61. 195 - No more than 8 hrs instruction in a 24 hr period - Must hold CFI AND Pilot's Cert with applicable Category AND Class ratings to conduct flight training - Cannot self endorse

CFI Refreshers Flashcards by Kelly Barnhard

List the Aviation Instructor Responsibilities

HDEEP
Help students learn
Demand adequate performance
Emphasize the positive
Ensure safety
Provide excellent instruction

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CFI Privilages

61.193
We are authorized to train and issue endorsements that are within the limitations of our OWN flight instructor certificate and ratings
(If I can’t/haven’t done it, I cannot endorse someone else to do it - knowledge or practical test wise)

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CFI Limitations

195
- No more than 8 hrs instruction in a 24 hr period
- Must hold CFI AND Pilot’s Cert with applicable Category AND Class ratings to conduct flight training
- Cannot self endorse

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Steep Turn ACS Standards for a Private Pilot Applicant

+/- 100 feet
+/- 10 knots of a speed not exceeding Va
+/- 5 deg bank (45)
+/- 10 deg heading

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Short Field Landing Standards for a Private Pilot Applicant

+200 feet/-0 feet

+10 knots/-5 knots

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Short Field Landing Standards for a Commercial Pilot Applicant

Touch down within 100’ beyond or on the specified point

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Laws of Learning

REEPIR
Recency
Exercise
Effect
Primacy
Intensity
Readiness

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Characteristics of Learning

RAMP
Result of an Experience
Active Processes
Multifaceted
Purposeful

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What Endorsements are required for student pilot initial solo?

87(b)
- Presolo knowledge exam for make/model
87(d)
- Received presolo training, demonstrated proficiency, and is proficient in make/model
* *add limitations as needed**
87(p)
- Additional 90-Day Endorsement

These endorse the student to fly within 25NM of the home airport

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What Endorsements are required for student pilot Solo-XC?

61.93(e-m) of what is applicable!

Route endorsement for that day, reviewed and approved!

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What Endorsements are required for your student to go in for the Instrument Checkride?

39(a)(6)(i and ii)
- student has received/logged training within 2 cal month preceding month of practical
35(a)(1), 61.65(a)(b)
- Instrument written endorsement
39(a)(6)(iii)
- Written Deficiencies
65(a)(6)
- Flight proficiency/actual practical test endorsement

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Short Field Landing Standards for a Private Pilot Applicant

Touch down within 200’ beyond or on the specified point

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Power-Off 180 Landing Standards for a Commercial Pilot Applicant

Touch down within 200’ beyond or on the specified point

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What are the 8 defense mechanisms?

Repression
Reaction Formation
Rationalization
Denial
Displacement
Compensation
Projection
Fantasy

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List 4 obstacles to learning you or your student may experience?

Anxiety
Impatience
Physical needs not met
Apathy due to inadequate instructor

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List 5 characteristic of Professionalism

Sincerity
Accept the student
Demeanor
Personal Appearance/Habits
Language

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7 ways to minimize student frustration?

MACKBAG
Motivate the student
Approach student as an individual
Constructive criticism 
Keep them Informed
Be Consistent
Admit your own errors
Give them credit

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List 4 additional Flight Instructor Responsibilities

Pilot supervision
Evaluation of student
Endorsements
See and Avoid

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Hazardous Attitudes and their antidotes

Study These Flashcards

Anti-Authority - The rules are there for a reason!

Impulsive - Think first!

Invulnerability - It can happen to you!

Macho - Taking chances is foolish

Resignation - You can make a difference

Purpose of a Mode C Veil?

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Airspace within 30NM of a class B airport
- A/c operating within the Veil must be equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having Mode C Capability (mode C alt transmissions are independent of barometric setting)

Where are Warning Areas?

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Airspace extending from 3NM outward from the coast of the US that “contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft”

Can be active or inactive…your responsibility to check and plan accordingly.

to be treated like a Restricted Area, NOT like an MOA

Flying over water? What are the rules?

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- 50NM form nearest coast = life preserver/flotation device for each occupant, etc.

Certs and Docs required for a/c Airworthiness

Study These Flashcards

GMARROW SP

GPS manual (supplements)
MEL
Airworthiness Certificate (inspections)
Registration (Federal/State)
Radio License
Operating Handbook (POH)
Weight and Balance

Supplemental docs
Placards

What inspections must be completed to maintain Airworthiness

Study These Flashcards

(AV1ATE)
Annual
VOR (IFR)
100 hour (for hire)
Altimeter/pitot static (IFR)
Transponder
ELT

Does the Federal Registration expire?

``` Every 3 years or: 30 days after death of owner Foreign Transfer of ownership Destroyed US citizen Cancelled ```

Airworthiness Directives

Issued by the FAA - One time - Recurrent - Urgent/Non-Urgent

Service Bulletins are issued by the:

Manufacturer

You don't have an MEL and you find something inoperative during preflight. What do you do?

92. 213 1. VFR Day Type Cert (instruments/equipment prescribed) 2. Kinds of Operations Equipment List 3. 91.205 4. Airworthiness Directives Removed, disabled, placarded if you can still go.

How often are TAFs issued and what is their valid period?

4x a day | 24-30 hours

What does AO2 mean in a METAR

The station is automated and has the ability to discriminate between percipitation

What does SLP mean in a METAR

Sea level pressure given in Millibars

What is the difference between FROM and BECOMING

``` From = Fast change Becoming = Slow change ```

When is a TEMPO issued

(usually issued for 3 hours time frame) 50% change or greater of occurring Wont last more than half the time that the TEMP covers Wont last more than 1 hour for each wx phenomena

On the winds aloft charts, when will wind and temps NOT be published?

No WINDS if the station is within 1,500' of the MSL altitude No TEMP if the station is within 2,500' of the MSL altitude

When Isobars are closer together, what kind of winds can we expect? (weak or strong)

Strong winds

decode 731960

If the wind speed is forecast to be from 100 to 199 kt., the forecaster will add 50 to the wind direction and subtract 100 from the wind speed. To decode, you must subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 to the wind speed. 731960 The wind is from 230° true (73 − 50 = 23) at 119 kt. (100 + 19 = 119), and the temperature is −60°C

When are AIRMETs issued and how long are they valid?

4x a day Valid for 6 hours info is of operational interest of all a/c, especially light a/c

When are SIGMETs issued and how long are they valid?

Unscheduled/Issued as needed Valid 4 hours unless relating to a Hurricane then it is valid for 6 hours - Severe icing, turbulence - Sandstorms - Ash - Severe Valid for 4 hours potentially hazardous to all a/c

What are the criteria for a Convective Sigmet? How long are they valid?

Severe thunderstorms Surface winds 50 knots + Hail 3/4in diameter or greater Tornadoes Embedded/lines of thunderstorms Tstorms with heavy or greater percip affecting 40%+ of a 3,000 square mile+ region Valid for 2 hours!

What can be used not instead of the Area Forecast (FA)

the Graphical Area Forecast tool on aviationweather.gov

What are the stages of a Thunderstorm and their characteristics?

1. Cumulus - Updrafts 2. Mature - Rain begins 3. Dissipating - Downdrafts

Characteristics of a stable atmosphere

Steady rain Stratiform clouds Poor visibility Smooth air

What is a fun acronym to remember some of the illusions

(ICEFLAGS) Inversion - climb to a rapid level off creates tumbling sensation Coriolis - constant bank turn, and a head movement in another plane Elevator - from up/downdrafts False Horizon Leans Autokinesis - Rods interpreting lights moving Graveyard Somatogravic

What are the 3 sensory systems that can create illusions

Somatogravic Vestibular Ocular

What are the O2 regulations?

12,500': RFC for durations over 30 mins 14,000': RFC must wear at all times 15,000': RCF must wear at all times, all pax must have it provided

How long must you wait to fly after scuba diving?

24 hours after a controlled dive 12 hours after an uncontrolled dive

CFI Refreshers Flashcards

(46 cards)