Chapter 1 Flashcards

(204 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary definition of contraception?

A

Strategies or devices used to reduce the risk of fertilization/implantation or to prevent pregnancy.

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2
Q

For how long can the human ovum be fertilized after ovulation?

A

The human ovum can be fertilized for 24 hours after ovulation.

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3
Q

What is the average duration that motile sperm can fertilize an ovum?

A

Motile sperm’s ability to fertilize the ovum lasts an average of 48 to 72 hours.

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4
Q

What is the most effective method of birth control?

A

Abstinence is the most effective method of birth control.

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5
Q

A disadvantage of abstinence as a contraceptive method is a high failure rate due to _____.

A

lack of adherence

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6
Q

What is coitus interruptus?

A

The withdrawal of the penis from the vagina during sexual intercourse prior to ejaculation.

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7
Q

Why is coitus interruptus one of the least effective contraceptive methods?

A

Pre-ejaculatory fluid can leak from the penis and can contain sperm, which can fertilize an ovum.

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8
Q

In the calendar rhythm method, ovulation is estimated to occur how many days before the onset of the next menstrual cycle?

A

Ovulation occurs about 14 days before the onset of the next menstrual cycle.

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9
Q

How is the start of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?

A

By subtracting 18 days from the number of days in the shortest menstrual cycle.

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10
Q

How is the end of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?

A

By subtracting 11 days from the number of days in the longest menstrual cycle.

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11
Q

What is a major risk associated with the calendar rhythm method?

A

Various factors can affect and change the time of ovulation, causing unpredictable menstrual cycles.

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12
Q

The standard days method (cycle beads) is considered unreliable for menstrual cycles shorter than _____ days or longer than _____ days.

A

26; 32

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13
Q

In the standard days method, what do the white beads on the necklace represent?

A

The white beads represent fertile days.

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14
Q

What physiological change is monitored in the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method to detect ovulation?

A

A slight elevation in body temperature at rest, caused by an increase in progesterone.

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15
Q

According to the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method, fertility extends through how many consecutive days of temperature elevations?

A

Fertility extends through 3 consecutive days of temperature elevations.

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16
Q

What is the term for the ability of cervical mucus to stretch between the fingers, which is greatest during ovulation?

A

Spinnbarkeit.

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17
Q

In the cervical mucus ovulation detection method, the fertile period begins when the mucus is thin and slippery and lasts for how long?

A

It lasts for 3 to 4 days after the last day of cervical mucus having this appearance.

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18
Q

What factors can cause an inaccurate assessment of cervical mucus characteristics?

A

Mucus mixed with semen, blood, contraceptive foams, or discharge from infections can cause inaccuracies.

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19
Q

Describe the Two-Day method of fertility awareness.

A

A symptom-based method involving checking for vaginal secretions daily; if secretions are present 2 days in a row, the client should avoid unprotected intercourse.

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20
Q

What are the three criteria required for the Lactation Amenorrhea Method (LAM) to be effective?

A

The infant is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and menses have not returned.

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21
Q

To be effective, the Lactation Amenorrhea Method (LAM) requires exclusive breastfeeding at least every _____ hours during the day and every _____ hours at bedtime.

A

4; 6

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22
Q

Which types of penile condoms do NOT protect against STIs due to having small pores?

A

Natural skin (made of lamb cecum) condoms.

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23
Q

What type of lubricant should be used with latex condoms to avoid breakage?

A

Only water-soluble lubricants should be used with latex condoms.

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24
Q

A disadvantage of penile condoms is that they do not protect against STIs transmitted from lesions on the skin, such as _____, _____, and syphilis.

A

HPV; HSV

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25
How does a spermicide work as a chemical barrier?
It destroys sperm before they can enter the cervix and makes the vaginal flora more acidic.
26
How long is spermicide effective after insertion, and when should it be removed post-intercourse?
It is effective for 1 hour after insertion and should not be removed until 6 hours after intercourse.
27
Spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can increase the risk of what if used more than twice daily?
They can cause lesions and increase the risk of HIV.
28
When does a diaphragm need to be refitted?
After a 20% weight fluctuation, after abdominal or pelvic surgery, and after every pregnancy.
29
A diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse and must stay in place for at least _____ hours after, but for no more than _____ hours total.
6; 24
30
A diaphragm is not recommended for clients with a history of what condition caused by a bacterial infection?
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
31
A cervical cap should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but for no more than _____ hours at a time.
48
32
A contraceptive sponge provides protection for up to 24 hours and should be left in place for _____ hours after the last act of intercourse.
6
33
What is the mechanism of action for combined oral contraceptives (COCs)?
They suppress ovulation, thicken cervical mucus to block semen, and alter the uterine decidua to prevent implantation.
34
What are the major complications of combined oral contraceptives that a client should report immediately?
Chest pain, shortness of breath, leg pain (thromboembolism), headache, vision changes (stroke), or hypertension.
35
Besides contraception, what are some therapeutic effects of low-dose estrogen hormonal contraception?
Decreased menstrual blood loss, regulation of irregular cycles, and reduced incidence of dysmenorrhea.
36
Hormonal contraception offers protection against which types of cancer?
Endometrial, ovarian, and colon cancer.
37
Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated for clients over 35 who engage in what activity?
Smoking.
38
What is a key instruction for a client taking progestin-only pills (minipills) to ensure effectiveness?
Take the pill at the same time daily.
39
What is the most common adverse effect reported with progestin-only pills?
Breakthrough, irregular, vaginal bleeding.
40
Within what timeframe must an emergency oral contraceptive (morning-after pill) be taken after unprotected coitus?
The pill should be taken within 72 hours.
41
What non-hormonal device can be used as an emergency contraceptive up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse?
A copper IUD.
42
A client using the transdermal contraceptive patch should apply it once a week for _____ weeks, with no application on the _____ week.
3; fourth
43
The transdermal contraceptive patch may be less effective in clients who weigh more than what amount?
198 lb (90 kg).
44
How often is the medroxyprogesterone (injectable progestin) injection given?
It is given every 11 to 13 weeks.
45
What is a significant adverse effect of injectable progestins on bone health?
Decreased bone mineral density.
46
A client receiving injectable progestins should be educated not to _____ the injection site to avoid accelerating medication absorption.
massage
47
How long is a contraceptive vaginal ring left in place before being removed for a 7-day interval?
The ring is left in place for 3 weeks.
48
If a contraceptive vaginal ring is removed for greater than _____ hours, it should be replaced with a new ring and a barrier method used for 7 days.
4
49
For how long is an implantable progestin rod effective?
It provides effective continuous contraception for 3 years.
50
What is the most common adverse effect of an implantable progestin?
Irregular and unpredictable menstruation.
51
An implantable progestin increases the risk of what type of pregnancy if pregnancy does occur?
Ectopic pregnancy.
52
What are the most effective contraceptive methods at preventing pregnancy, also known as long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) methods?
The implant and IUDs.
53
How should a client monitor their IUD monthly?
They should check for the presence of the small string that hangs from the device into the upper part of the vagina after menstruation.
54
What is the duration of effectiveness for a hormonal IUD versus a copper IUD?
A hormonal IUD is effective for 3 to 5 years, while a copper IUD is effective for 10 years.
55
An IUD increases the risk of what serious infection of the female reproductive organs?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
56
What is the mechanism of transcervical sterilization?
Small flexible agents are inserted into the fallopian tubes, causing scar tissue to develop and block the tubes.
57
What is a tubal ligation?
A surgical procedure consisting of severance, burning, or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization.
58
What is a major disadvantage of a tubal ligation?
It is considered an irreversible surgical procedure.
59
What is a vasectomy?
A surgical procedure consisting of the ligation and severance of the vas deferens.
60
When is a client considered sterile after a vasectomy?
Sterility is confirmed after the sperm count is zero on two consecutive tests, which occurs after approximately 20 ejaculations.
61
What is a key piece of client education regarding contraception immediately following a vasectomy?
Alternate forms of birth control must be used until the vas deferens is cleared of all remaining sperm.
62
What is the general term for strategies or devices used to reduce the risk of fertilization or to prevent pregnancy?
Contraception.
63
For how long can the human ovum be fertilized after ovulation?
Up to 24 hours.
64
On average, how long does motile sperm's ability to fertilize an ovum last?
48 to 72 hours.
65
What is considered the most effective method of birth control?
Abstinence.
66
The high failure rate of abstinence as a contraceptive method is primarily due to ____.
lack of adherence
67
What is the primary client education point regarding coitus interruptus (withdrawal)?
Be aware that pre-ejaculatory fluid can contain sperm and fertilize an ovum.
68
Which contraceptive method is described as one of the least effective and offers no protection against STIs?
Coitus interruptus (withdrawal).
69
In the calendar rhythm method, ovulation is estimated to occur about ____ days before the onset of the next menstrual cycle.
14
70
How is the start of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?
By subtracting 18 days from the number of days in the shortest menstrual cycle.
71
How is the end of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?
By subtracting 11 days from the number of days in the longest menstrual cycle.
72
Using the calendar rhythm method, if a client's shortest cycle is 28 days and longest is 31 days, what is her fertile period?
Days 10 (28-18) through 20 (31-11) of her cycle.
73
The standard days method (cycle beads) is considered unreliable for women with menstrual cycles shorter than ____ days or longer than ____ days.
26; 32
74
In the standard days method, what do the white beads on the necklace represent?
Fertile days.
75
In the standard days method, what does the red bead signify?
The first day of the menstrual cycle.
76
What physiological change is monitored in the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method to identify ovulation?
A slight elevation in body temperature at rest due to increased progesterone.
77
For the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method, when should a client take her temperature?
Immediately after waking up and before getting out of bed.
78
In the BBT method, fertility is considered to extend through how many consecutive days of temperature elevations?
Three consecutive days.
79
What is the term for the ability of cervical mucus to stretch between the fingers, which is greatest during ovulation?
Spinnbarkeit.
80
In the cervical mucus ovulation detection method, the fertile period begins when the mucus is thin and slippery and lasts for how long after this appearance ends?
3 to 4 days.
81
What appearance is characteristic of cervical mucus during ovulation?
Thin, slippery, and stretchy, similar to the consistency of egg whites.
82
Assessment of cervical mucus can be inaccurate if it is mixed with what substances?
Semen, blood, contraceptive foams, or discharge from infections.
83
In the Two-Day Method of fertility awareness, how does a client determine her fertile period has passed?
After 2 consecutive days without the presence of vaginal secretions.
84
What are the three criteria for the Lactation Amenorrhea Method (LAM) to be effective?
The infant is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and she has an absence of menses.
85
To be effective, the Lactation Amenorrhea Method requires exclusive breastfeeding at least every ____ hours during the day and every ____ hours at night.
4; 6
86
Which type of lubricant should be used with latex condoms to avoid breakage?
Water-soluble lubricants.
87
Which types of penile condoms do NOT protect against STIs due to having small pores?
Natural skin (lamb cecum) condoms.
88
Penile condoms do not protect against STIs that are transmitted from lesions on the skin, such as which three examples?
HPV, HSV, and syphilis.
89
Unlike penile condoms, the vaginal condom offers some protection against STIs transmitted by what type of contact?
Skin-to-skin contact (e.g., HPV, HSV, syphilis).
90
A client using spermicide should be taught to insert it ____ minutes before intercourse, and it is effective for ____ hour.
15; 1
91
Spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can increase the risk of what if used more than twice daily?
HIV, due to causing lesions.
92
How long must a diaphragm remain in place after intercourse, and what is the maximum time it can be left in?
It must stay in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but for no more than 24 hours.
93
A client using a diaphragm should be refitted for what three reasons?
A 20% weight fluctuation, after abdominal or pelvic surgery, and after every pregnancy.
94
The use of a diaphragm, cervical cap, or contraceptive sponge increases the risk of _____, which is a serious bacterial infection.
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
95
Clinical findings of Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) include high fever, a faint feeling, drop in blood pressure, watery diarrhea, headache, and what other two signs?
Macular rash and muscle aches.
96
A diaphragm is not recommended for clients with a history of TSS, frequent UTIs, uterine prolapse, or ____.
cystocele
97
A cervical cap can be left in place for a maximum of ____ hours.
48
98
A contraceptive sponge should be left in place for ____ hours after the last act of intercourse and provides protection for up to ____ hours.
6; 24
99
How do combined oral contraceptives (COCs) primarily work to prevent pregnancy?
By suppressing ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the uterine decidua.
100
A client on combined oral contraceptives should report what signs of a potential thromboembolism?
Chest pain, shortness of breath, or leg pain.
101
A client on combined oral contraceptives should report headache or vision changes as they could be signs of a ____.
stroke
102
Women who are over 35 and ____ are advised not to take combined oral contraceptive medications.
smoke
103
The effectiveness of oral contraceptives decreases when taken with medications that affect liver enzymes, such as certain antibiotics and ____.
anticonvulsants
104
What is the most critical client education point for progestin-only pills (minipills)?
Take the pill at the same time daily to ensure effectiveness.
105
What is the most common adverse effect reported with progestin-only pills?
Breakthrough, irregular, vaginal bleeding.
106
An emergency oral contraceptive pill should be taken within how many hours after unprotected coitus?
Within 72 hours.
107
What medication might a provider recommend be taken 1 hour prior to an emergency oral contraceptive dose?
An over-the-counter antiemetic to counteract nausea.
108
Besides the 'morning-after pill,' what device can be used as an emergency contraceptive up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse?
A copper IUD.
109
Emergency oral contraception does not terminate an ____ ____.
established pregnancy
110
How often is the transdermal contraceptive patch replaced?
Once a week for three weeks, with no patch on the fourth week.
111
The transdermal contraceptive patch may be less effective in clients who weigh more than ____.
198 lb
112
Compared to oral contraceptives, the transdermal patch may have a slightly higher risk of ____ and ____.
deep-vein thrombosis (DVT); venous thromboembolism (VTE)
113
Medroxyprogesterone is an injectable progestin given to a female client every ____ to ____ weeks.
11; 13
114
A significant adverse effect of long-term injectable progestin use is a decrease in ____ ____ ____.
bone mineral density
115
What client education should be provided regarding diet and exercise for a client receiving injectable progestins?
Maintain an adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D, and engage in weight-bearing exercise.
116
Why should a client be instructed not to massage the site after an IM injection of medroxyprogesterone?
It decreases the absorption and effectiveness of the medication.
117
A client's return to fertility can be delayed for as long as up to ____ months after discontinuing injectable progestins.
18
118
A contraceptive vaginal ring is worn for ____ weeks, followed by a ____-day ring-free period.
3; 7
119
If a contraceptive vaginal ring is removed for more than ____ hours, it should be replaced with a new ring and a barrier method should be used for 7 days.
4
120
The implantable progestin rod provides effective contraception for how many years?
3 years.
121
What is the most common adverse effect of the implantable progestin?
Irregular and unpredictable menstruation.
122
If a pregnancy occurs with an implantable progestin in place, there is an increased risk of an ____ pregnancy.
ectopic
123
What is the primary action of an Intrauterine Device (IUD)?
It releases a chemical substance that damages sperm in transit and prevents fertilization.
124
A hormonal IUD is effective for ____ to ____ years, while a copper IUD is effective for ____ years.
3 to 5; 10
125
What is a key client education point for self-monitoring an IUD?
Monitor monthly after menstruation for the presence of the small string in the upper vagina.
126
Use of an IUD can increase the risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, or ____ ____ ____.
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
127
What is a common side effect of the copper IUD regarding menstruation?
An increase in menstrual pain and bleeding.
128
What is a common side effect of the hormonal IUD regarding menstruation?
It decreases menstrual pain and heavy bleeding.
129
What is tubal ligation?
A surgical procedure consisting of severance and/or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization.
130
What is the primary disadvantage of surgical sterilization methods like tubal ligation and vasectomy?
They are considered irreversible and do not protect against STIs.
131
What is a vasectomy?
A surgical procedure consisting of ligation and severance of the vas deferens.
132
After a vasectomy, how is sterility confirmed?
Sperm count must be zero on two consecutive tests.
133
How long must a client use an alternate form of birth control after a vasectomy?
Until the vas deferens is cleared of all sperm, which is approximately 20 ejaculations.
134
What post-procedure care is recommended for a client after a vasectomy to reduce discomfort?
Scrotal support and moderate activity for a couple of days.
135
What is the definition of contraception?
Strategies or devices used to reduce the risk of fertilization/implantation or to prevent pregnancy.
136
For how long after ovulation can a human ovum be fertilized?
24 hours.
137
What is the average duration of a motile sperm's ability to fertilize an ovum?
48 to 72 hours.
138
What is the most effective method of birth control?
Abstinence.
139
What is a primary disadvantage of abstinence as a contraceptive method?
It has a high failure rate due to lack of adherence.
140
The contraceptive method involving withdrawal of the penis from the vagina prior to ejaculation is known as _____.
coitus interruptus.
141
Why is coitus interruptus considered one of the least effective methods of contraception?
Pre-ejaculatory fluid can contain sperm, which can fertilize an ovum.
142
In the calendar rhythm method, ovulation is estimated to occur how many days before the onset of the next menstrual cycle?
About 14 days.
143
How is the start of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?
By subtracting 18 days from the number of days in the shortest menstrual cycle.
144
How is the end of the fertile period calculated using the calendar rhythm method?
By subtracting 11 days from the number of days in the longest menstrual cycle.
145
The Standard Days Method (cycle beads) is considered unreliable for women with menstrual cycles shorter than _____ days or longer than _____ days.
26; 32.
146
In the Standard Days Method, what color are the beads that represent fertile days?
White beads.
147
In the Standard Days Method, what does the red bead signify?
The first day of the menstrual cycle.
148
What physiological change is monitored in the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method to identify ovulation?
A slight elevation in body temperature at rest due to a rise in progesterone.
149
According to the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method, the fertile period extends through how many consecutive days of temperature elevations?
Three consecutive days.
150
What is a significant disadvantage of the Basal Body Temperature (BBT) method's reliability?
It can be influenced by variables like stress, fatigue, illness, or alcohol.
151
In the cervical mucus ovulation detection method, what characteristic of the mucus is greatest during ovulation?
The ability for the mucus to stretch between the fingers (spinnbarkeit).
152
The cervical mucus ovulation detection method is also known as the _____ method.
Billing's.
153
What consistency is cervical mucus compared to during ovulation?
The stretchy consistency of egg whites.
154
What is a primary risk of the cervical mucus method?
The assessment can be inaccurate if mucus is mixed with semen, blood, or contraceptive foams.
155
According to the Two-Day Method of fertility awareness, what indicates the fertile period has passed?
The absence of vaginal secretions for two consecutive days.
156
What are the three criteria for the Lactation Amenorrhea Method (LAM) to be effective?
The infant is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and menses has not returned.
157
To be effective, the Lactation Amenorrhea Method requires exclusive breastfeeding at least every _____ hours during the day and every _____ hours at bedtime.
4; 6.
158
What type of lubricant should be used with latex condoms to avoid breakage?
Only water-soluble lubricants.
159
Which types of penile condoms do not protect against STIs because they have small pores?
Natural skin (lamb cecum) condoms.
160
A vaginal condom is made of what nonlatex synthetic rubber?
Nitrile.
161
What is the mechanism of action for spermicide as a contraceptive?
It destroys sperm and makes the vaginal flora more acidic, which is unfavorable for sperm survival.
162
How long before intercourse should spermicide be inserted to be effective?
15 minutes.
163
Spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can increase the risk of what if used more than twice daily?
HIV, due to causing lesions.
164
How long must a diaphragm remain in place after intercourse?
At least 6 hours, but no more than 24 hours.
165
A diaphragm should be replaced every 2 years and refitted for what reasons?
A 20% weight fluctuation, after abdominal/pelvic surgery, and after every pregnancy.
166
What serious condition is a risk for diaphragm and cervical cap users, characterized by high fever, faintness, and a macular rash?
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
167
A diaphragm is not recommended for clients with a history of recurrent _____.
urinary tract infections (UTIs).
168
How long can a cervical cap be left in place?
For at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 48 hours at a time.
169
A cervical cap is contraindicated for clients who have a history of TSS or what other condition?
Abnormal Pap test results.
170
How long can a contraceptive sponge provide protection?
Up to 24 hours.
171
What is the primary mechanism of action for combined oral contraceptives (COCs)?
They suppress ovulation, thicken cervical mucus, and alter the uterine decidua.
172
What are the warning signs of complications from combined oral contraceptives that a client should report?
Chest pain, shortness of breath, leg pain, severe headache, or vision changes.
173
The effectiveness of oral contraceptives decreases when taking medications that affect liver enzymes, such as certain _____ and _____.
anticonvulsants; antibiotics.
174
Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated for clients over 35 years of age who also do what?
Smoke.
175
What is a key instruction for a client taking progestin-only pills (minipill) to ensure effectiveness?
Take the pill at the same time daily.
176
What is the most common adverse effect reported with progestin-only pills?
Breakthrough, irregular, vaginal bleeding.
177
Within how many hours after unprotected coitus must an emergency oral contraceptive (morning-after pill) be taken?
Within 72 hours.
178
What non-hormonal device can be used as emergency contraception up to 5 days following unprotected intercourse?
A copper IUD.
179
How often is the transdermal contraceptive patch replaced?
Once a week for 3 weeks, with no patch on the fourth week.
180
The risk of deep-vein thrombosis may be slightly higher with the transdermal patch compared to oral contraceptives for what reason?
The hormones get into the bloodstream and are processed by the body differently.
181
The transdermal contraceptive patch is less effective in clients who weigh more than _____.
198 lb.
182
How often is the injectable progestin medroxyprogesterone administered?
Every 11 to 13 weeks.
183
What is a significant adverse effect of injectable progestins on bone health?
Decreased bone mineral density.
184
Why should a client not massage the site after an IM injection of medroxyprogesterone?
It decreases the absorption and effectiveness of the medication.
185
How long can the return to fertility be delayed after discontinuing injectable progestins?
Up to 18 months.
186
What is the usage schedule for the contraceptive vaginal ring?
It is inserted for 3 weeks, removed for 1 week, and then a new ring is inserted.
187
What is the maximum amount of time the contraceptive vaginal ring can be removed without compromising its effectiveness?
Up to 3 hours.
188
How long is an implantable progestin rod effective for contraception?
3 years.
189
What is the most common adverse effect of an implantable progestin?
Irregular and unpredictable menstruation.
190
If a pregnancy occurs with an implantable progestin in place, there is an increased risk of what type of pregnancy?
Ectopic pregnancy.
191
What are the two most effective long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) methods?
The implant and IUDs.
192
How long is a hormonal IUD effective?
3 to 5 years.
193
How long is a copper IUD effective?
10 years.
194
What client education is essential for monitoring an IUD?
Monthly self-check after menstruation for the presence of the small string.
195
What is a major risk associated with IUDs, particularly for clients not in a monogamous relationship?
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
196
What is a common side effect specific to the copper IUD?
Increase in menstrual pain and bleeding.
197
Which surgical procedure for female sterilization involves the severance and/or blocking of the fallopian tubes?
Tubal ligation.
198
What is a primary advantage of tubal ligation?
It provides permanent, immediate contraception.
199
If pregnancy occurs after a tubal ligation, there is an increased risk of what?
Ectopic pregnancy.
200
Which surgical procedure for male sterilization involves the ligation and severance of the vas deferens?
Vasectomy.
201
Following a vasectomy, how long is sterility delayed?
Until the proximal portion of the vas deferens is cleared of all sperm (approximately 20 ejaculations).
202
How is sterility confirmed after a vasectomy?
The sperm count must be zero on two consecutive tests.
203
What is a rare complication of a vasectomy where sperm can accumulate?
Sperm granulomas.
204
What nursing instruction regarding physical activity should be given to a client post-vasectomy?
Use scrotal support and engage in moderate activity for a couple of days to reduce discomfort.