Chapter 100 - Palate Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

What runs through the major palatine foramen?

A

major palatine artery
maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (sensory to oral side of hard palate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Principle blood supply to the soft palate is from which artery?

A

Minor palatine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the muscles of the soft palate and their function:

A
  • Palatinus - shortens the palate rostrally
  • Tensor veli palatini - Stretches the soft palate between the pterygoid bones
  • Levator veli palatini - Elevates the caudal soft palate to protect nasopharynx at swallow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At what time frame does intrauterine insult (trauma, stress, corticosteroids, antimitotic drugs, nutritional, hormonal, viral, toxic) result in a cleft?

A

25-28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At what time frame is sx for cleft palate recommended?

A

3-4 months, some defects may get smaller with growth but want to repair before this tissue becomes friable and delicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Increase in resistance to airflow is caused largely by a decrease in airway radius as illustrated by which law?

A

Poiseuille’s law
- Q = πΔPr4/8ŋl,

Q is the rate of flow; ΔP is the pressure difference between the ends of the airway; r is the radius of the airway; ŋ is the viscosity of the gas; and l is the length of the airway

Flow is proportional to the radius of the airway to the fourth power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Hering-Breuer reflex?

A

A stretch reflex mediated by vagal fibers that control the rate and depth of respiration.

Causes a longer contraction of the inspiratory muscles during each breath cycle in response to increased upper airway resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal tracheal diameter in non-brachycephalic dogs?

In Bulldogs?

A

Non-brachy: 20% of thoracic inlet diameter

Bulldogs: 12.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How may pairs of pharyngeal arches are there in the embryo?
What arches form the mandibular and maxillary prominences (which form the oral cavity?

A

6 pairs

1st pair forms the prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What form of epithelium forms in the nasal cavity?
In the oral cavity?

A

Nasal - pseudostratified ciliated columnar
Oral - stratified squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What bones form the hard palate?

A
  • Palatine
  • Maxillary
  • Incisive
    + palatal mucoperiosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does a normal soft palate extend to?

A

Just caudal to last maxillary molar teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many transverse ridges/depressions are there in the normal hard palate?

A

6-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What runs through the major palatine foramen?

A

major palatine artery
major palatine branch of maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (sensory to oral side of hard palate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are the major palatine foramina?

A

Medial to the maxillary 4th premolar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What nerve supplies sensation to the soft palate?

A

Minor palatine branch of maxillary division of trigeminal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 2 functions of the soft palate during swallowing?

A
  • Stimulation of sensory nerves in the palate are part of the mechanism that triggers swallowing
  • Closure of intrapharyngeal opening during swallowing and vomiting to prevent aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

On what side do unilateral cleft lips most commonly form?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What % of airway resistance is due to the nose in normal dogs?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What % of dogs with BOAS have moderate to severe GI signs?

A

10-74%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Poiseuille’s law?

A

Flow in a tube is proportional to the radius to the fourth power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes (5) of acquired palate defects?

A

Chronic infection, trauma, neoplasia, surgery, radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Two considerations in treatment for oronasal fistula?

A

Let it declare itself before repair, remove cause of defect before repair.

24
Q

During which gestational window in dogs are cleft palate defects most likely to occur?

A

Days 25–28 of gestation when palatal shelf fusion is occurring.

25
What embryologic structure gives rise to the bilateral palatal shelves that form the secondary palate?
The maxillary processes of the first pharyngeal arch.
26
What critical morphologic event allows fusion of the secondary palate?
Elevation of the palatal shelves above the tongue followed by midline epithelial seam degradation.
27
What cellular population initiates development of the pharyngeal arches?
Neural crest cell migration between surface ectoderm and foregut endoderm.
28
Why is primary palate formation considered controversial in dogs and cats?
Evidence suggests medial nasal prominences may not significantly contribute, and the primary palate may arise mainly from maxillary processes.
29
Which bones form the hard palate?
The palatine, maxillary, and incisive bones covered by palatal mucoperiosteum.
30
Where are the major palatine foramina located?
Medial to the maxillary fourth premolar teeth bilaterally.
31
What structures exit the major palatine foramen?
The major palatine artery and the major palatine branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
32
What is the surgical significance of the major palatine artery?
It courses rostrally supplying the hard palate and must be preserved during mucoperiosteal flap elevation.
33
What is the function of the incisive ducts?
They communicate with the vomeronasal organ and nasal cavity adjacent to the incisive papilla.
34
Which arteries primarily supply the soft palate?
The minor palatine arteries branching from the maxillary arteries.
35
Which nerves provide sensory innervation to the soft palate?
The minor palatine branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
36
Which cranial nerves innervate the palatopharyngeal musculature?
The glossopharyngeal (IX) and vagus (X) nerves.
37
What is the function of the levator veli palatini muscle?
Elevation of the caudal soft palate to protect the nasopharynx during swallowing and vomiting.
38
What is the function of the tensor veli palatini muscle?
Stretches the soft palate between the pterygoid bones to provide tension and stability.
39
What action does the palatinus muscle perform?
Shortens the soft palate in a rostrocaudal direction during contraction.
40
What are the two primary roles of the soft palate during swallowing?
Triggering the swallow reflex via sensory stimulation and closing the intrapharyngeal opening to prevent aspiration.
41
How does the soft palate contribute to airway resistance modulation?
Phasic and tonic muscle activity stiffens the palate during increased negative airway pressures.
42
What functional structure is created during swallowing to prevent nasopharyngeal reflux?
A palatopharyngeal sphincteric ring formed by coordinated soft palate and pharyngeal muscle contraction.
43
Where are hard palate clefts most commonly located?
Midline, often associated with a concurrent midline soft palate cleft.
44
Which side are unilateral cleft lips more commonly observed?
The left side.
45
Which breed conformation is predisposed to congenital palate defects?
Brachycephalic breeds.
46
Why may soft palate hypoplasia carry a poorer prognosis even after repair?
Lack of functional musculature may prevent restoration of effective palatopharyngeal closure.
47
What middle ear pathology association has been reported with unilateral soft palate defects?
Concurrent middle ear disease due to altered Eustachian tube function.
48
What clinical sign suggests a neonatal palate cleft affecting nursing ability?
Failure to generate negative pressure resulting in milk drainage from the nares.
49
What are common signs of secondary palate defects in young animals?
Coughing, gagging, sneezing, aspiration pneumonia, and poor weight gain.
50
What clinical sign is typical of an oronasal fistula?
Sneezing with ipsilateral nasal discharge.
51
What presentation is typical of traumatic midline hard palate fractures in cats?
Bilateral epistaxis following high-rise or motor vehicle trauma.
52
At what age is surgical correction of congenital secondary palate defects recommended?
Between 3 and 4 months of age.
53
Why is surgical repair discouraged before 2 months of age?
Soft tissues are delicate and friable, increasing risk of dehiscence.
54
Why is postponing repair beyond 5 months potentially problematic?
Growth may widen the cleft, increasing surgical complexity.
55
What is the primary nursing management before definitive cleft repair?
Tube feeding to prevent aspiration pneumonia.
56
Why should traumatic or electric cord palate injuries often be managed conservatively initially?
To allow necrotic tissue to demarcate and slough before definitive reconstruction.
57
What principle must be followed before repairing acquired palatal defects?
The underlying cause (e.g., infection, malocclusion, foreign body) must be eliminated.