1
Q
CERT stands for…
A
Community Emergency Response Team
- CERT’s are a bridge to professional responders until they are able to arrive
- This training covers basic skills that are important to know in a disaster when emergency services are not available
2
Q
EOP stands for…
A
Emergency Operations Plan
- Describes how the community will function in an emergency
3
Q
SOP stands for….
A
Standard Operating Procedures
- A set of written instructions that describes the step-by-step process that must be taken to properly perform a routine activity
4
Q
Social Capital is…
A
The value we place on our relationships with one another
5
Q
What are 4 examples of natural disasters?
A
Earthquakes, wildfires, flood, extreme heat
6
Q
What are 2 examples of technological and accidental disasters?
A
Hazardous material spill and nuclear power plant accident
7
Q
What are three examples of terrorism disasters?
A
Chemical accidents, nuclear accidents, and explosive weapons
8
Q
What are the key elements of disasters?
A
- Unexpected (for the most part)
- May overwhelm available response personnel + emergency services
- Endanger lives, health, and environment
9
Q
When a disaster occurs, a CERT members first responsibility is to:
A
Ensure personal + family safety
10
Q
CERT members volunteer to fill non-disaster roles. An example of a non-disaster
function of CERTs is:
A
Staffing parades, health fairs, and other special events
11
Q
There are five types of disasters. They are natural, terrorist, home fires,
pandemic and ______________.
A
Technological and Accidental
12
Q
Which of the following is NOT a hazard associated with home fixtures?
A. Gas line ruptures
B. Hazardous material spill
C. Injury or electric shock
D. Fire from faulty wiring
A
B. Hazardous material spill
13
Q
What are the 9 steps of CERT size-up?
A
- Gather facts
- Access and communicate damage
- Consider possibilities
- Assess your own situation
- Establish properties
- Make decisions
- Develop a plan of action
- Take action
- Evaluate progress
14
Q
Should rescue be attempted in a heavy damage site?
A
No, too dangerous to enter
15
Q
Should rescue be attempted in a moderate damage site?
A
Yes, but only quick and safe removals
16
Q
Should rescue be attempted in a light damage site?
A
Yes, locate, assess, continue size-up, and document
17
Q
What are the five crucial steps when approaching a victim?
A
- Make sure the patient can see you
- Identify yourself (name and organization)
- Request permission to treat- an unconscious patient is assumed to have implied consent. ask parent/guardian of a child if possible
- Respect cultural differences if possible
- Be mindful of privacy (HIPAA!)
18
Q
The average person has approximately ___ liters of blood
A
5
19
Q
True or False: Severe blood loss can result in irreversible shock
A
True
20
Q
What are indications of life threatening bleeding
A
- Spurting/steady bleeding
- Blood is pooling
- Blood is soaking through overlying clothes
- Blood is soaking through bandages
- Amputation
21
Q
Typically, how many stages of excessive bleeding are there?
A
4 stages
22
Q
What is the first stage of severe bleeding?
A
Less than 15% blood loss, normal heart rate and blood pressure, 14-20 breath rate, patient appears normal
23
Q
What is the normal breath rate?
A
12-16 per minute
24
Q
What is the second stage of severe bleeding?
A
15-30% blood loss, fast heart rate (>100 bpm), slightly low blood pressure, 20-30 breath rate, patient may feel anxious
25
What is the third stage of severe bleeding?
30-40% blood loss, very fast heart rate (>120 bpm), low blood pressure, 30-40 breath rate, patient may feel confused
26
What is the fourth stage of severe bleeding?
>40% blood loss, critical heart rate (>140 bpm), critical blood pressure, >35 breath rate, patient feel lethargic
27
What are the three types of bleeding?
Arterial, Venous, & Capillary
28
What is arterial bleeding?
Blood coming from an artery. Will spurt and will be bright red because it is oxygenated blood
29
What is venous bleeding?
Blood coming from a vein. Will flow and be dark red because it is not oxygenated
30
What is capillary bleeding?
Blood coming from a capillary (low pressure). Will ooze and is a bright red color
31
What is the first way to control excessive bleeding?
Direct, constant pressure
32
If direct pressure does not work, you should ______ __ _____________.
apply a tourniquet
33
What are the main signs of shock?
- rapid/shallow breathing
- capillary refill greater than 2 seconds
- failure to follow simple commands ("squeeze my hand")
34
What are ways you can maintain someone's body temperature?
- remove wet clothing
- placing something between the patient and the ground
- wrap the injured person with dry layers
- shield person from the wind (your body or surrounding objects)
35
What are things you can use to separate an injured person from the ground?
cardboard, jacket, or blanket
36
What is the recovery position?
body laid on its side, bottom arm reached outward, top arm placed on bicep of bottom arm, head rested on hand, legs slightly bent, chin raised forward, and mouth pointed downward
37
What should you do in you suspect a spine injury when moving someone into the recovery position?
1) support the head and neck when rolling them over
2) do not move them more than necessary
38
What is the epidermis?
The outer layer of the skin that contains nerve endings and is penetrated by hairs
39
What is the dermis?
The middle layer of of skin, containing blood vessels, oil glands, hair follicles, and sweat glands
40
What is the subcutaneous?
The innermost layer of skin that contains blood vessels and overlies the muscle
41
Superficial burns affect what layer of the skin?
epidermis
42
What are the signs of superficial burns?
- reddened dry skin
- pain
- possible swelling
43
Partial thickness burns affect what layer of the skin?
epidermis and partial destruction of the dermis
44
What are signs of partial thickness burns?
- reddened blistered skin
- wet appearance
- pain
- possible swelling
45
Full thickness burns affect what layer of the skin?
complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis, possible destruction of the subcutaneous
46
What are signs of full thickness burns?
whitened, leathery, or charred (brown or black), painful, or relatively painless
47
The guidelines for treating heat burns are...
Cooling the burn and dressing the burn
48
What should you do when cooling a heat burn?
1) remove the patient from burning source and remove clothing unless it is stuck to the skin
2) cool skin and clothing if they are still hot: immerse them in cold water for more than 1 minute and covering them with cold compresses that have been soaked in cold water and sprung out
3) do not use ice because it can cause vessel constriction
4) rapid temperature changes can lead to shock
49
What should you do when dressing a heat burn?
1) cover loosely with dry, sterile dressings to keep air out, reduce pain, and prevent infection
2) when treating burns on hands and feet, wrap fingers/toes loosely and individually
3) loosen clothing, remove jewelry, but ALWAYS document what was taken off, by whom, and who it was given to
4) do not apply antiseptics, ointments, or other remedies
5) do not remove shreds of tissues, break blisters, or remove adhered particles of clothing
50
True or False: Chemical burns are a lot different than traditional burns
True
51
What should you do if you suspect a chemical burn?
1) Protect yourself from the substance
2) Remove affected clothing/ jewelry
3) If the iirtiant is dry, gently brush away from the patient and yourself
3) Use cooling water to flush the chemical from the skin for at least 10 minutes
4) Apply a wet, cool compress to relieve pain
5) Cover the wound very loosely with a dry, sterile cloth (so that it does not stick!)
*for chemical burns it is best to defer treatment to trained professionals
52
The main treatment for wounds include:
control bleeding, and apply dressing/bandage
53
How are dressing and bandages different?
Dressings should be applied directly on the wound and should be sterile (if possible)
A bandage holds the dressing in place
54
What are the rules of dressings?
1) if the dressing is soaked with blood, redress over it and maintain pressure
2) In the absence of active bleeding, maintain the pressure and keep the wound bandaged until further treatment by a medical professional
55
What are signs of possible infection?
- swelling around wound site
- discoloration
- discharge from the wound
-red striations from the wound site
56
True or False: CERT volunteers can amputate body parts
False
57
When a severed body part is located, CERT volunteers can...
- Save tissue parts: wrap in a clean material, put into a plastic bag, and write patients name, date, and time
- Keep tissue parts cool, but not in direct contact with ice
- Keep severed body part near the patient
58
Scenario: You arrive to a scene where a building collapsed and you have a patient with a large piece of wood impaled in their leg, what should you do?
Not attempt to remove the impaled object, but try to control bleeding, clean and dress wound making sure to stabilize the object, and wrap bulky dressings to keep the object from moving
59
A broken bone with some kind of wound that allows contaminants to enter into or around the fracture site is an...
open fracture
60
A broken bone with no associated wound is a....
closed fracture
61
What is a displaced fracture?
A fracture in which the fractured bone is no longer aligned
62
What is a nondisplaced fracture?
A fracture in which the fractured bone still remains aligned
63
True or False: You can fix an open fracture with only a splint
False; closed fractures are generally treated with only splinting, but open fractures are more complicated
64
What should you do when treating an open fracture?
- Do not draw the exposed bone ends back into the tissue
- Do not irrigate the wound
- Cover the wound with a sterile dressing and apply pressure
- Splint the fracture without disturbing the wound
- Place a moist 4 by 4 inch dressing over the bone to keep it from drying out
65
A dislocation is...
An injury to the ligaments around a joint that is so severe that it permits separation of the bone from its normal position in the joint
66
True or False: You should treat a suspected dislocation, sprain, or strain like a closed fracture
True
67
What does a sprain involve?
A sprain involves a stretching or tearing of ligaments at a joint.
68
Tenderness at the site of injury, swelling/bruising, and restricted use or loss of use are signs of a...
sprain
69
What types of materials can be used for splinting?
cardboard, towels, blankets, pillows, metal strip, magazines, or newspapers
70
What is hypothermia?
A condition that occurs when the body's temperature drops below normal
71
What is frostbite?
Occurs when extreme cold shuts down blood flow to extremities causing tissue death
72
What are the primary signs of hypothermia?
- a body temperature <95 F
- redness or blueness of the skin
- numbness accompanied by shivering
in later stages:
- slurred speech
- unpredictable behavior
- listlessness
73
What are the key symptoms of frostbite?
- skin discoloration (red, white, purple, black)
- burning or tingling sensation (not always near injury site)
- partial or complete numbness
74
True or False: You should warm up a frostbite victim as QUICKLY as possible
False: Warming up the body too quickly can caused chilled blood flow to the heart, shocking and/or stopping it
75
True or False: Massaging the body is a good way to warm up the body
False; never do this!
76
Muscle spasms brought on by over-exertion in extreme heat are...
heat cramps
77
____ __________ occurs when an individual exercises or works in extreme heat, resulting in loss of body fluids through heavy sweating. Blood flow to the skin increases, causing blood flow to decrease in the vital organs. This results in a mild form of shock
Heat exhaustion
78
What is a heat stroke?
a life-threatening condition when the patient's temperature control system shuts down, and body temperature can rise so high that brain damage and death may result
79
Heat exhaustion symptoms include:
- cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin
- heavy sweating
- headache
- nausea or vomiting
- dizziness
- exhaustion
- near normal body temperature
80
Heat stroke symptoms include:
- hot or red skin
- lack of perspiration
- changes in consciousness
- rapid, weak pulse and rapid, shallow breathing
- very high body temperature
81
What is the difference in body temperature in heat exhaustion vs heat stroke?
heat exhaustion will result in a near normal body temperature, while a heat stroke patient will have very high body temperature (as high as 105 F)
82
What are the steps for treating an insect bite/sting?
1) Remove the stinger by scraping it with the edge of a credit card or other straight-edge object
2) Wash the site thoroughly with soap and water
3) Place ice wrapped in a washcloth on the site of the sting for 10 minutes then off for 10 minutes (repeat this step)
83
True or False: Tweezers are a way you can removed the stinger when treating an insect bite/sting
False; never use tweezers because you can potentially increase the amount of venom released
84
Scenario: You arrive on scene and there is a 7 year old girl that got stung by a bee. You find out she is allergic, what should you do?
1) calm the individual
2) administer an epi-pen if available
* no other medication
85
Triage/Assessment is...
The initial assessment and sorting of survivors for treatment based on the severity of their injuries
86
Having multiple treatment areas in a mass casualty is also called a...
Decentralized treatment area
87
Having one centralized treatment area is known as a...
Centralized treatment area
88
**DCAP-BTLS means
Deformities
Contusions (bruising)
Abrasions
Punctures/Penetrations
Burns
Tenderness
Lacerations
Swelling
89
- Change in consciousness
- Inability to move 1 or more body parts
- Severe pain in head, neck, or back
- Tingling or numbness
- Difficulty breathing/seeing
- Blood or fluid in the ears or nose
- Bruising behind the ear
- "Racoon" eyes
- Uneven pupils
- Seizures, nausea, or vomiting
are all signs of what?
Closed-head, neck, or spinal injury
90
What are ways CERT members can maintain hygiene?
- Wash hands frequently using soap and water (hand sanitizer is a good alternative)
- Wear non-latex exam gloves at all times
- Keep dressings sterile
- Wash any areas using soap and water or diluted bleach that come in contact with body fluids
91
How can you purify water in an emergency?
1) heat it to a rolling boil for 1 min
2) using water purification tablets
3) or non-perfumed liquid bleach
92
What are the bleach to water ratios for purifying water?
8 drops of bleach per gallon of water or 16 drops if the water is cloudy/dirty (1 part bleach, 10 parts water)
Let stand for 30 minutes, if the solution does not smell of bleach add 6 drops and let stand for 15 minutes
93
What is vicarious trauma?
a natural reaction of an individual exposed to a survivors trauma; a person may take on that survivors trauma
94
What are the five F's?
the five primary responses to stress
1) Freeze
2) Flight
3) Fight
4) Fright
5) Faint
95
What are possible psychological symptoms to disaster reactions?
emotional
- nervousness
- shock
- numbness
- inability to feel love or joy
cognitive
- difficulty making decisions
- dreams
spiritual
- loss of hope
- questioning
- redefining meaning to life
96
What are possible physical symptoms to a disaster reaction?
- loss of appetite
- headache
- chest pain
- stomach problems
- hyperactivity
- increase in alcohol/drug consumption
- nightmares/no sleep
- fatigue
97
"Listen, _______, Connect" is a common saying when approaching individuals after a disaster
Protect
98
True or False: When providing support you can say "I understand", "You are strong", "Don't feel bad", etc.
False; all of these can be misinterpreted, instead say:
"I'm sorry for your pain"
"Can I help you with..."
"What do you need"
" I can't imagine what this is like for you"
99
How should a CERT member manage a death scene?
- Cover the body for respect
- Follow local laws/protocols
- Talk with authorities to determine a plan
100
Fire requires 3 elements. What are the 3 elements?
Heat, fuel, and oxygen
101
Ordinary combustibles, such as paper, cloth, wood, rubber, and many plastics are in which class of fires?
Class A
102
Flammable liquids, including oils and gasoline as well as combustible liquids such as charcoal lighter fluid and kerosene. Only the vapor burns when ignited.
This is which class of fires?
Class B
103
Energized electrical equipment, such as wires and motors. When the electricity is turned off, the fire becomes a class A. This is a class __.
Class C
104
Combustible metals, including aluminium, magnesium, and titanium are a part of which class of fires?
Class D
105
Cooking oils such as vegetable oils, animal oils, and fats are part of which class of fires?
Class K
106
What are the four types of fire extinguishers?
- water
- dry chemical
- carbon dioxide
- specialized
107
How should you operate a fire extinguisher?
PASS
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep
108
What type of extinguishers should you use for a class A fire?
water, foam, dry chemical
removes air, heat, and breaks chain reaction
109
What type of extinguishers should you use for a class B fire?
foam, CO2, dry chemical
removes air and breaks chain reaction
110
What type of extinguisher should you use for a class C fire?
CO2 and dry chemical
removes air and breaks chain reaction
111
What type of extinguisher should you use for a class D fire?
special agents
usually removes air
112
What type of extinguisher should you use for a class K fire?
chemical
usually removes air
113
______ ________ is an odorless, colorless, poisonous gas that is lighter than air
Carbon monoxide
114
Materials are considered ___________ if they...
- corrode other materials
- easily ignite or explode
- react strongly with water
- are unstable when exposed to heat/shock
- are otherwise toxic
hazardous
115
On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the red quadrant describes ___________.
flammability
116
On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the blue quadrant indicates ______ ________.
health hazard
117
On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the yellow quadrant indicates ________
reactivity
118
On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the white quadrant indicates ___________ ____________.
special precautions
119
What is the NFPA 704 diamond?
a diamond divided into four quadrants, each with a rating number inside it, which indicates the degree of risk associated with it (0-4). The higher the #, the higher the risk
120
A "W" on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?
material displays unusual reaction with water
121
An "OX" on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?
a material that possesses oxidizing properties
122
"ACID" on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?
material is an acid
123
"ALK" on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?
the material is a base
124
"COR" on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?
the material is corrosive
125
What are signs exhibited by a potential terrorist?
- surveillance
- elicitation
- test of security
- funding
- acquiring supplies
- impersonation or suspicious people who do not belong
- rehearsal or dry runs
- deployment
126
How should you react if an active shooter is in your vicinity?
1) run
2) hide
3) fight
127
The ___ Zone is referred to as the incident scene and the contaminated area around the scene
Hot
128
The ____ Zone in a decontamination situation would be upwind from the Hot Zone and is used to isolate survivors during decontamination. In a non-decontamination situation, such as a terrorist attack, this zone will be the area immediately outside of the incident scene
Warm
129
The ____ Zone is located beyond the Warm Zone. Survivors will be evacuated to this zone and kept there until professional responders authorize them to leave
Cold
130
CBRNE stands for...
Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosive
131
Phase 1
Death within minutes as a result of overwhelming and irreversible damage to the vital organs
132
Phase 2
Death within several hours as a result of excessive bleeding
133
Phase 3
Death is several days or weeks as a result of infection or multiple-organ failure
134
Earthquakes are classified based on the _______ scale.
Richter
135
Citizen Corps is ...
a movement to strengthen community safety and preparedness
136
What is the elevation level
wound above heart
137
The "Killers" are...
1) Airway obstruction
2) Excessive bleeding
3) Signs of shock
CERT Skills
flashcards
Decks in class (4)
# Cards
