Constitution of India in 1950. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
146,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,"Article 44 of the Constitution of India sets forth the ideal of a common civil code. The High Courts have been given extensive powers in certain respects, and the Supreme Court of India was established in 1950 under the Constitution. Hence, option (a) is correct."
71
147,Which of the following statement(s) about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is/are correct? 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years term. 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. 4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
147,a,(a) 1, 2 and 4,"The CAG holds office for a period of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. The CAG can be removed by the President on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Hence, option (a) is correct."
72
148,In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down? (a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980) (b) Gopalanachari Vs State of Kerala (1980) (c) Dr. Upendra Baxi Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1983) (d) Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979)
148,a,(a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980),"The 'rarest of rare' principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down in the Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab case in 1980. Hence, option (a) is correct."
73
149,Consider the following statements about the President of India: 1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. 2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
149,d,(d) 1, 2 and 3,"All three statements are correct regarding the President's powers and interactions with the Council of Ministers. Hence, option (d) is correct."
74
150,In which one of the following cases, the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India? (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum (b) Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India (c) Mary Roy Vs State of Kerala (d) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India
150,b,(b) Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India,"The constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India in the case of Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India. Hence, option (b) is correct."
75
151,Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is/are correct? 1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in Clauses (4) and (5) of Article-22 of Constitution of India. 2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed. 3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the Magistrate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
151,b,(b) Only 2,"In India, the detenue has the right to challenge the detention order on specific grounds, such as being already in jail when the detention order was passed. Hence, only statement 2 is true."
76
152,A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the member (a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected (b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House (c) joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate (d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party
152,b,(b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House,"A Member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if expelled by the political party from which they were elected. Hence, option (b) is correct."
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985) provided for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. The grounds of disqualification are:
A) if an elected member voluntarily give up his membership
B) if he votes or abstains from voting without the permission of the party
C) when an independent member joins a political party
D) when a nominated member of a house joins a political party after six months from the date on which he takes his seat.
77
153,Which one of the following languages is not recognised in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India? (a) English (b) Sanskrit (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
153,a,(a) English,"English is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India. Hence, option (a) is correct."
78
154,The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year (a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2003
154,d,(d) 2003,"The category of 'Overseas Citizens of India' was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year 2003. Hence, option (d) is correct."
79
155,The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005 (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
155,a,(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002,"The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002. Hence, option (a) is correct."
80
156,Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article 343 of the Constitution of India? 1. Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the national language of the Union. 2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. 3. English language shall continue to be used for official purposes within states. 4. If two or more states agree, Hindi language should be the official language of communication between the states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
156,a,(a) 1, 3 and 4,"Article 343 of the Constitution of India establishes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, but it does not declare it as the national language. English continues to be used for official purposes within states, and the use of Hindi as the official language of communication between states is subject to agreement. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are not central features of Article 343. Hence, option (a) is correct."
81
157,After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is (a) elected by the Lok Sabha (b) appointed by the President of India (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (d) the seniormost member of the Lok Sabha
157,b,(b) appointed by the President of India,"After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is appointed by the President of India. Hence, option (b) is correct."
82
158,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Leader) List ll (Party) A. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 1. Communist Party of India B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party Codes A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
158,a,(a) 2 3 1 4,"The correct matching of leaders with their parties is: A - Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Bharatiya Jana Sangh, B - Minoo Masani - Swatantra Party, C - SA Dange - Communist Party of India, D - Ashok Mehta - Praja Socialist Party. Hence, option (a) is correct."
83
159,Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion. 2. Gives official status to certain religions. 3. Provides freedom to profess any religion. 4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
159,d,(d) Only 2,"The Constitution of India does not give official status to any religion. Instead, it prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, provides freedom to profess any religion, and ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities. Therefore, only statement 2 is not a central tenet of the Constitution. Hence, option (d) is correct."
84
160,Who is the current Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog? (a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Arvind Panagariya (c) Bibek Debroy (d) VK Saraswat
160,b,(b) Arvind Panagariya,"Arvind Panagariya served as the first Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog. Hence, option (b) is correct."
85
161,Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to 1. public order, morality and health. 2. a law providing for social welfare and reform. 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus. 4. defamation or incitement to an offence. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
161,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,"Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to public order, morality, and health, a law providing for social welfare and reform, and opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Hence, option (b) is correct."
86
162,Which of the following Fundamental Right(s) is/are available to non-citizens? 1. Equality Before Law 2. Right Against Discrimination 3. Equality of Opportunity 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
162,b,(b) 1 and 4,"Non-citizens in India have the Fundamental Rights of Equality Before Law (Article 14) and Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21). Hence, option (b) is correct."
87
163,Which of the following statement(s) about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct? 1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the basis of the Provincial Elections of 1946. 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the princely states. 3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public. 4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
163,a,(a) Only 1,"The members of the Constituent Assembly were indeed chosen on the basis of the Provincial Elections of 1946. However, the Constituent Assembly did include representatives of the princely states. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were influenced by opinions expressed by the public, and submissions were solicited from the public to create a sense of collective participation. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct."
88
164,Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947. 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949. 4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
164,d,(d) 1, 2 and 4,"The Constitution of India repealed the Government of India Act, 1935, and the Indian Independence Act, 1947. Additionally, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was also repealed. Therefore, all the laws mentioned in the options have been repealed by the Constitution of India. Hence, option (d) is correct."
89
165,A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be issued 1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in contravention of the procedure established by law. 2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a criminal charge. 3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of court or the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2
165,c,(c) Only 1,"The writ of Habeas Corpus is not issued where the detention is lawful, where the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, or where the detention is under an order of a competent court. Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is correct."
90
166,Which one of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015? (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the Overseas Citizens of India cardholders (b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India (c) The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at par with the Overseas Citizens of India (d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to life long visa to visit India
166,b,(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India,"The Amendment in 2015 did not grant voting rights to Non-Resident Indians. Therefore, option (b) is not correct."
91
167,Which one of the following statements about electoral government in India is not correct? (a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections are vested in the Election Commission of India (b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency (c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies (d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinise the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies
167,d,(d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinise the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies,"The Supreme Court of India does not have the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies. Therefore, option (d) is not correct."
92
168,The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are developed jointly with 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited. 2. Bharat Electronics Limited. 3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited. 4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
168,b,(b) 2 and 3,"The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are developed jointly by Bharat Electronics Limited and Electronics Corporation of India Limited. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited are not involved in the development of EVMs. Hence, option (b) is correct."
93
169,The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to 1. implementation of Directive Principles. 2. Fundamental Duties. 3. Right to Equality. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
169,c,(c) Only 1,"Freedom of thought and expression is subject to the implementation of Directive Principles, which includes ensuring the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, public order, and other interests. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct."
94
170,Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual peace’? (a) Republican constitutionalism (b) Federal contract among states to abolish war (c) World government (d) Transformation of individual consciousness
170,d,(d) Transformation of individual consciousness,"Immanuel Kant's theory of 'perpetual peace' includes Republican constitutionalism, federal contract among states to abolish war, and world government. However, it does not include the transformation of individual consciousness. Hence, option (d) is correct."
95
171,Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament to make new states is not correct? (a) The Parliament may by law form a new state and alter the boundaries or names of existing states (b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except on the recommendation of the President (c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the legislature of the affected state (d) Such a law will fall under the Provision of Article 368
171,d,(d) Such a law will fall under the Provision of Article 368,"The process of Parliament to make new states falls under Article 3 of the Constitution and not Article 368. Therefore, option (d) is not correct."
96
172,Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. 2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
172,c,(c) Both 1 and 2,"Both statements are correct. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state are not considered citizens of India, and the Parliament has the power to make provisions with respect to citizenship. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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173,The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to 1. an enemy alien. 2. a person detained under a preventive detention law. 3. a foreigner. 4. an overseas citizen of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
173,a,(a) 1 and 2,"Article 22 of the Constitution of India does not provide protection against arrest and detention to an enemy alien or a person detained under a preventive detention law. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are correct. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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174,In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article-13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights? (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case (b) Golaknath Case (c) Minerva Mills Case (d) Maneka Gandhi Case
174,b,(b) Golaknath Case,"In the Golaknath case, the Supreme Court ruled that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights."
99
175,Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in 1951. 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review. 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The laws in the 9th Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3
175,a,(a) 1 and 2,"The 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India was indeed inserted by the First Amendment in 1951. It includes laws that were initially beyond the purview of judicial review, although this was changed later. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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176,Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned? (a) Members of the armed forces (b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communications systems set-up in the country (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set-up for maintenance of public order
176,a,(a) Members of the armed forces,"Members of the armed forces have certain restrictions on their Fundamental Rights, unlike members of other specified forces. Therefore, they are not treated at par in terms of the availability of Fundamental Rights. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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177,Which of the following is not true about the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)? (a) It defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets-up an agenda for national action (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the United Nations (c) It commits States to undertake measures to end discrimination in their legal system (d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice
177,d,(d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice,"India is a ratifying country of the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) and is legally bound to put its provisions into practice. Therefore, option (d) is not true about CEDAW."
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178,The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule? (a) Asom (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
178,b,(b) Manipur,"The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution covers the states of Asom, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, but not Manipur. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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179,Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (a) India does not have a Chief of Defence Staff (b) India does not have a Permanent Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chief of the Defence Staff (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who does not function as Chief of the Defense Staff
179,c,(c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chief of the Defence Staff,"India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee, who does not function as Chief of Defence Staff. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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180,Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of (a) National Security Council Secretariat (b) Assam Rifles (c) Border Road Development Board (d) Border Road Organisation
180,d,(d) Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, information can be provided in respect of various organizations and departments. Among the options given, the correct answer is option 'D' - Border Road Organisation (BRO). Here's an explanation of why the information can be provided under the RTI Act for BRO: 1. Background: The RTI Act, 2005 is an important legislation that empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities. It promotes transparency, accountability, and participation in governance. It applies to all central, state, and local government bodies, as well as private organizations that receive government funding or perform public functions. 2. Border Road Organisation (BRO): The Border Road Organisation (BRO) is a premier organization under the Ministry of Defence, responsible for the construction, maintenance, and upgradation of roads in border areas of India. It plays a crucial role in ensuring connectivity to remote regions, including those near the international borders. 3. Public Authority: The RTI Act defines a "public authority" as any authority or body that is established or constituted by or under the Constitution of India, by any law made by Parliament or the state legislature, or by a notification issued by the appropriate government. The BRO falls under the category of a public authority as it is established by the central government and operates under the Ministry of Defence. 4. Obligation to Provide Information: As a public authority, the BRO is obligated to provide information to citizens seeking it under the RTI Act. The Act allows citizens to seek information in the form of records, documents, memos, emails, opinions, advice, etc., held by a public authority. 5. Exceptions: While the RTI Act ensures the right to information, it also recognizes certain exemptions where information can be withheld. These exemptions include matters related to national security, defense, and strategic interests of the country. However, these exemptions are subject to a public interest test, and information can be disclosed if it outweighs the harm or injury caused to the protected interests. 6. National Security: Although the National Security Council Secretariat (option A) and Assam Rifles (option B) are also related to national security, it does not mean that information cannot be provided under the RTI Act for these organizations. The correct answer for this question is option D because the BRO is specifically mentioned as an organization for which information can be provided under the RTI Act. However, it is important to note that information related to national security may be subject to specific restrictions and scrutiny. In conclusion, under the RTI Act, 2005, information can be provided in respect of the Border Road Organisation (BRO) as it is a public authority established by the central government. While certain exemptions exist for matters related to national security, the Act ensures transparency and accountability in governance by allowing citizens to seek information from public authorities.
Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/2849178/Information-under-the-RTI-Act--2005-can-be-provided-in-respect-ofa-National-Security-Council-Secreta
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181,Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee? (a) The President of India in his capacity as the Commander-in-Chief (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Defence Minister (d) The seniormost Chief of Staff
181,d,(d) The seniormost Chief of Staff,"The senior-most Chief of Staff acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Therefore, option (d) is correct."
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182,Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a Court Martial (b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelled to do hard work as this would amount to violation of Article-23 of the Constitution of India (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers of the High Courts under Article-226 of the Constitution of India in relation to service matters of persons in the armed forces
182,b,(b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law,"The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, but the exercise of this command has to be regulated by law. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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183,Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the Panchsheel? (a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity (b) Mutual non-aggression (c) Mutual support for each other in world forum (d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
183,c,(c) Mutual support for each other in world forum,"Mutual support for each other in world forum is not one of the laid down principles of the Panchsheel. Hence, option (c) is correct."
Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty,
Mutual non-aggression
Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs,
Equality and mutual benefit
Peaceful co-existence
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184,Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The Central Government is empowered to issue a notification to specify any service in a state as a service of vital importance to the community (b) Such a notification remains valid for 6th months (c) Every command given by a superior officer casts a duty on all persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command when such a notification is in force (d) The provision of the Armed Forces (Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are applicable in connection with vital services imposed in a emergency on the armed forces
184,b,(b) Such a notification remains valid for 6 months,"Such a notification specifying a service as a service of vital importance to the community remains valid for 1 month in the first instance but may be extended from time-to-time by a hike notification. Hence, option (b) is not correct."
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185,Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? 1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons on India Origin (PIO), who are citizens of another country. 2. It gives Persons of Indian origin (PIO), who are citizens of another country, are OCI card without citizenship. 3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 4. It allows the OCI to travel to Indian without visa. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4
185,b,(b) 1 and 3,"The OCI does not grant dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO). Also, OCI holders are not permitted to vote in general elections in India. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are not true for OCI. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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186,Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct? 1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland. 2. A person taken into custody under the above Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest police station with least possible delay. 3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under the above Act only when the State Government is of the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous condition in the concerned area. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
186,c,(c) Only 3,"The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, can be applicable to various states and Union Territories, not just Manipur, Tripura, and Nagaland. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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187,The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the (a) President of India (b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet (c) Election Commission of India (d) Parliament
187,c,(c) Election Commission of India,"The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the Election Commission of India. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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188,A Parliamentary Democracy is one where 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place. 2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives. 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
188,b,(b) 2 and 3,"In a parliamentary democracy, the government is responsible to the elected representatives, and parliamentarians act on behalf of their constituents. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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189,When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in respect of which one of the following matters? (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance of order in the area where martial law in force (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial law was in force in the area (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law
189,d,(d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law,"Article 34 of the Indian Constitution provides that any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law. Hence, option (d) is correct."
Alert - correct answer should be: When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make a law to validate any act done under martial law.
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190,Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System? (a) Dual citizenship (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments (c) Supremacy of the Constitution (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
190,a,(a) Dual citizenship,"Dual citizenship is not found in the Indian Political System. India follows the concept of single citizenship. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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191,Which of the following is not true of Article-32 of the Indian Constitution? (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right (c) Dr Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian Constitution’ (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article-32 where a Fundamental Right has not been violated
191,a,(a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights,"Article 32 of the Indian Constitution indeed gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Therefore, option (a) is incorrect."
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192,Consider the following statements about local government in India : 1. Article-40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to make them function as units of self-government. 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part-IX and IX A in the Constitution. 3. The provisions in Part-IX and IX A of Indian Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous. 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all States irrespective of size of population. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
192,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,"All the statements are correct regarding local government in India. Article 40 of the Indian Constitution provides for the State to organize village panchayats, and the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part-IX and IX A in the Constitution, which are more or less parallel and analogous. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is indeed applicable to all States irrespective of the size of the population. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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193,Consider the following statements about State Election Commission : 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction and control of election to the panchayats. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
193,b,(b) 1 and 2,"The State Election Commissioner is indeed appointed by the Governor, and the State Election Commission does have the power to prepare electoral rolls, as well as the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to the panchayats. The Commissioner cannot be removed from office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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194,Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct? (a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States. (b) The organisation of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State. (c) Every State in India has separate High Court. (d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side.
194,c,(c) Every State in India has a separate High Court,"While the Indian judiciary indeed does not have a double system of courts like in the United States, it's incorrect to say that every State in India has a separate High Court. For instance, the Guwahati High Court has jurisdiction over several states. Therefore, option (c) is incorrect."
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195,Consider the following statements about world’s first Modern Slavery Bill, published in June, 2014 by the British House of Commons : 1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the 21st century. 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders up to 14 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
195,c,(c) Both 1 and 2,"Both statements are correct regarding the world's first Modern Slavery Bill published by the British House of Commons in June 2014. It is indeed the first bill of its kind in Europe and one of the first globally, and it fixes the maximum sentence for serious offenders at 14 years to life imprisonment. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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196,Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are correct? 1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States. 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonisation would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations. 3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
196,c,(c) 1, 2 and 3,"All the statements are correct about the principles of Panchsheel. These principles govern relations between states, and they were indeed based on the assumption that newly independent states would develop a new approach to international relations. The first formal codification of these principles was in an agreement between China and India. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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197,Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required? (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of alternation of areas of existing states (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which states are interested
197,a,(a) For the introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters,"Recommendation of the President is not required for the introduction of Bills and moving amendments relating to financial matters. However, it's required for other cases mentioned in options (b), (c), and (d). Hence, option (a) is correct."
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198,‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr BR Ambedkar (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) Acharya J B Kriplan
198,b,(b) Dr BR Ambedkar,"The passage is indeed from the Constituent Assembly debates and is attributed to Dr. BR Ambedkar. He emphasized the democratic nature of the Constitution and its machinery for the governance of the country. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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199,Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. 3. It is being notified by the President. 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
199,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,"The Joint Session of the Parliament is indeed an enabling provision to resolve deadlock between the two Houses, and it's not obligatory for the President to summon such a session. However, it's not notified by the President, and it's not frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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200,Consider the following statements about democracy 1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people. 2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. 3. Each vote has one value. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
200,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,"All the statements are correct regarding democracy. It involves the formation of government elected by the people, those in power have a fair chance of losing, and each vote has equal value. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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201,Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct? (a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees (c) The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years (d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women
201,d,(d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for women,"The correct statement regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is that it reports on the working of welfare programmes for women. The other options are incorrect. Hence, option (d) is correct."
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202,Match the following List I (Person) List II (Role in making of the Constitution of India)
A. Rajendra Prasad 1. Member, Drafting Committee
B. T T Krishanamachari 2. Chairman, Constituent Assembly
C. HC Mukherjee 3. Chairman, Drafting Committee
D. BR Ambedkar 4. Vice Chairman, Constituent Assembly Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
202,a,(a) 2 1 4 3,"The correct matching of persons to their roles in making the Constitution of India is: A - Rajendra Prasad - Chairman, Constituent Assembly; B - T T Krishnamachari - Member, Drafting Committee; C - HC Mukherjee - Vice Chairman, Constituent Assembly; D - BR Ambedkar - Chairman, Drafting Committee. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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203,Consider the following statements 1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India. 2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Co-operative Societies in Tamil Nadu do not come under the RTI Act. Following the decisions of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in (2013) 16 SCC 82 in the matter of Thalappalam Service Cooperative Bank Limited vs.
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204,The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List. 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
204,d,(d) All of these,"The legislative power of the Parliament indeed includes making laws on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List, in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable, and for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List. Hence, option (d) is correct."
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205,Which of the following statement(s) in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct? 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People. 2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
205,a,(a) Only 1,"The correct statement regarding the structure of the Parliament is that it consists of the President, the Council of States, and the House of the People. The President of India is indeed directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Hence, option (a) is correct."
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206,There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annual the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include 1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states). 2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states). 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
206,a,(a) 1 and 2,"The provisions in the Constitution of India empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions without actually amending them include any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states) and any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states). Hence, option (a) is correct."
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207,The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the (a) Speaker may direct (b) President of India may direct (c) Parliament may decide (d) Finance Minister may decide
207,b,(b) President of India may direct,"The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the President of India may direct. Hence, option (b) is correct."
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208,Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognising a parliamentary party or group? 1. An association of members who have an organisation both inside and outside the House. 2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House. 3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
208,c,(c) 1 and 3,"While recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the Speaker indeed takes into consideration an association of members who have an organization both inside and outside the House and who have a distinct program of parliamentary work. However, it's not necessary that such an association must have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House. Hence, option (c) is correct."
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209,Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946? (a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on the democratic principle of population strength (b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States (c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were to be Indians (d) British Government was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly
209,d,All the given statements except (d) are true.,Cabinet Mission was sent in February 1946 to India by the Atlee Government (British PM). The cabinet mission aim was to discuss the transfer of power from British to Indian leadership. Proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946 were as follows (a) The unity of India had to be retained (b) It proposed a very loose union of all the Indian. territories under a centre that would countrol merely defence, the foreign affairs and the communication. (c) The Princely legislative would then elect a constituent assembly. Each province being allotted a specified number of seats propertionate to its population. (d) The proposed constituent assembly was to consist of 292 member from British India and 93 from Indian states.
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210,After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may (a) assent within six months (b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible (c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill (d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses
210,c,return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill,The President can accept or with hold his assent to a Bill or he can return a Bill, other than a Money Bill. If President gives his assent the Bill becomes an act.
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211,Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950. 2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
211,c,1,2 and 3,The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice-Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. He/She is elected from amongst the member. Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha acquired a more prominent position after 1950. The election of Deputy speaker shall be held. On the such data as the speaker may fix and the secretary-General shall send notice of this data to every member of Lok Sabha. Deputy speaker acts as the presiding offier in case of leave or absence of speaker of the Lok Sabha. He holds the office till either he ceases to be member of the Lok Sabha or resigns himself.
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212,The citizenship means 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state. 3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
212,b,1 and 3,In Part II of Constitution under Article 5-11, citizenship clause has been explained. Full civil and political rights are entitled to the citizen of India. Also they are entitled to be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature. But one has to also satisfy the age limit criterion in order to be an MP or MLA.
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213,The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for 1. the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India. 2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. 3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
213,c,1 and 2,Public Accounts is fund accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. The committee on Public Accounts was first constituted in 1921 under the act of 1919. It is constituted by Parliament each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation as sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India. Apart from the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on appropriation accounts of the Union Government, the committee also examines the various audit reports of Comptroller and Auditor General on revenue receipts, expenditure by various ministries/ Department of Government and accounts of autonomous bodies.
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214,The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that 1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister. 2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister. 3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
214,d,2 and 3,Statement 1 is wrong since no confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. On the other hand, censure motion can be moved against either individual minister or the whole council. Statement 2 and 3 are right. According to Dr.Ambedkar,“Collective responsibility can be achieved only through the instrumentality of the Prime Minister. Therefore, unless and until we create that office and endow that office with statutory authority to nominate and dismiss ministers, there can be no collective responsibility.”
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215,Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct? 1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President. 2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
215,b,Only 2,The Comptroller of the Constitution of India audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments. The CAG is mentioned in the Constitution of India under Article 148 – 151. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by the President of India following a recommendation by the Prime Minister. Report of CAG of Union Accounts is submitted to President which causes them to laid before each house of Parliament. Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
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216,The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control. 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
216,a,Only 1,The Departmental Committee of Parliament of India on welfare of SC/ST examines whether Union Government has secured due representation of SC/ST in services and posts under it. It has no obligation to report on the working of welfare programmes for SC/ST.
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217,The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government. 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
217,a,Only 1,An adjournment motion may be introduced in the House for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is directly related to the matters of the conduct of Union Government. But the question of failure of government to perform constitutional duties cannot be raised through an adjournment motion.
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218,Political theory 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions. 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice. 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
218,d,All of these,Political theory deals with ideas that shape Constitution, clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice and probes the significance of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review. All the statements are true.
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219,The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to 1. report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected. 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
219,c,1, 2 and 3,The first estimates committee in the post-independence was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, Finance Minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its members was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. (1), (2) and (3) are the functions of the committee on estimates, while (4) is the function of committee on public undertakings.
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1,Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income? (a) Personal Income - Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc. (b) Private Income - Saving of Private Corporate Sectors - Corporation Tax (c) Private Income - Taxes (d) Total expenditure of households - Income Tax gifts received
1,a,Personal Income - Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc.,Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc.
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2,The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to which one of the following? (a) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply (b) Determination of the inflation rate in the economy (c) Determination of the economy’s propensity to consume (d) Determination of the economy’s full employment output
2,a,The interplay of the forces of demand and supply,Free market is an economic system based on supply and demand with little or no government control. It depends on the interplay of the forces of demand and supply.
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3,Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of the following? (a) Controlling inflation (b) Nominal GDP estimation (c) Measurement of savings rate (d) Fixing of wage compensation
3,a,Controlling inflation,Indexation is a method or technique used by organizations or government to control inflation by connecting prices and asset value to inflation.
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4,Which one of the following statements regarding sex composition is not correct? (a) In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as number of males per thousand females. (b) In India, sex ratio is expressed as number of females per thousands males. (c) At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100 females. (d) In Asia, there is high sex ratio.
4,d,In Asia, there is high sex ratio.,In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as number of males per thousand females. Whereas, in India, it is expressed as number of females per thousand males. At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100 females. Europe has the highest sex ratio in the world, whereas Asia has the lowest.
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5,Who among the following has given the concept of Human Development? (a) Amartya Sen (b) Mahbub-ul-Haq (c) Sukhamoy Chakravarty (d) GS Chaddha
5,b,Mahbub-ul-Haq,The concept of Human Development was developed by economist Mahbub-ul-Haq.
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6,What do you mean by ‘Demographic Dividend’? (a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population (b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of educational institutions in different parts of the country (c) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to the growth of alternative livelihood practices (d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of a country due to government policies
6,a,A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population,‘Demographic Dividend’ means a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population.
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7,Which one of the following statements with regard to economic models is not correct? (a) They involve simplification of complex processes (b) They represent the whole or a part of a theory (c) They can be expressed only through equations (d) They help in gaining an insight into cause and effect
7,c,They can be expressed only through equations,Economic model is a theoretical construct representing economic processes by a set of variables and a set of logical relationships between them. This can be expressed through equations, models, etc.
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8,The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is (a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) infinity
8,b,negative,In a market equilibrium, whenever the price of a commodity rises, the demand of commodity declines, in the same way when prices fall, demand increases. So, demand and prices have a negative relationship with each other. Therefore, the value of the slope of a normal demand curve is negative.
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9,Which one of the following is an example of a price floor? (a) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India (b) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers (c) Price paid by people to buy goods from ration shops (d) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the covers/packets of goods sold in India
9,a,Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India,A price floor is a minimum price. MSP for Jowar in India or minimum wage are examples of price floors.
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10,Which one of the following factors is not considered in determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India? (a) Cost of production (b) Price trends in international and domestic markets (c) Cost of living index (d) Inter-crop price parity
10,c,Cost of living index,In formulating Minimum Supports Price (MSP), the Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices (CACP) considers various factors but not the cost of living index.
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11,Which one of the following is not a dimension of the Human Development Index (HDI)? (a) A long and healthy life (b) Knowledge (c) Access to banking and other financial provisions (d) A decent standard of living
11,c,Access to banking and other financial provisions,Human development index (HDI) measures a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. Access to banking and other financial provisions is not considered in HDI.
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12,Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with which one of the following measurements in an economy? (a) Rate of inflation (b) Poverty index (c) Income inequality (d) Personal income
12,c,Income inequality,Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio is used to measure income or wealth distribution of a nation’s residents and most commonly used to measure income inequality.
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13,Which one of the following countries is not a founding member of the New Development Bank? (a) Brazil (b) Canada (c) Russia (d) India
13,b,Canada,New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS States (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa). Canada is not a member of BRICS.
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14,The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in (a) Colombo (b) Islamabad (c) Kathmandu (d) Dhaka
14,d,Dhaka,The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in Dhaka on 8th December, 1985.
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15,Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero (b) When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative (c) When total utility is increasing marginal utility is positive (d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average utility are equal to each other
Total utility - It is total psychological satisfaction which a consumer derives from the consumption of a commodity is known as total utility Marginal utility - It is an addition made in total utility by consuming and additional unit of a commodity is known as a marginal utility. When marginal utility is positive, total utility increases When marginal utility is zero, total utility is at maximum When marginal utility is negative, total utility decrease
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16,Consider the following statements about indifference curves. 1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin. 2. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction. 3. Two indifference curves cut each other. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
16,b,1 and 2,An indifference curve is a locus of combinations of goods which derive the same level of satisfaction so that the consumer is indifferent to any of the combination he consumes. Hence statement (1) is correct. Higher indifference curve means higher level of satisfaction as higher indifference curve consists of more of two goods or the same quantity of one good and more quantity of the other good. Hence statement (2) is correct. Also, two indifference curves cannot cut each other. Thus, statement (3) is incorrect.
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17,Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company. 1. It has a legal existence. 2. There is limited liability of shareholders. 3. It has a democratic management. 4. It has a collective ownership. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17,d,1, 2, 3, and 4,A joint-stock company has legal existence, limited liability of shareholders, democratic management, and collective ownership.
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18,When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is (a) horizontal (b) downward sloping to the right (c) vertical (d) upward sloping to the right
18,d,upward sloping to the right,When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount regardless of price, the supply curve is upward sloping to the right.
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19,‘Sub-prime crisis’ is a term associated with which one of the following events? (a) Economic recession (b) Political instability (c) Structural adjustment programmes (d) Growing social inequality
19,a,Economic recession,The 'Sub-prime crisis' refers to the economic recession that took place in the USA from 2007 to 2010.
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20,A market situation when many firms sell similar, but not identical products is termed as (a) perfect competition (b) imperfect competition (c) monopolistic competition (d) oligopoly
20,c,monopolistic competition,Monopolistic competition is a market situation where many firms sell similar but not identical products.
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21,Consider the following statements. 1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18. 2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21,c,Both 1 and 2,Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18, and there was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period.
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22,Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual’s consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual? (a) Absolute Income Hypothesis (b) Relative Income Hypothesis (c) Life-Cycle Hypothesis (d) Permanent Income Hypothesis
22,c,Life-Cycle Hypothesis,The Life-Cycle Hypothesis postulates that individual consumption depends on resources available, rate of return on capital, and age.
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23,According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon (a) aggregate demand (b) aggregate supply (c) effective demand (d) rate of interest
23,c,effective demand,According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends on effective demand.
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24,Which one among the following is the most populated state in India as per Census 2011? (a) Goa (b) Mizoram (c) Meghalaya (d) Sikkim
24,c,Uttar Pradesh,Uttar Pradesh is the most populated state in India as per Census 2011.
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25,EK Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the (a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
25,d,Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change,The EK Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
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26,Which one among the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith? (a) Canon of equality (b) Canon of certainty (c) Canon of convenience (d) Canon of fiscal adequacy
26,d,Canon of fiscal adequacy,Adam Smith advocated the canons of equality, certainty, convenience, and economy, but not the canon of fiscal adequacy.
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27,As per Census 2011, the concentration of Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste population to total population of the State) is the highest in the state of (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal
27,c,Punjab,Punjab has the highest concentration of Scheduled Caste population according to Census 2011.
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28,Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of states with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)? (a) Tamil Nadu–Mizoram–Goa– Maharashtra (b) Goa–Mizoram–Maharashtra–Kerala (c) Maharashtra–Kerala–Mizoram–Goa (d) Mizoram–Goa–Maharashtra–Kerala
28,c,Maharashtra–Kerala–Mizoram–Goa,The correct ascending sequence of states with regard to percentage of urban population (2011) is Maharashtra–Kerala–Mizoram–Goa.
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29,According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on state finances, capital spending is maximum on (a) rural development (b) water supply and sanitation (c) urban development (d) education
29,c,urban development,According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on state finances, capital spending was maximum on urban development.
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30,The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the states 1. Income distance 2. Population 3. Demographic changes 4. Area Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights. (a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,4,3 (c) 1,3,2,4 (d) 4,3,2,1
30,b,1, 2, 4, 3,The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned weights to income distance, population, area, and demographic change for distribution of tax proceeds to states.
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31,The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by (a) Milton Friedman (b) A W Phillips (c) J M Keynes (d) R G Lipsey
31,a,Milton Friedman,The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by Milton Friedman.
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32,Statement I Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India. Statement II Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
32,b,Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India, and universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country.
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33,SWAYAM is (a) a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs towards global excellence (b) a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform (c) an empowerment scheme for advancing the participation of girls in education (d) a scheme that supports differently abled children to pursue technical education
33,b,a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform,SWAYAM is a Massive Online Open Courses (MOOC) programme initiated by Government of India.
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34,Statement I There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016. Statement II There has been a fall in household and public savings. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
34,c,Statement I is true, but statement II is false,There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016, and there has been a fall in household and public savings.
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35,Consider the following statements about impact of tax. 1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply. 2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35,c,Both 1 and 2,According to the impact of tax, a tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply, and a tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.
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36,According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to (a) improve (b) diminish (c) remain constant (d) first diminish and then improve
36,b,diminish,According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to diminish.
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37,Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct? (a) It is a marketable security (b) It experiences price changes throughout the day (c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares (d) An ETF does not have its Net Assest Value calculated once at the end of every day
37,c,It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares,An ETF typically has higher daily liquidity and lower fees than mutual fund shares.
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38,Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector? (a) 55 yr (b) 60 yr (c) 65 yr (d) 70 yr
38,c,65 yr,The maximum age of joining NPS-Private Sector is 65 years.
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39,Which of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct? (a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs (b) It is a scheme for crop protection (c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society (d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor
39,a,It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs,"Niryat Bandhu Scheme" is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
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40,The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools? 1. Bank rate 2. Open market operations 3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of the above
40,a,1 and 2,Monetary policy in India uses bank rate and open market operations as tools.
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41,Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of (a) domestic goods remain constant (b) exports become cheaper to importers (c) imports remain constant (d) exports rise proportionality
41,b,exports become cheaper to importers,Devaluation of currency is more beneficial if prices of exports become cheaper to importers.
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42,In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to (a) 2007-08 (b) 2008-09 (c) 2010-11 (d) 2011-12
42,d,2011-12,The base year of the new GDP series in India has been shifted from 2004-05 to 2011-12.
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43,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Type of Deficit) List II (Explanation)
A. Fiscal Deficit 1. Total Expenditure- Revenue Receipts and Non-debt Capital Receipts
B. Revenue Deficit 2. Revenue Expenditure- Revenue Receipts C. Effective Revenue Deficit 3. Revenue Deficit- Grants for Creation of Capital Assets
4. D. Primary Deficit 4. Fiscal Deficit- Interest Payments Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
43,a,1 2 3 4,Fiscal Deficit, Revenue Deficit, Effective Revenue Deficit, and Primary Deficit are explained as given in List II.
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44,Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of states in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission? (a) Population (b) Income distance (c) Area (d) Tax effort
44,b,Income distance,Income distance got the highest weight for determination of shares of states in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission.
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45,A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
45,a,Two,A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for two weeks.
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46,UBI, as an alternative for substance in poverty alleviation, stands for (a) Union Basic Income (b) Undefined Basic Income (c) Unconditional Basic Income (d) Universal Basic Income
46,d,Universal Basic Income,UBI stands for Universal Basic Income, which is a form of social security providing all citizens with a regular, unconditional sum of money.
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47,‘Pragati scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for (a) higher education of girls (b) technical education of girls (c) secondary education of girls (d) elementary education of girls
47,b,technical education of girls,"Pragati scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for providing assistance for Advancement of Girls participation in Technical Education."
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48,Which one of the following is not a feature of the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)? (a) It focuses on community participation (b) It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament (c) It aims at creating infrastructure for the village (d) A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat
48,b,It is to be guided by a Member of Parliament,Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) is not guided by a Member of Parliament.
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49,Which one of the following statements is correct? For the purpose of census-2011. (a) a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate (b) a person aged eight and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate (c) a person aged nine and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate (d) a person aged ten and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as a literate
49,a,a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate,"For the purpose of census-2011, a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate."
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50,‘Rand/ZAR’ is the currency of (a) Burundi (b) Libya (c) Sudan (d) South Africa
50,d,South Africa,Rand/ZAR is the currency of South Africa.
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51,Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government? (a) Corporate tax receipts (b) Dividends and profits (c) Disinvestment receipts (d) Interest receipts
51,c,Disinvestment receipts,Disinvestment receipts are not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government.
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52,TRIPS agreement pertains to (a) international tariff regime (b) intellectual property protection (c) international practices on trade facilitation (d) international taxation of property
52,b,intellectual property protection,The TRIPS agreement pertains to intellectual property protection.
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53,The 7.6% growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on (a) Gross National Product at market prices (b) Gross Value Added at constant prices (c) Gross Domestic Product at market prices (d) Gross Domestic Product at constant prices
53,d,Gross Domestic Product at constant prices,The 7.6% growth rate registered by the Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on Gross Domestic Product at constant prices.
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54,Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct? 1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015. 2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40% of global GDP. 3. India is a founder member of TPP. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
54,b,1 and 2,"The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40% of global GDP."
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55,Which of the following statement(s) about Bitcoin is/are correct? 1. It is a decentralised virtual currency. 2. It is generated through complex computer software systems. 3. The Reserve Bank of India recognised it as a legal tender in January, 2016. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
55,b,1 and 2,"Bitcoin is a decentralised virtual currency and is generated through complex computer software systems."
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56,Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to measure the rate of inflation in India? (a) NASDAQ Index (b) BSE Index (c) Consumer Price Index (d) Wholesale Price Index
56,c,Consumer Price Index,The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) now uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to measure the rate of inflation in India.
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57,Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India is not a (a) gross value tax (b) value-added tax (c) consumption tax (d) destination-based tax
57,a,gross value tax,The Goods and Services Tax (GST) likely to be levied in India is not a gross value tax.
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58,Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to (a) Monetary Economics (b) Welfare Economics (c) Environmental Economics (d) Development Economics
58,b,Welfare Economics,"Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to welfare economics in 1998."
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59,Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)? (a) Its Headquarters is located in Kathmandu (b) China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC (c) The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka (d) The Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in Nepal
59,b,China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC,"China is not the only country with an Observer status in SAARC."
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60,The All India Census was 1. first attempted in 1872. 2. regularly undertaken since 1881. 3. always undertaken as a five-years exercise. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
60,c,1 and 2,"The All India Census was first attempted in 1872 and regularly undertaken since 1881."
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61,According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of states in decreasing order of their total size of population? (a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab (b) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab (c) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam (d) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam
61,a,Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab,"According to Census 2011, the correct sequence of states in decreasing order of their total size of population is Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab."
205
62,According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the State of full employment are (a) purely temporary in nature (b) permanent in nature (c) imaginary situations (d) normal situations
62,a,purely temporary in nature,"According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the State of full employment are purely temporary in nature."
206
63,Capital deepening refers to (a) going for more fixed capital per worker (b) emphasis on social overhead capital (c) constant capital-output ratio (d) increasing capital-output ratio
63,d,increasing capital-output ratio,"Capital deepening refers to increasing the capital-output ratio."
207
64,The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at (a) Singapore (b) Manila (c) Bangkok (d) Hong Kong
64,c,Bangkok,"The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located in Bangkok."
208
65,Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct? (a) The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day’s business (b) The ratio of bank’s total deposits and total liabilities (c) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks (d) The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market
65,c,A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks,"A bank run is a panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks."
209
66,Which of the following will be the outcome, if an economy is under the inflationary pressure? 1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation. 2. Exports become less competitive imports become costlier. 3. Cost of borrowing decreases. 4. Bondholders get benefitted and the creditor is at loss. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
1 and 3
210
67,Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the composition of national income in India? (a) The share of manufacturing sector has declined (b) The share of services sector has increased sharply (c) The share of agriculture has remained static (d) The share of services sector has declined
67,b,The share of services sector has increased sharply,"With respect to the composition of national income in India, the share of the services sector has increased sharply."
211
68,In India, the term ‘Hot money’ is used to refer to (a) Currency + Reserves with the RBI (b) Net GDR (c) Net Foreign Direct Investment (d) Foreign Portfolio Investment
68,d,Foreign Portfolio Investment,"In India, the term ‘Hot money’ is used to refer to Foreign Portfolio Investment."
212
69,Which of the following is/are credit rating agency/agencies in India? (a) CRISIL (b) CARE (c) ICRA (d) All of these
69,d,All of these,"CRISIL, CARE, and ICRA are credit rating agencies in India."
213
70,Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation? (a) Fourth Plan (1969-74) (b) Fifth Plan (1974-79) (c) Sixth Plan (1980-85) (d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)
70,a,Fourth Plan (1969-74),"The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation."
214
71,Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to Phillips Curve? 1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation. 2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run. 3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment (NAIRU). Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
71,c,1 and 2,"Phillips Curve shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation. It is generally held to be valid only in the short run. In the long run, the Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment (NAIRU)."
215
72,Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union? (a) Belarus (b) Russia (c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan
72,d,Uzbekistan,"Uzbekistan is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union."
216
73,BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in (a) New Delhi, India (2012) (b) Durban, South Africa (2013) (c) Fortaleza, Brazil (2014) (d) Ufa, Russia (2015)
73,c,Fortaleza, Brazil (2014),"BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014."
217
74,Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of (a) Regional Rural Banks (b) Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited (MUDRA) (c) Small Industries Development Bank of India (d) Industrial Development Bank of India
74,b,Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited (MUDRA),"Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun are the schemes of Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited (MUDRA)."
218
75,Which of the following statements are true with respect to the concept of EFFICIENCY as used in mainstream economics? 1. Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganisation of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off. 2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). 3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). 4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resource allocation’. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75,d,1, 2, 3 and 4,"All the statements are true with respect to the concept of EFFICIENCY as used in mainstream economics."
219
76,Which one of the following nations has faced severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan? (a) China (b) Greece (c) Ireland (d) Belgium
76,b,Greece,"Greece faced severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan."
220
77,Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’? (a) Electricity (b) National Defence (c) Light House (d) Public Parks
77,a,Electricity,"Electricity is not considered a public good as it is excludable; one can be excluded from its use if payment is not made."
Examples of public goods are education, infrastructure, lighthouses, flood control systems, knowledge, fresh air, national security, official statistics, etc. Electricity is not a public good, it's a private good.
221
78,Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61)? (a) Rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries (b) Large expansion of employment opportunities (c) Achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power
78,c,Achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports,"The Second Five Year Plan aimed at rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries, large expansion of employment opportunities, and reduction of inequalities in income and wealth."
222
79,Which of the following is/are the example(s) of Transfer Payment(s)? 1. Unemployment allowance 2. Payment of salary 3. Social security payments 4. Old age pension Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of these
79,c,1, 3 and 4,"Transfer payments include unemployment allowance, social security payments, and old age pension."
223
80,Which of the following statements with regard to UID/Aadhar Card are correct? 1. It is a 12-digit unique form of identification for all residents of India. 2. It is an identity number along with the biometric information of the individuals. 3. It is a national identity and citizenship card. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
80,b,1 and 2,"UID/Aadhar Card is a 12-digit unique identification number along with the biometric information of individuals. However, it is not a national identity and citizenship card."
224
81,Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by (a) WTO (b) World Bank (c) UNDP (d) IMF
81,c,UNDP,"The Human Development Report (HDR) at the global level is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)."
225
82,Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan? (a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017 (b) 100% girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020 (c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act 2012 (d) Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilise communities to improve CSR and promote girls’ education
82,b,100% girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020,"The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan's monitorable targets do not include achieving 100% girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020."
226
83,The National Policy for Children 2013 recognises every person as a child below the age of (a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
83,d,18 years,"The National Policy for Children recognises every person below the age of 18 years as a child."
227
84,Which of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)? (a) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions (b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems (c) Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education (d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher education institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations
84,a,Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions,"Improving the overall quality of private educational institutions is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)."
228
85,Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’? 1. Treasury Bill 2. Credit Card 3. Savings accounts and small time deposits. 4. Retail money market mutual funds. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
85,d,1, 3 and 4,"'Near Money' refers to highly liquid assets that can easily be converted into cash. Treasury bills, savings accounts and small time deposits, and retail money market mutual funds are examples of near money."
229
86,Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction? (a) Dumping (b) Hedging (c) Discounting (d) Deflating
86,b,Hedging,"Hedging is a technique used in economics to avoid risk by making counteracting transactions."
230
87,Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should relate to their income or wealth. 2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from government programmes. 3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families. 4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87,c,1, 2 and 4,"The ability to pay principle and the benefit principle are both correct. However, statement 3 is incorrect because a progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from rich families than it does from poor families."
231
88,Which of the following statement(s) is/are false? 1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and independent members. 2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature. 3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
88,b,Only 2,"Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all other wage boards are non-statutory in nature. Therefore, statement 2 is false."
232
89,Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in 1. development of high-yielding crops 2. modernisation of irrigation infrastructure 3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
89,a,Only 1,"Norman Borlaug won the Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions to the development of high-yielding crops, particularly the high-yielding wheat variety, which led to the Green Revolution."
233
90,Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month of August, 2015?,"(a) Maldives; (b) Fiji; (c) Sri Lanka; (d) Singapore"
90,c,Sri Lanka,"Sri Lanka went for Parliamentary elections in August 2015."
234
91,Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined,"(a) predominantly by market mechanism; (b) by the Central Bank; (c) as a weighted index of a group of currencies; (d) by the World Trade Organisation"
91,a,Predominantly by market mechanism,"Under a flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined predominantly by market mechanism."
235
92,A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any provision dealing with,"1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. 2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties. 4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered. Select the correct answer using the codes given below","(a) 1 and 2; (b) 1, 3 and 4; (c) 1, 2 and 3; (d) Only 2"
92,a,1 and 2,"A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains provisions dealing with the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax, and the appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India."
236
93,Which one of the following is not a part of service sector in India?,"(a) Transport; (b) Construction; (c) Hotels and restaurants; (d) Insurance"
93,b,Construction,"Construction is not a part of the service sector in India. Activities in the service sector include transport, hotels and restaurants, and insurance."
237
94,Which one of the following is not correct in the context of industrial clusters development in India?,"(a) Industrial clusters play an important role for the MSME participants in their inclusiveness, technology absorption and efficiency improvement; (b) Industrial clusters are visible in traditional handloom, handicrafts and modern SMC; (c) Industrial cluster programmes in India are administered by various ministries; (d) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of monopoly in the market"
94,d,Industrial clusters lead to promotion of monopoly in the market,"Industrial clusters development in India aims to enhance inclusiveness, technology absorption, and efficiency improvement among MSME participants. They do not lead to the promotion of monopoly in the market."
238
95,Private investment in Indian agriculture is mostly on labour saving mechanisation. This could be a response to,"(a) rising productivity of agricultural sector; (b) rising inequality in agriculture; (c) rising wages and tighter labour market; (d) debt write-off by the government"
95,c,Rising wages and tighter labour market,"Private investment in Indian agriculture, focusing on labour-saving mechanization, could be a response to rising wages and a tighter labour market."
239
96,Which one of the following is not a recommendation of the 14th Finance Commission?,"(a) Share of states in Central Divisible Pool is increased from 32%-42%; (b) Area under forest cover is an important variable in distribution of states’ share among states; (c) Fiscal discipline is dropped as a variable in distribution of states’ share among states; (d) Sector-specific grant is recommended as in the previous Finance Commissions"
96,d,Sector-specific grant is recommended as in the previous Finance Commissions,"The 14th Finance Commission recommended various measures, but it did not recommend sector-specific grants as in previous Finance Commissions."
240
97,Which of the following statements with regard to New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank is/are correct?,"1. The headquarters of the bank is situated at Moscow, Russia. 2. KV Kamath is the first President of the bank. Select the correct answer using the codes given below","(a) Only 1; (b) Only 2; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2"
97,b,Only 2,"KV Kamath, from India, is the first President of the New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank. The headquarters of the bank is in Shanghai, China."
241
98,Which of the following factors led to a decline in inflation rate in India during 2014-15?,"1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices. 2. Softness in global prices of tradables such as edible oils and coal. 3. Tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve Bank of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below","(a) Only 1; (b) 1 and 2; (c) 2 and 3; (d) 1, 2 and 3"
98,d,1, 2 and 3,"Factors that led to a decline in inflation rate in India during 2014-15 include a persistent decline in crude oil prices, softness in global prices of tradables such as edible oils and coal, and a tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve Bank of India."
242
99,Which one of the following statements about the Companies Act, 2013 is not correct?,"(a) The Act regulates the corporate sector to make it accountable; (b) It provides for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR); (c) It provides more opportunities for new entrepreneurs; (d) It enables wide application of information technology"
99,c,It provides more opportunities for new entrepreneurs,"The Companies Act, 2013, regulates the corporate sector to make it accountable, provides for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), and enables wide application of information technology. However, it does not specifically mention providing more opportunities for new entrepreneurs."
243
100,Which one of the following is an example of a ‘natural monopoly’?,"(a) Indian Airlines; (b) Delhi Jal Board; (c) Delhi Transport Corporation; (d) Steel Authority of India Limited"
100,b,Delhi Jal Board,"A natural monopoly typically refers to public utilities such as water services, natural gas, and electricity. Delhi Jal Board, responsible for water supply in Delhi, is an example of a natural monopoly."
244
101,What is meant by ‘Price discrimination’?,"(a) Increase in price of a commodity over time; (b) A situation where the same product is sold to different consumers for different prices; (c) Subsidisation of a product by the government to sell it at a lower price; (d) General decrease in price of a commodity over time"
101,b,A situation where the same product is sold to different consumers for different prices,"Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that charges customers different prices for the same product or service."
245
102,What is meant by ‘Public Good’?,"(a) A commodity produced by government; (b) A commodity whose benefits are indivisibly spread among the entire community; (c) A government scheme that benefits the poor households; (d) Any commodity that is very popular among general public"
102,b,A commodity whose benefits are indivisibly spread among the entire community,"A public good is a commodity whose benefits are indivisibly spread among the entire community, such as national defense, sewer systems, and public parks."
246
103,Which one of the following statements with regard to India’s economy between 1814-1860 is not correct?,"(a) Between 1814 and 1850, four commodities dominated India’s exports— raw silk, opium, cotton and indigo; (b) Between 1814 and 1860, five commodities dominated India’s exports— raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo and jute; (c) Indigo and raw silk required processing techniques; (d) Indigo and raw silk were financed by foreign capital"
103,b,Between 1814 and 1860, five commodities dominated India’s exports— raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo and jute,"India's economy between 1814-1860 was dominated by five commodities in exports: raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo, and jute, not four as in option (b)."
247
104,In view of the fact that kerosene is an inferior good in India, what is/are its implication(s)?,"1. As households get richer, they consume less kerosene. 2. Over time there is a decline in quality of kerosene. 3. Government needs to stop subsidies on kerosene. Select the correct answer using the codes given below","(a) Only 1; (b) 1 and 2; (c) 2 and 3; (d) 1, 2 and 3"
104,a,As households get richer, they consume less kerosene,"Kerosene is an inferior good, meaning that as households get richer, they consume less of it."
248
105,Which one of the following is the major source of Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) for the Government of India?,"(a) Income tax; (b) Corporation tax; (c) Customs duty; (d) Service tax"
105,b,Corporation tax,"Corporation tax is the major source of Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) for the Government of India."
249
106,Which one of the following represents a progressive tax structure?,"(a) Tax rate is the same across all incomes; (b) Tax rate increases as income increases; (c) Tax rate decreases as income increases; (d) Each household pays equal amount of tax"
106,b,Tax rate increases as income increases,"A progressive tax structure is one in which the tax rate increases as income increases."
250
107,‘Weibo’ is a social media platform, popularly used in,"(a) South Korea; (b) China; (c) Thailand; (d) Japan"
107,b,China,"Weibo is a social media platform popularly used in China."
251
108,Which one of the following is not provided regular budgetary support by the Ministry of Defence?,"(a) Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, Darjeeling; (b) Institute for Defence Studies and Analysis, New Delhi; (c) Armed Forces Tribunal; (d) United Service Institution of India, New Delhi"
108,d,United Service Institution of India, New Delhi,"United Service Institution of India, New Delhi, is not provided regular budgetary support by the Ministry of Defence."
252
109,In April 2015, India and France agreed to conclude an inter-governmental agreement in respect of which one of the following platforms?,"(a) Rafale medium multirole combat aircraft; (b) Scorpene submarines; (c) Infantry mobility vehicles; (d) Precision guided munitions system"
109,a,Rafale medium multirole combat aircraft,"In April 2015, India and France agreed to conclude an inter-governmental agreement for the supply of the Rafale medium multirole combat aircraft."
253
110,Where was the 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue) held in May 2015?,"(a) Beijing; (b) Bangkok; (c) Jakarta; (d) Singapore"
110,d,Singapore,"The 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue) was held in May 2015 in Singapore."
254
111,Which of the following are members of BRICS?,"(a) Bhutan, Russia, India, China and Sri Lanka; (b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa; (c) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Singapore; (d) Bangladesh, Republic of Korea, Indonesia, Canada and Sri Lanka"
111,b,Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa,"BRICS consists of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa."
255
112,The ‘Panchsheel Agreement’ for peaceful co-existence was signed between,"(a) India and Bhutan; (b) India and Nepal; (c) India and China; (d) India and Pakistan"
112,c,India and China,"The 'Panchsheel Agreement' for peaceful co-existence was signed between India and China."
256
113,Which one of the following is not a member of MERCOSUR (Southern Common Market)?,"(a) Argentina; (b) Paraguay; (c) Uruguay; (d) Chile"
113,d,Chile,"Chile is not a member of MERCOSUR (Southern Common Market)."
257
114,When two goods are completely interchangeable, they are,"(a) perfect substitutes; (b) perfect complements; (c) Giffen goods; (d) Veblen goods"
114,a,perfect substitutes,"When two goods are completely interchangeable, they are considered perfect substitutes."
258
115,Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists,List I (Industry),List II (Location),Codes (A B C D A B C D),"(a) Railway equipment; (b) Automobile; (c) Ship-building; (d) Bicycle","1. Cochin; 2. Ludhiana; 3. Bhilai; 4. Jabalpur","3 4 1 2"
115,a,3 4 1 2,"Railway Equipment is located in Bhilai, Automobile industry in Jabalpur, Ship-building in Cochin, and Bicycle industry in Ludhiana."
259
116,Consider the following statements with regard to the First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (2015):,"1. This is a follow-up to the ‘Make in India’ initiative. 2. The central theme of the meet is to attract large scale investments in the renewable energy sector in India.",(a) Only 1; (b) Only 2; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2
116,c,Both 1 and 2,"The First Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (2015) is a follow-up to the 'Make in India' initiative and aims to attract large-scale investments in the renewable energy sector in India."
260
117,Rise in the price of a commodity means,"(a) rise in the value of currency only; (b) fall in the value of currency only; (c) rise in the value of commodity only; (d) fall in the value of currency and rise in the value of commodity"
117,d,fall in the value of currency and rise in the value of commodity,"A rise in the price of a commodity means a fall in the value of currency and a rise in the value of the commodity."
261
118,Which of the following statements with regard to the proposed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is/are correct?,"1. India is one of the founding members of the bank. 2. The bank is to be headquartered in Shanghai.",(a) Only 1; (b) Only 2; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2
118,a,Only 1,"India is one of the founding members of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)."
262
119,Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana?,"1. Under the scheme, Centre will provide ` 10 crore each for every State and Union Territory of the country for the development of various facilities for the tribals. 2. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Schedule Tribes and other Social Groups.",(a) Only 1; (b) Only 2; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2
119,b,Only 2,"Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana focuses on bridging infrastructural gaps and gap in human development indices between Schedule Tribes and other Social Groups."
263
120,Which of the following statements is not true?,"(a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) had regulated global trade since, 1947. (b) GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995. (c) The Most Favoured Nation principle under GATT provided that preferential trading agreements reached with one country should be extended to other countries. (d) The WTO has been able to cover in an agreements the agriculture and textile sectors which are the principal concerned for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs)"
120,d,The WTO has been able to cover in an agreements the agriculture and textile sectors which are the principal concerned for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs),"The WTO has not been able to fully address the concerns of the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) in the agriculture and textile sectors."
264
121,Which of the following is not a part of contemporary Indian foreign policy in relationships with its neighbours?,"(a) Look East Policy for linking up with South-East Asia via Myanmar. (b) Panchsheel. (c) Non-alignment. (d) SAARC"
121,c,Non-alignment,"Non-alignment is not a part of contemporary Indian foreign policy in relationships with its neighbors."
265
122,Consider the following statements: 1. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission. 2. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-missions — Union Territories and States. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,(a) Only 1; (b) Only 2; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2
122,a,Only 1,"The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the Swachh Bharat Mission, but it does not have separate sub-missions for Union Territories and States."
266
123,Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of National AYUSH Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet recently?,"1. Improvement of AYUSH educations through enhancement in the number of upgraded educational institutions. 2. Better access to AYUSH services through increase in the AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries, availability of drugs and manpower. 3. Providing sustained availability of quality raw material for AYUSH systems of medicine.",(a) Only 1; (b) 2 and 3; (c) 1 and 2; (d) All of these
123,d,All of these,"The objective of National AYUSH Mission includes improvement of AYUSH education, better access to AYUSH services, and providing sustained availability of quality raw material for AYUSH systems of medicine."
267
124,In recent plans, certain words/phrases were used in the title of the plan along with ‘growth’. They are,"1. inclusive; 2. faster; 3. more inclusive; 4. sustainable; 5. more sustainable",Which combination is true of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17)?,"(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 1, 4 and 5; (c) 2, 3 and 4; (d) 1, 2 and 4"
124,c,2, 3 and 4,"The title of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was 'faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth'."
268
125,Demand for a commodity refers to,"(a) desire for that commodity; (b) need for that commodity; (c) quantity demanded of that commodity; (d) quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time","(d) quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time"
125,d,d,The demand for a commodity refers to the quantity demanded at a certain price during any particular period of time.
269
126,An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes,"(a) downward to the right; (b) upward to the right; (c) horizontally; (d) upward to the left","(b) upward to the right"
126,b,b,An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes upward to the right, indicating that more of the commodity is demanded at higher prices.
270
127,Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism?,"(a) Historical Materialism; (b) Dialectical Materialism; (c) Alienation and Class Struggle; (d) Individual Freedom","(d) Individual Freedom"
127,d,d,Individual freedom is not a central tenet of socialism.
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128,Which of the following is not true for South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)?,"(a) It is a step towards a South Asian customs union and common market; (b) The agreement came into effect in 2006; (c) The SAFTA is a trade liberalisation regime; (d) The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with States outside SAFTA","(d) The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with States outside SAFTA"
128,d,d,The SAFTA agreement does not take precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with states outside SAFTA.
272
129,The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC Culture Ministers, convened in New Delhi on 25th September, 2014, unanimously resolved,"1. to declare 2015-16 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage. 2. that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital for 2015-16. 3. to promote SAARC culture online by launching a dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis on digitisation of rare manuscripts, rare books and other articles of intangible cultural value.","(a) Only 2; (b) 1 and 3; (c) 2 and 3; (d) All of these","(c) 2 and 3"
129,c,2 and 3,"The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC Culture Ministers declared 2016-17 as the SAARC Year of Cultural Heritage and promoted SAARC culture online, but Bamiyan being the SAARC cultural capital for 2015-16 is incorrect."
273
130,Inclusion strategy does not focus on,"(a) reduction of inequality; (b) reduction of poverty; (c) diversifying livelihood for tribal population; (d) getting poorer countries closer","(d) getting poorer countries closer"
130,d,d,Inclusion strategy does not focus on getting poorer countries closer.
274
131,Which among the following is not an aspect of Gender Mainstreaming (GM)?,"(a) GM was established as a global strategy for achieving gender equality by the United Nations; (b) It was adopted in 1995 in the Beijing Platform of Action; (c) It requires a review of government policy in all sectors for eliminating gender disparity; (d) GM was followed by the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)","(d) GM was followed by the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)"
131,d,d,Gender Mainstreaming (GM) was not followed by the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW). It was adopted as a global strategy for achieving gender equality by the United Nations.
275
132,Consider the following statements relating to the World Trade Organisation (WTO):,"1. The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. 2. The goal of the WTO is to help producers of goods and services, exporters and importers conduct their business. 3. The WTO, which is a successor body of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, came into being following the Uruguay Round of Negotiations. 4. The WTO distances itself in framing of rules on trade in intellectual property rights.","(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 2, 3 and 4; (c) 1, 2 and 4; (d) 1 and 3","(a) 1, 2 and 3"
a
276
133,Consider the following statements relating to the World Bank:,"1. The World Bank was established in 1946, which is headquartered in New York. 2. The World Bank Group has set for itself the goal to end extreme poverty from the world by 2030. 3. The World Bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It is not a bank in the ordinary sense but a unique partnership to reduce poverty and support development. 4. The World Bank Group comprises five institutions managed by their member countries in order to promote shared prosperity by fostering the income growth of the bottom 40% for every country.","(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 2, 3 and 4; (c) 1, 3 and 4; (d) 2 and 4","(b) 2, 3 and 4"
133,b,b,The World Bank was established in 1944, not 1946, and it is headquartered in Washington DC, not New York.
277
134,Which of the following statements about International Monetary Fund (IMF) are correct?,"1. The IMF is a United Nations specialised agency. 2. The IMF was founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 to secure international monetary cooperation. 3. The objective of the IMF is to stabilise currency exchange rates and to expand international liquidity (access to hard currencies).","(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 2 and 3; (c) 1 and 2; (d) 1 and 3","(a) 1, 2 and 3"
134,a,a,All the statements are correct regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
278
135,Union government in June, 2014 granted Navaratna status to,"1. Engineers India Limited; 2. Coal India Limited; 3. India Trade Promotion Organisation; 4. National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited","(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4; (b) 2 and 3; (c) 1 and 4; (d) 1, 2 and 3","(c) 1 and 4"
135,c,c,Engineers India Limited and National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited were granted Navaratna status.
279
136,World Bank in June, 2014 released a study report on India’s Power Sector titled ‘More Power to India : The Challenge of Electricity Distribution’. Which of the following is/are the key recommendation (s) of the report?,"1. Ensure regulatory autonomy, effectiveness and accountability for utilities and regulators. 2. Insulate utilities from State Governments to prevent interference with internal operations. 3. Scrap the Electricity Act, 2003 in order to improve the revenue generation of the power distribution companies.","(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 1 and 2; (c) Only 2; (d) 1 and 3","(b) 1 and 2"
136,b,b,The key recommendations of the World Bank's report on India's Power Sector did not include scrapping the Electricity Act, 2003.
280
137,Which of the following is not the recommendation of the Arvind Mayaram Committee on rationalising the FDI/FPI definition (June, 2014)?,"(a) Foreign investment of 10% or more in a listed company will be treated as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). (b) In a particular company, an investor can hold the investments either under the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) route or under the FDI route, but not both. (c) Any investment by way of equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares/debentures which is less than 10% of the post-issue paid up equity capital of a company shall be treated as FPI. (d) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment as FDI.","(a) Foreign investment of 10% or more in a listed company will be treated as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI); (b) In a particular company, an investor can hold the investments either under the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) route or under the FDI route, but not both; (c) Any investment by way of equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares/debentures which is less than 10% of the post-issue paid up equity capital of a company shall be treated as FPI; (d) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment as FDI.","(d) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment as FDI."
137,d,d,The Arvind Mayaram Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment as domestic and exempting it from FDI-related conditions.
281
138,Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?,"(a) When total product increases at an increasing rate Marginal product increases; (b) When total product increases at a diminishing rate Marginal product declines; (c) When total product reaches its maximum Marginal product becomes zero; (d) When total product begins to decline Marginal product becomes positive","(d) When total product begins to decline Marginal product becomes positive"
138,d,d,When total product begins to decline, marginal product becomes negative.
282
139,The way total output changes due to change in all inputs in same proportion is known as law of,"(a) returns to scale; (b) diminishing returns; (c) increasing returns; (d) constant returns","(a) returns to scale"
139,a,a,The way total output changes due to changes in all inputs in the same proportion is known as the law of returns to scale.
283
140,Which of the following statements are correct?,"1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue increases with increase in output. 2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum. 3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue falls with increase in output.","(a) 1 and 2; (b) 2 and 3; (c) 1 and 3; (d) 1, 2 and 3","(d) 1, 2 and 3"
140,d,d,All the statements are correct regarding marginal revenue and total revenue.
284
141,Which of the following statements is/are true?,"1. If increase in demand and supply are of equal magnitude, the price will remain unchanged, but the equilibrium quantity will increase. 2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than increase in supply, both equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity will increase. 3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than increase in demand, equilibrium price will fall but equilibrium quantity will increase.","(a) Only 1; (b) 1 and 2; (c) 2 and 3; (d) 1, 2 and 3","(d) 1, 2 and 3"
141,d,d,All the statements are correct regarding the effects of changes in demand and supply on equilibrium price and quantity.
285
142,A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a particular product, but each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products is termed as,"(a) perfect competition; (b) monopoly; (c) monopolistic competition; (d) oligopoly","(c) monopolistic competition"
142,c,c,Monopolistic competition describes a market structure with many sellers offering slightly differentiated products.
286
143,The value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country and their property, whether operating within the domestic territory of the country or outside in an year is termed as,"(a) Gross National Income; (b) Net National Income; (c) Gross Domestic Product; (d) Net Domestic Product","(a) Gross National Income"
143,a,a,Gross National Income (GNI) includes the value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country, both domestically and abroad.
287
144,National product at factor cost is equal to,"(a) Domestic product + Net factor income from abroad; (b) National product at market prices − Indirect taxes + Subsidies; (c) Gross domestic product − Depreciation; (d) National product at market prices + direct taxes + Subsidies","(b) National product at market prices − Indirect taxes + Subsidies"
144,b,b,National product at factor cost is calculated as National product at market prices minus indirect taxes plus subsidies.
288
145,Which of the following theories form the basis of international trade?,"1. Absolute cost difference 2. Comparative cost difference 3. Opportunity cost","(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3","(d) 1, 2 and 3"
145,d,d,All the listed theories form the basis of international trade.
289
146,Which one among the following is not a source of tax revenue for the Central Government in India?,"(a) Income tax (b) Customs duties (c) Service tax (d) Motor vehicle tax","(d) Motor vehicle tax"
146,d,d,The motor vehicle tax is typically a source of revenue for state governments, not the Central Government in India.
290
147,Which of the following does not form part of current account of Balance of Payments?,"(a) Export and import of goods (b) Export and import of services (c) Income receipts and payments (d) Capital receipts and payments","(d) Capital receipts and payments"
147,d,d,Capital receipts and payments are not part of the current account of the Balance of Payments.
291
148,Consider the following statements: 1. Government of India has upgraded the National Industrial Classification from NIC-1987 to NIC-2008. 2. NIC is an essential statistical standard for developing and maintaining comparable database according to economic activities. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,"(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(c) Both 1 and 2"
148,c,c,Both statements are correct. The National Industrial Classification (NIC) was upgraded from NIC-1987 to NIC-2008.
292
149,Under the forceful thrust of British rule, a rapid transformation of the Indian economy took place. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Indian economy was transformed into a colonial economy in the 19th century whose structure was determined by Britain’s fast developing industrial economy. 2. The influx of cheap Indian products into England gave a great blow to English textile industries. 3. The 19th century saw the collapse of the traditional Indian village economy and fresh economic alignment along commercial lines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,"(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2","(a) 1 and 3"
149,a,a,Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The British colonial policies led to a rapid transformation of the Indian economy in the 19th century.
293
150,In May, 2014, an agreement for credit of $ 24 million (equivalent) from World Bank for additional financing for Uttarakhand Rural Water Supply and Sanitation Project was signed. The objective/objectives of the agreement was/were 1. to improve the effectiveness of Rural Water Supply and Sanitation (RWSS) services through decentralisation. 2. to restore services of damaged schemes in the disaster affected areas in the State of Uttarakhand. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,"(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(c) Both 1 and 2"
150,c,c,Both statements are correct. The agreement aimed to improve Rural Water Supply and Sanitation services and to restore services in disaster-affected areas in Uttarakhand.
294
151,Consider the following statements relating to the Non-Alignment Movement: 1. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was created and founded during the collapse of the colonial system and the independence struggles of the people of Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the world and at the height of the Cold War. 2. The First Summit of the Movement of Non-Aligned countries was convened by the leaders of India, Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade on 1-6 September, 1961. 3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were a key factor in the decolonisation process, which led later to the attainment of freedom by many countries and to the founding of several new sovereign states. 4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to maintain equal distance from both the super powers by joining the military alliances of both the blocs. Which of the statements given above are correct?,"(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2","(a) 1, 2 and 3"
151,a,a,All the statements regarding the Non-Aligned Movement are correct.
295
152,Which of the following is not correct regarding the 2014 FIFA Football World Cup?,"(a) ‘We Are One’ is the official song (b) ‘Dar um, Jeito’ (We Will Find A Way)’ is the official anthem (c) Brazil is the first country to host a World Cup for the second time (d) For the first time two consecutive World Cups are not hosted in Europe","(c) Brazil is the first country to host a World Cup for the second time"
152,c,c,Option (c) is incorrect. Brazil is not the first country to host a World Cup for the second time; Mexico is.
296
153,Which of the following statements about Marrakesh Treaty is/are correct?,"1. The main goal of the treaty is to create a set of mandatory limitations and exceptions for the benefits of the blind and visually impaired. 2. India has ratified the treaty. 3. The treaty has come into force from July, 2014.","(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3","(b) 1 and 2"
153,b,b,The Marrakesh Treaty focuses on copyright exceptions for the blind and visually impaired. India has ratified the treaty, and it came into force in July 2014.
297
154,Consider the following statements about SAARC: 1. The SAARC Secretariat is located at Kathmandu. 2. The Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is appointed by the Council of Ministers from Member States in alphabetical order for a three year term. 3. The Secretary General is assisted by eight Directors on deputation from the Member States. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,"(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3","(c) 1, 2 and 3"
154,c,c,All the statements about the SAARC Secretariat are correct. It is located in Kathmandu, headed by a Secretary General appointed by the Council of Ministers, and assisted by eight Directors from Member States.
298
155,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Training Institute) List II (Location) A. National Academy of Direct Taxes 1. Hyderabad B. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai National Postal Academy 2. Nagpur C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy 3. Dehradun D. Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy 4. Ghaziabad Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2,"(a) 2 4 1 3"
155,a,a,The correct matching is: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. The locations are Nagpur, Ghaziabad, Hyderabad, and Dehradun respectively.
299
156,Consider the following statements on SAFTA: 1. SAFTA is a trade liberalisation programme among the South-Eastern countries of Asia. 2. According to SAFTA, the Ministerial Council shall meet at least once every year or more often as and when considered necessary by the Contracting States. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,"(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2","(b) Only 2"
156,b,b,Only statement 2 is correct. SAFTA is among South Asian countries, not South-Eastern countries.
300
157,Consider the following statements on Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) 1. BIMSTEC has seven members Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. 2. BIMSTEC provides a link between South Asia and South-East Asia by way of economic cooperation and linkages in identified areas of cooperation. 3. BIMSTEC was rechristened as BISTEC in the year 2014. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,"(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3","(c) 1 and 2"
157,c,c,Statements 1 and 2 are correct. BIMSTEC has seven members and provides a link between South Asia and South-East Asia. Statement 3 is incorrect; BIMSTEC was not rechristened as BISTEC in 2014.
301
158,According to the Companies Act, 2013, ‘nominal capital’ implies,"(a) such part of capital, which has been called for payment (b) the maximum amount of share capital of a company (c) such part of capital, which has been received by a company from its shareholders (d) such capital as the company issues from time to time for subscription","(b) the maximum amount of share capital of a company"
158,b,b,According to the Companies Act, 2013, 'nominal capital' implies the maximum amount of share capital of a company.
302
159,Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of ‘Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana’? To encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by giving government contribution to 1. save for their return and resettlement. 2. save for their old age. 3. obtain a life insurance cover against natural death for the entire life of the worker. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,"(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these","(b) 1 and 2"
159,b,b,The objectives of Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana are to encourage overseas Indian workers to save for their return and resettlement and to save for their old age. Providing life insurance coverage against natural death for the entire life of the worker is not part of the scheme.
303
160,"‘Inclusive growth’ is a phrase used in India’s","1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan 3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4","(c) 3 and 4"
160,c,c,The slogan of the 11th Five Year Plan was 'Inclusive and sustainable growth', and the 12th Five Year Plan aimed for 'Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth'.
304
161,"Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company. Which one of the following does not include Corporation tax?","(a) Profit from business (b) Capital gain (c) Interest on securities (d) Sale proceed of assets","(d) Sale proceed of assets"
161,d,d,Corporation tax in India is levied on various types of income of a company, but sale proceeds of assets are not included.
305
162,"In India, contribution of food inflation to overall inflation is around 1 3 rd to 2 5 th. Within food inflation, contribution of food articles is higher because price rise in food articles is","(a) higher and their weight is also higher compared to food products (b) higher but their weight is lower compared to food products (c) lower but their weight is higher compared to food products (d) lower and their weight is also lower compared to food products","(a) higher and their weight is also higher compared to food products"
162,a,a,The contribution of food inflation to overall inflation in India is around 1/3rd to 2/5th. Within food inflation, the contribution of food articles is higher because their prices are higher and their weight in the inflation index is also higher compared to food products.
306
163,"In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by","(a) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (b) Competition Commission of India (c) Security and Exchange Board of India (d) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion","(b) Competition Commission of India"
163,b,b,Mergers and acquisitions of firms in India are regulated by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
307
164,"Which of the following statements about India’s unorganised sector are true? 1. Labour is more in number than that in the organised sector. 2. Job security and work regulation are better in unorganised sector. 3. They are usually not organised into trade unions. 4. Workers are usually employed for a limited number of days. Select the correct answer using the codes given below","(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3","(b) 1, 3 and 4"
164,b,b,Characteristics of India's unorganised sector include seasonal employment, poor working conditions, lack of job security, and limited employment duration.
308
165,"Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector is based on","(a) number of employees in the enterprise (b) ownership of assets of the enterprise (c) employment conditions for workers in the enterprise (d) nature of products manufactured by the enterprise","(b) ownership of assets of the enterprise"
165,b,b,Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector is based on the ownership of assets.
309
166,"Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as Per Capita Income grew over time in last sixty years because","(a) people have been purchasing less food (b) people have been preferring non-cereal items in their food basket (c) growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income (d) percentage of the poor in population has increased over time","(c) growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income"
166,c,c,The share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as per capita income grew over time because the growth in food expenditure has been lower than the growth in per capita income.
repeated themes
flashcards
Decks in class (30)
# Cards
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power of pyq648
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power of pyq part 2430
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ancient medival14
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am91
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history282
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Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet3414
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Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet4319
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sheets 6440
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Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet5201
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Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 (4)409
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Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 (3)160
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cds - Sheet2309
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cds - Sheet1500
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SCI 2011-23 ONLY IAS - Sheet1130
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ANCIENT QUESTIONS 1979-2023 - Sheet143
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ANCIENT QUESTIONS 1979-2023 - Sheet244
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ANCIENT QUESTIONS 1979-2023 - Sheet3116
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capf polity - Sheet159
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capf polity - Sheet2149
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capf economy - Sheet130
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capf economy - Sheet246
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2023 - Sheet1101
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POLITY ONLYIAS - Sheet6161
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ECCONOMY ONLYIAS - Sheet7173
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ENVI ONLYIAS - Sheet8184
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GEOGRAPHY ONLYIAS - Sheet9118
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AM ONLYIAS - Sheet227
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MODERN89
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AM ONLYIAS - Sheet330
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ART AND CULTURE ONLYIAS - Sheet561
